Practice Questions Test 2 (Deck 6) Flashcards

1
Q

The formation of collagen rich fibrous connective tissue

“scirrhous carcinomas”

stony hard consistency

A

Desmoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hyperplasia, Metaplasia, and Dysplasia

are all categorized as

A

Pre-Neoplastic Changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

T/F

Hypertrophy can lead to neoplasia

A

FALSE

Hypertrophy CANNOT, HyperPLASIA can

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is it called when the

entire thickness of the epithelium is replaced by dysplastic cells?

A

Carcinoma in-situ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A reversible pre-neoplastic change in which one adult cell type is replaced by another less specialized cell type

A

Metaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The pre-neoplastic condition in which

epithelium changes to squamous epithelium

due to chronic irritation or vit A deficiency

A

Metaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A teratoma is what type of tumor?

A

Mixed tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A nephroblastoma is a unique tumor reported in young dogs, mostly *German Shepherds. *

How is it classified?

A

Mixed Tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Another name for Wilm’s tumor

A

Nephroblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

An undifferentiated malignant neoplasm is called

A

Anaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

T/F:

Anaplasia arise from multipotent stem cells

A

FALSE

Anaplasia arise from totipotent stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name a **pleomorphic muscle cell anaplasia **

A

Rhabdomyosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

**Genomic instability **is a hallmark of what?

A

malignant transformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Non-lethal genetic damage is related to _________

A

carcinogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The most important hallmark of malignancy is

A

METASTASIS!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the first step of the metastatic cascade?

A

Loss of cadherin and catenin function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

**Tumor heterogeneity **is generated during tumor growth by the

*progressive accumulation of *_____ ______

A

heritable changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How do

pleomorphic pancreatic carcinoma

and

metastatic mammary carcinoma

spread?

A

trancoelmic spreading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In gastric carcinoma, invasive carcinmatous cells have the ability to induce prominent _______

A

desmoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is used to stain

invasive carcinoma cells originating from surface gastric epithelium?

A

Alcian blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the difference between an

allograft and a xenograft?

A

Allograft is from the same species

Xenograft is from a different species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

heritable changes in gene expression of somatic cells

resulting in a change from something other than a DNA sequence change is called

A

Epigenetic changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the two most common Epigenetic changes?

A

DNA methylation

Histone modification

24
Q

A cell with irreversible genetic damage is called

A

initiated cell

25
Q

When an initiated cell is in the presence of a promoter,

the result is the formation of what?

A

Preneoplastic lesion

or

Benign tumor

26
Q

T/F:

Tumors are multiclonal

A

FALSE!

Tumors are MONOclonal

27
Q

What is the MOST IMPORTANT

growth-inhibiting tumor suppressor gene?

A

P53!!

aka “guardian of the genome”

or

“molecular policeman”

28
Q

If p53 has activated p21 or GADD45

has damage to DNA been repaired?

A

YES

The result of activation of

p21 and GADD45

is DNA repair

29
Q

If p53 has activated BAX gene,

has DNA been repaired?

A

NO

If the BAX gene is activated,

DNA has not been repaired, and the cell will undergo

apoptosis

30
Q

T/F:

There is an increased incidence of cancer in the immunosuppressed

A

TRUE

31
Q

CTLs are responsible for recognizing what?

A

tumor antigens

32
Q

What is the

target of immunosurveillance**?

A

Tumor antigens

TSA and TAA

33
Q

What is the major

immune defense mechanism

against tumors?

A

CD8+ CYTOTOXIC T-LYMPHOCYTES

34
Q

What is the most

potent activator of macrophages

produced by NK cells and macrophages?

A

IFN-gamma

35
Q

T/F:

Humoral immunity is affective against tumors

A

FALSE!

Humoral immunity is USELESS against tumors

36
Q

What can cause urinary bladder cancer in cattle?

A

Ingestion of

BRACKEN FERN

37
Q

Which two breeds are predisposed to familial cancer?

A

Cows (Hereford) and Cats (white colored)

are predisposed to

squamous cell carcinoma

38
Q

In a white cat

squamous cell carcinoma of the ears or nose

is preceded by

A

actinic (solar) keratosis

39
Q

T/F:

Benign tumors can cause mortality and morbidity

A

TRUE

ALL tumors can cause mortality and morbidity

40
Q

A progressive loss of body fat and lean body mass accompanied by profound weakness, anorexia, and anemia is called

A

CACHEXIA

41
Q

What **6 **substances are involved in the pathogenesis of

cancer cachexia?

A
  1. TNF
  2. IL-1
  3. IL-6
  4. IFN-gamma (most potent activator of macrophages)
  5. Prostaglandins
  6. PIF

TIIIPP

42
Q

What is the most frequently seen

paraneoplastic syndrome?

A

Cachexia

(In 65% of patients with cancer)

43
Q

What are the

7 paraneoplastic syndromes?

A
  1. Cachexia
  2. Hypercalcemia of malignancy
  3. Hypoglycemia
  4. Thrombotic disease
  5. Peripheral neuropathy
  6. Nodular dermatofibrosis (German shepherds)
  7. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy

(CX)(HM)(H)(T)(PN)(ND)(HO)- PCHHHNT

44
Q

What is the most common **paraneoplastic syndrome due to the production of **

PTHRP?

A

Hypercalcemia of malignancy

45
Q

T/F:

Hypercalcemia of skeletal metastases due to osteolysis

is a

paraneoplastic syndrome

A

FALSE!!!

ONLY Hypercalcemia of malignancy is paraneoplastic

46
Q

In dogs, hypercalcemia of malignancy is primarily associated with

what two cancers?

A

Apocrine gland carcinomas of the anal sacs

and

Lymphosarcomas

47
Q

Other than hypercalcemia of malignancy

what other disorders can cause persistent hypercalcemia?

A
  • Hyperparathyroidism*
  • Renal Failure*
  • Hypoadrenocorticism*
  • Hypervitaminosis D*

HyperPD and Hypoadreno + RF

48
Q

This paraneoplastic syndrome is characterized by

periosteal bone proliferation

and is associated with the

space-occupying lesions in the lungs

A

Hypertrophic Osteoarthropathy

49
Q

Marie’s Disease

is another name for what

paraneoplastic syndrome?

A

Hypertrophic Osteoarthropathy

50
Q

Which paraneoplastic syndrome is associated with

german shepherds

and is an autosomal dominant trait

causing benign cutaneous lesions?

A

Nodular dermatofibrosis

51
Q

Nodular dermatofibrosis

is often found in german shepherds and is associated with

what underlying condition**?

A

Underlying bilateral renal disease

most commonly

Cystadenocarcinomas

52
Q

The antagonist of estrogen receptors used in therapy of breast cancer is called

A

Tamoxifen

53
Q

T/F:

Receptor + breast cancers have a bad prognosis as compared to receptor – breast cancers

A

FALSE

Receptor PLUS have a more POSITIVE PROGNOSIS

and better susceptibility to anti-estrogen therapy

54
Q

Evaluation of the *degree of differentiation *of a tumor

classified as 1 - 4 with increasing anaplasia

A

GRADING

55
Q

Evaluation based on the size of the primary tumor and

extent of the spread to regional lymph nodes

A

STAGING

56
Q

Which is more clinically useful:

Grading or Staging?

A

STAGING

57
Q

The TNM system is part of which evaluation technique of tumors?

A

STAGING