PPQ10 Flashcards
which diagnosis is wrong for UMN
hyporeflexia
which instrumental additional test is best for diagnosing fibrocartilage embolism
MRI
which cannot be a symptom of transverse myelopathy
partiality; limping; lameness
what is best for anti-epilepsy
Phenobarbital (though may cause hepatotoxicity or non-regenerative anaemia);
Imepitoin
what is not true for degenerative myelopathy
nutrition base
difference between aujeszky’s and rabies
paraesthesia is more common in aujeszky’s; offensive behaviour in rabies
which symptom is not common for acute abdomen
DIC
in what lesion can liqor cytology help
meningitis
which statement is true
botulism is caused by clostridium bacteria and the main symptom is flaccid paresis
brain tissue damage in order of severity
commotio cerebri> contusion cerebri> lacerta vitidis
what does DAMNIT-V schematic stand for
For constructing a list of differential diagnoses based on anatomical and
pathophysiological features of a disease
where could we take a bone marrow sample
hip; humerus; wing of ileum
Why is multifilament suture material not recommended by the surgeries on the GI
organs?
high risk of septic consequences because of the drainage
which is the final step in small intestine anastomosis surgery
omentalisation (also used for prostatic/paraprostatic cyst)
which drug can be used to stop seizures
diazepam; propofol
which statement is false
In case of UMN dysfunction, the clinical findings are: Hyporeflexia; Muscle hypotonia;
Abnormal reflexes
which statements are true
The UMN cell bodies are located in the cerebellum & brainstem; The UMN could
stimulate or inhibit the lower motor neuron; In case of UMN dysfunction, the clinical
findings are: Hyperreflexia; Muscle hypertonia; Abnormal reflexes
incubation period of rabies
usually 2-3 months but can be shorter/longer depending on which body part is affected
which is not the function of LMN
control of voluntary movement
which are functions of the LMN
maintenance of muscle tone and support against gravity; initiation of voluntary movement; regulation of posture
congenital hydrocephalus in dogs. which statement is true
hydrocephalus is common in young big sized breeds under the age of 1 year
which disease is acute
type-1 discopathy
what disease is chronic
type- II discopathy; lumbo-sacral instability; tumour
what is the most characteristic localisation of vertebral body tumours
the middle third of the vertebral body
regarding brain lesions, which part of the brain can be distinguished
forebrain; brainstem; cerebellum
which statement is correct for clinical sings of oesophageal disease in general
appetite can be decreased or increased
which breed is not predisposed for primary Cu accumulation
german shepherd
which is the first drug of choice in treatment of primary Cu accumulation
D- penicillamine
in case of intestinal obstruction
profuse bloody diarrhoea is the most characteristic symptom
chronic inflammatory enteropathy (CIE)
can result in protein-losing enteropathy
in which case of the following does megaoesophagus not occur
cushing’s disease
granulomatous colitis is caused by
adherent invasive E. coli AIEC
not suggested medication for IBD
azathioprine for cats
suggested medications for IBD
Prednisolone; Cyclosporine; Budesonide
which hepatic division posses the gall bladder
central division
which of the following procedures has a modification called Roux-en-Y technique
Cholecystoduodenostomy
which anal zone involves Circumanal hepatoid glands
zona intermedia
which suture technique is recommended for the closure of colon in cats
single or double layer simple or interrupted or continuous
in case of anaemic condition, which cell increase is indicating the regenerative
property of the disease?
reticulocytes
which of the following non-regenerative diseases has the best prognosis
addisons disease
which platelet number can we expect bleeding because of thrombocytopenia
<50 g/l
which statement is true
In case of acute bleeding, microcytic hypochromic anaemia can develop withing a few
hours
which statement is true
in case of acute bleeding, the microcytic hypochromic anaemia occurs in a few hours
which cannot secondary immunohemolytic anaemia
microsporum
deviations in thrombocytopenia
Petechia; Epistaxis; Bleeding time increases; Thrombocytes decrease
lyssencephalon
is the congenital underdevelopment of the cerebral cortex groove
which statement can be true
in case of haemolytic anaemia, the blood plasma can be clear
which is not common with acute gastric catastrophe
vomiting
where are vertebral body tumours most common
on the end plates
which one if the following is true in case of tubular proteinuria
small-sized proteins appear in the urine
IRIS stage 1 chronic renal failure is associated with
decreased specific gravity of urine
abnormalities that are typical for chronic renal disease, which answer is wrong
hypophostataemia
which statement is incorrect? the progression of renal disease is caused by
isothenuria
it prolongs the survival of dogs & cats with chronic kidney disease
urinary diet
which of the following is indicated in the case of unilateral hydronephrosis
nephrectomy
in case of elevated blood creatinine concentration
the animal has azotaemia
Which of the following findings indicates the diagnosis of the urinary bladder
rupture?
