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SAM > PPQ9 > Flashcards

PPQ9 Flashcards

1
Q

which statement is true regarding feline heart worm disease

A

cats are occasionally infected

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2
Q

after ECG examination of a spaniel with a 3rd degree AV block

A

Determination of the potassium level; Administer atropine & diltiazem; Long term -
Pacemaker

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3
Q

during an echocardiograph, we can use

A

short axis view; longitudinal view

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4
Q

How can you distinguish between a ventricular extrasystole from a supraventricular
one on the ECG?

A

ventricular extrasystole is followed by a compensated pause

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5
Q

How can you distinguish between a ventricular supraventricular arrhythmia on the
ECG?

A

the QRS complex is always wide in ventricular arrhythmias

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6
Q

what may play a role in the progression of heart failure

A

Decreased number and function of cardiac acetylcholine receptors (downregulation);
The production of inflammatory mediators & free radicals; Poor blood supply to the
heart muscle despite increased oxygen & energy demands

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7
Q

Which steps are correct after ECG examination of a dog with supraventricular
tachyarrhythmia?

A

Perform a Vagus manoeuvre; Administer diltiazem; Echocardiography; Blood test

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8
Q

the haemodynamic parameters that determine heart rate include

A

Ventricular preload & afterload; Contractility; Distensibility; HR & synchronisation of
contractions

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9
Q

what is needed for a standard echocardiographic examination

A

Phased array transducer; Right lateral recumbency; Using standard planes

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10
Q

The cranial border of the Diernhofer triangle

A

the scapula

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11
Q

How can you determine the left atria-aortic ratio (LA/Ao.) during an
echocardiograph?

A

measure the diameter of the aorta and the LA in the same short axis view

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12
Q

which of the following types of shock is SIRIS rate in

A

Distributive shock

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13
Q

consequences of heart failure

A

pulmonary oedema

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14
Q

Which pulmonary vessels can be altered on the thoracic x-ray during canine heart
worm disease?

A

pulmonary arteries

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15
Q

what lesions are characteristic for radiograph of pneumothorax

A

Elevation of the heart from the sternum; Obvious demarcation of the intrathoracic
organs; Compression of the lung lobes

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16
Q

what changes do you expect to find in case of severe pulmonic stenosis

A

right ventricular

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17
Q

ECG characteristic of atrial fibrillation

A

there are no P-waves; the R-R distance varies

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18
Q

What is the typical finding during the FIP coinciding with fluid accumulation?

A

honey-like, viscous exudate during puncture

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19
Q

What are the three major components of the complex treatment of canine heartworm
disease?

A

Doxycycline, Moxidectin, Melarsomine

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20
Q

the upper border of the dullness during percussion of pleural effusion is

A

horizontal

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21
Q

reducing ventricular afterload during HF

A

is extremely risky

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22
Q

Which diagnostic tool is chosen next in cases of uncertain radiographic findings in
suspected diaphragmatic hernia

A

ultrasonography

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23
Q

the administration of digoxin may be justified to treat

A

atrial fibrillation

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24
Q

which answer is false

A

during surgical scrubbing, the skin surface can be made completely sterile

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25
Q

what is the goal of asepsis

A

to prevent contamination

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26
Q

what cannot be the reason of haemopericardium in dogs

A

thromboembolism

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27
Q

what are the characteristics of feline hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)

A

sudden death; long survival; right sided heart dilation

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28
Q

what are the consequences of left sided heart failure

A

pulmonary oedema; pleural fluid accumulation (cats)

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29
Q

pacemaker implantation is justified for

A

the treatment of 3rd degree AV block

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30
Q

what cannot be determined by colour Doppler Ultrasound

A

the character of blood flow (laminar or turbulent)

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31
Q

which statement is correct

A

dogs have pre-formed antibodies to blood group antigen DEA

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32
Q

which statement is false about chest tracheal and resection

A

up to 25% of the trachea can be removed

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33
Q

what is the appropriate respiration rate of CPR

A

10-12/min

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34
Q

the concept of wet wound treatment

A

is based on the retention of wound secretion on the wound surface

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35
Q

what drug/suspension can be given IV

A

ling-acting antibiotic suspension

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36
Q

which statement is correct? open-system blood collection

A

is easy to perform/implement

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37
Q

characteristics of foreign body in the nasal cavity

A

requires glucocorticoid and antibiotic treatment; decreases oedema

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38
Q

which statement is correct

A

There is a valve in the upper opening of the venous cannula, so we cannot take blood
from here

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39
Q

characteristics of reverse sneezing

A

usually caused by irritation of the anterior third of the nasal cavity

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40
Q

when used in a contact layer, its antibacterial effect is due to its dehydrating properties

A

silver

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41
Q

which muscle can be used for intramuscular drug admin

A

m. quadriceps femoris (semi-tendinosus/membranosus too)

42
Q

According to Poncet’s BOAS classification system, which clinical condition is
decisive for grade III classification?

A

grade III collapse

43
Q

In the complex therapy of heartworm, the only adulticidal agent accepted by AHS
is…

A

milbemycin oxime

44
Q

The recommended time of the last combined primary vaccine in the primary
vaccination series of the pup

A

12 weeks of age

45
Q

which contact layer is best to cover the wound in exudative phase

A

hydrogel

46
Q

choose the correct answer

A

Colloidal infusions contain low molecular weight solute used to treat dehydration at a
dose of 20 ml/kg/day

47
Q

The study found that the cat had prolonged skin tuberculosis due to hypovolaemic
dehydrated hypovolaemic and dehydrated old age. “In case of hypovolaemic shock, the
first choice for starting infusion therapy is”…

A

HAES infusion

48
Q

at what age is it recommended to start vaccinating dogs

A

6-8 weeks

49
Q

which is part of the canal cartilage is fixed during

CAL surgery

A

none

50
Q

prognath bite is normal in

A

cat; bulldog; boxer; pug

51
Q

if wound infection is suspected

A

bacterial culture and antibiotic resistance testing should be performed

52
Q

closed system blood collection

A

for mandatory blood count

53
Q

vena cava syndrome caused by heartworm can be clearly identified

A

echocardiography

54
Q

cyanotic mucous membranes

A

gastric dilation & volvulus (GDV); shock

55
Q

recommended treatment in weighty FORL (Feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions)

A

usually tooth extraction

56
Q

what are the typical CSx of gastric disease

A

vomitus; haematemesis; anorexia

57
Q

give antibiotic in case of diarrhoea

A

only in case of sepsis

58
Q

an additional test is recommended for mild acute small bowel diarrhoea

A

faecal parasitical examination

59
Q

which statement is false? eosinophilic granuloma complex

A

is only diagnosable by x-ray

60
Q

which is true for gastric disease

A

stomach ulcers are often caused/exacerbated by NSAID’s

61
Q

what sickness causes portal hypertension

A

Connected to hepatic arterio-venosus fistula (also hepatic venous outflow)/
Arterioportal fistula

62
Q

which statement is true

A

feline ALP isoenzymes: liver; boene

63
Q

which statement is false? hepatic lipidosis in cats

A

increased lipoprotein synthesis, therefore decreased triglyceride levels int he liver

64
Q

tonsillectomy should not be an indication

A

chronic tonsillitis; tonsil tumour

65
Q

this is not true for the perianal adenoma

A

in males it starts mainly from the perianal sinuses

66
Q

which statement is true

A

Excessive inflation of the stomach may interfere with gastroscopic examination of the
antrum and pylorus

67
Q

an indication for lobectomy may be one of the following

A

acute extra-hepatobiliary obstruction (EHBO)

68
Q

characteristic of lymphangiecasia

A

ascites; hydrothorax; weight loss; emaciation

69
Q

not true for EPI

A

satiety & returning colon origin diarrhoea

70
Q

which BOAS surgery technique could make you soft palate more thin

A

folded flap palatoplasty

71
Q

which one is false in primary Cu storage disease

A

cholestasis causes Cu accumulation

72
Q

what is gastropexy

A

Surgical procedure where the stomach is sutured to the abdominal wall or the
diaphragm

73
Q

which is true for oesophageal disease

A

appetite

74
Q

infiltrating tonsillectomy during anaesthesia

A

adrenaline

75
Q

how to diagnose deep pain

A

the patient pulls finger tight; turns head; vocalisation; tries to bite

76
Q

this is not true for acute abdominal ‘disasters’

A

determination of exact organ involvement is necessary for surgical intervention

77
Q

why dont we use multifilament suture material for stomach and gastropexy

A

risk of septic complication is higher due to bacteria travelling along the fibres

78
Q

in case of congenital cerebrovascular disease, which is true

A

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt can be used as palliative, symptomatic treatment

79
Q

it is not true for acute domestic diasters

A

The exact organ involvement needs to be determined for the indication of an ambulatory
operation

80
Q

what is the most common region for flexion in a young dog

A

antlantoaxial joint (C1-C2) causing luxation

81
Q

what is true for hydrocephalus

A

ventricular system dilation within cranium

82
Q

what is not a non-regenerative anaemia

A

the regenerative forms are: blood loss and haemolysis

83
Q

which drug can cause bone marrow damage

A

phenobarbital; imepitoin

84
Q

which one does not cause immune haemolytic anaemia

A

microsporum

85
Q

which cause immune haemolytic anaemia

A

Hemangiosarcoma; Babesia; Mycoplasma

86
Q

which is the best surgical technique for Hansen I disc hernaition

A

hemilaminectomy

87
Q

which blood parameter is good to test in case of anaemia

A

RBC; PCV

88
Q

Case study: The owner of a 3-year-old Labrador has experienced him having 2
seizures in the last 2 months. Apart from this, no other symptoms. What is the most
likely diagnosis?

A

idiopathic epilepsy (breed dispostion)

89
Q

what causes cats to be sensitive to pyrethrin

A

Ca/Mg ATPase inhibitor; In cats, hepatic glucuronidase activity is very low

90
Q

what situation does taking CSF samples help diagnosis

A

Meningitis; Meningoencephalitis; Bleeding; Inflammatory changes

91
Q

Which of the following diseases with non-regenerative anaemia has the best
prognosis?

A

addison’s/ hypothyroidism

92
Q

what is the most common cause for seizures in a young adult dog

A

primary seizure

93
Q

enterotomy suture

A

Monofilament with non-absorbable suture material; Simple interrupted/continuous
suture pattern in 1 layer

94
Q

Which disease requires an absolute surgical indication/intervention
(hemilaminectomy)

A

Acute Hansen type-I disc prolapse with paraplegia without deep pain perception

95
Q

which one means cervical malformation & misarticulation

A

Wobbler syndrome

96
Q

The modified Glasgow coma scale appreciated the state of the traumatic brain injury
by

A

motor activity; brainstem reflexes; level of consciousness

97
Q

the modified Glasgow coma scale is based on the following

A

pupil size; motor activity; state of consciousness

98
Q

what is not true for the acute stomach catastrophe

A

The precise diagnosis of organ dysfunctions is necessary for surgical indication (you
can perform an explorative laparotomy if you don’t know what the main lesion is!)

99
Q

which disease requires surgery

A

acute hansen-I

100
Q

which of the following statements is not true for splenic hemangiosarcoma

A

The ruptured nature of the tumour does not significantly impair the prognosis

SAM (11 decks)

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