if the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography
postrenal azotaemia.. which answer is wrong
may be due to severe dehydration
postrenal azotaemia.. which answer is correct
May be due to urethral obstruction; May cause kidney damage without treatment; May
be due to ureter rupture
which of the following is not typical in case of acute kidney injury
cachexia
which of the following is typical in case of acute kidney injury
vomitus; metabolic acidosis; uraemic ulcers
Which of the following protocols are to followed in case of acute obstruction form of
feline lower urinary tract disease (FLUTD)?
stabilisation and urethral catherisation
which are typical of babesiosis
icterus; vomitus; AKI
which arent typical of babesiosis
myoglobinuria
Which of the following therapeutic steps is to be taken first after diagnosing urethral
obturation in a male dog?
urethral hydroprulsion
which circumstances may cause nephrosis/acute kidney injury
Hypotension; Dehydration; Overhydration with crystalloids; Antibiotics; Chemotherapy
oliguria definition in dogs
urine output is <6-10ml/bwkg/day
which is the least important to establish the diagnosis of the kidney disease
measurement of blood phosphorus, calcium and potassium
which is most important to establish diagnosis of kidney disease
Blood urea/creatinine; Urine sediment & USG; Proteinuria detection
which of the following uroliths appears in case of thylene glycol toxicosis
calcium-oxalate monohydrate
symptoms of lower urinary tract disease in small animals
Haematuria; Pollakiuria; Stranguria; Dysuria; Periuria; Incontinence
the most important aspect of struvite urolithiasis treatment in dogs
diet; abx; urine acidification
acute causes of nephrosis
Renal ischaemia; Nephrotoxic materials; Haemoglobin; Myoglobin
renal cysts
are mainly incidental findings
most common cause of struvite urolithiasis in dogs
chronic bacterial UTI
which therapies are recommended for treatment of dehydration in CKD`
Administration of IV fluids; Administration of SC infusion; Increase water consumption
renal amyloidosis is usually found in
abyssinian cats
what us true about renal glycosuria
Plasma glucose levels are normal; Can have genetic causes; May be a part of Fanconi
syndrome
how would you treat a cat with interstitial cystitis
Increase water; Facial pheromones; Environmental enrichment (not urine acidification)
creatinine level of dogs & cats with IRIS stage 1 CKD is
normal <130 umol/L
which statement is true for animals with renal dysplasia
common symptoms are PU/PD
Which therapeutic measure decreases blood potassium during the treatment of
hyperkalaemia?
Potassium-free infusion & furosemide; Glucose-containing infusion; Rapid-acting
insulin applications
what is the main and initiating cause of the calcium-phosphorus imbalance in CKF
retention of phosphorus
In dogs, which type of urolithiasis can be affected by housing conditions, lifestyle &
body condition?
calcium oxalate
What is true for polycystic kidney disease
Often asymptomatic; Renal abscesses may develop in case of bacterial infection of the
cyst; US examination is required for diagnosis (surgery is not often necessary)
the most effective gastric protectant for dogs with CKD
pantoprazole
which urinary stone cannot be dissolved medically
calcium oxalate
it typically causes acute & chronic kidney disease- preexisting chronic disease +
haemodynamic disturbances
Which one of the following uroliths appears usually in cases of dogs with bacterial
cystitis?
struvite
possible causes of hydronephrosis
Granuloma formation following neutralisation; Ascending infection; Transitional cell
carcinoma in the bladder
Until what level is it recommended to increase the Ht with erythropoietin/darbepoetin
therapy in chronic kidney disease?
until the Ht is around 30%
renal amyloidosis is typically found in which dog breed
shar-pei
oliguria in the dog- aetiology
inadequate water intake; Dehydration; Acute nephrosis
Hypercholesterolaemia is typically associated with the following kidney disease
glomerulopathies of dogs
renal amyloidosis is not typically caused by
chronic liver diease
what statement is true about immune-complex glomerulonephritis
an important element of therapy is broad spectrum abx therapy
which statement is correct regarding ectopic ureters
the urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition episodes
what is the advantage of scrotal urethrostomy
easily dissectible urethra, larger section, wide and safe stroma
which treatment does not affect the PTH-level in chronic renal cases
ACE-inhibitor therapy
in case of renal traumatic bleeding
retroperitoneal blood loss may even lead to exsanguination
