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SAM > PPQ10 > Flashcards

PPQ10 Flashcards

1
Q

which diagnosis is wrong for UMN

A

hyporeflexia

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2
Q

which instrumental additional test is best for diagnosing fibrocartilage embolism

A

MRI

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3
Q

which cannot be a symptom of transverse myelopathy

A

partiality; limping; lameness

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4
Q

what is best for anti-epilepsy

A

Phenobarbital (though may cause hepatotoxicity or non-regenerative anaemia);
Imepitoin

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5
Q

what is not true for degenerative myelopathy

A

nutrition base

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6
Q

difference between aujeszky’s and rabies

A

paraesthesia is more common in aujeszky’s; offensive behaviour in rabies

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7
Q

which symptom is not common for acute abdomen

A

DIC

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8
Q

in what lesion can liqor cytology help

A

meningitis

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9
Q

which statement is true

A

botulism is caused by clostridium bacteria and the main symptom is flaccid paresis

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10
Q

brain tissue damage in order of severity

A

commotio cerebri> contusion cerebri> lacerta vitidis

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11
Q

what does DAMNIT-V schematic stand for

A

For constructing a list of differential diagnoses based on anatomical and
pathophysiological features of a disease

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12
Q

where could we take a bone marrow sample

A

hip; humerus; wing of ileum

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13
Q

Why is multifilament suture material not recommended by the surgeries on the GI
organs?

A

high risk of septic consequences because of the drainage

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14
Q

which is the final step in small intestine anastomosis surgery

A

omentalisation (also used for prostatic/paraprostatic cyst)

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15
Q

which drug can be used to stop seizures

A

diazepam; propofol

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16
Q

which statement is false

A

In case of UMN dysfunction, the clinical findings are: Hyporeflexia; Muscle hypotonia;
Abnormal reflexes

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17
Q

which statements are true

A

The UMN cell bodies are located in the cerebellum & brainstem; The UMN could
stimulate or inhibit the lower motor neuron; In case of UMN dysfunction, the clinical
findings are: Hyperreflexia; Muscle hypertonia; Abnormal reflexes

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18
Q

incubation period of rabies

A

usually 2-3 months but can be shorter/longer depending on which body part is affected

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19
Q

which is not the function of LMN

A

control of voluntary movement

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20
Q

which are functions of the LMN

A

maintenance of muscle tone and support against gravity; initiation of voluntary movement; regulation of posture

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21
Q

congenital hydrocephalus in dogs. which statement is true

A

hydrocephalus is common in young big sized breeds under the age of 1 year

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22
Q

which disease is acute

A

type-1 discopathy

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23
Q

what disease is chronic

A

type- II discopathy; lumbo-sacral instability; tumour

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24
Q

what is the most characteristic localisation of vertebral body tumours

A

the middle third of the vertebral body

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25
Q

regarding brain lesions, which part of the brain can be distinguished

A

forebrain; brainstem; cerebellum

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26
Q

which statement is correct for clinical sings of oesophageal disease in general

A

appetite can be decreased or increased

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27
Q

which breed is not predisposed for primary Cu accumulation

A

german shepherd

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28
Q

which is the first drug of choice in treatment of primary Cu accumulation

A

D- penicillamine

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29
Q

in case of intestinal obstruction

A

profuse bloody diarrhoea is the most characteristic symptom

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30
Q

chronic inflammatory enteropathy (CIE)

A

can result in protein-losing enteropathy

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31
Q

in which case of the following does megaoesophagus not occur

A

cushing’s disease

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32
Q

granulomatous colitis is caused by

A

adherent invasive E. coli AIEC

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33
Q

not suggested medication for IBD

A

azathioprine for cats

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34
Q

suggested medications for IBD

A

Prednisolone; Cyclosporine; Budesonide

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35
Q

which hepatic division posses the gall bladder

A

central division

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36
Q

which of the following procedures has a modification called Roux-en-Y technique

A

Cholecystoduodenostomy

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37
Q

which anal zone involves Circumanal hepatoid glands

A

zona intermedia

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38
Q

which suture technique is recommended for the closure of colon in cats

A

single or double layer simple or interrupted or continuous

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39
Q

in case of anaemic condition, which cell increase is indicating the regenerative
property of the disease?

A

reticulocytes

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40
Q

which of the following non-regenerative diseases has the best prognosis

A

addisons disease

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41
Q

which platelet number can we expect bleeding because of thrombocytopenia

A

<50 g/l

42
Q

which statement is true

A

In case of acute bleeding, microcytic hypochromic anaemia can develop withing a few
hours

43
Q

which statement is true

A

in case of acute bleeding, the microcytic hypochromic anaemia occurs in a few hours

44
Q

which cannot secondary immunohemolytic anaemia

A

microsporum

45
Q

deviations in thrombocytopenia

A

Petechia; Epistaxis; Bleeding time increases; Thrombocytes decrease

46
Q

lyssencephalon

A

is the congenital underdevelopment of the cerebral cortex groove

47
Q

which statement can be true

A

in case of haemolytic anaemia, the blood plasma can be clear

48
Q

which is not common with acute gastric catastrophe

A

vomiting

49
Q

where are vertebral body tumours most common

A

on the end plates

50
Q

which one if the following is true in case of tubular proteinuria

A

small-sized proteins appear in the urine

51
Q

IRIS stage 1 chronic renal failure is associated with

A

decreased specific gravity of urine

52
Q

abnormalities that are typical for chronic renal disease, which answer is wrong

A

hypophostataemia

53
Q

which statement is incorrect? the progression of renal disease is caused by

A

isothenuria

54
Q

it prolongs the survival of dogs & cats with chronic kidney disease

A

urinary diet

55
Q

which of the following is indicated in the case of unilateral hydronephrosis

A

nephrectomy

56
Q

in case of elevated blood creatinine concentration

A

the animal has azotaemia

57
Q

Which of the following findings indicates the diagnosis of the urinary bladder
rupture?

A

if the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography

58
Q

postrenal azotaemia.. which answer is wrong

A

may be due to severe dehydration

59
Q

postrenal azotaemia.. which answer is correct

A

May be due to urethral obstruction; May cause kidney damage without treatment; May
be due to ureter rupture

60
Q

which of the following is not typical in case of acute kidney injury

A

cachexia

61
Q

which of the following is typical in case of acute kidney injury

A

vomitus; metabolic acidosis; uraemic ulcers

62
Q

Which of the following protocols are to followed in case of acute obstruction form of
feline lower urinary tract disease (FLUTD)?

A

stabilisation and urethral catherisation

63
Q

which are typical of babesiosis

A

icterus; vomitus; AKI

64
Q

which arent typical of babesiosis

A

myoglobinuria

65
Q

Which of the following therapeutic steps is to be taken first after diagnosing urethral
obturation in a male dog?

A

urethral hydroprulsion

66
Q

which circumstances may cause nephrosis/acute kidney injury

A

Hypotension; Dehydration; Overhydration with crystalloids; Antibiotics; Chemotherapy

67
Q

oliguria definition in dogs

A

urine output is <6-10ml/bwkg/day

68
Q

which is the least important to establish the diagnosis of the kidney disease

A

measurement of blood phosphorus, calcium and potassium

69
Q

which is most important to establish diagnosis of kidney disease

A

Blood urea/creatinine; Urine sediment & USG; Proteinuria detection

70
Q

which of the following uroliths appears in case of thylene glycol toxicosis

A

calcium-oxalate monohydrate

71
Q

symptoms of lower urinary tract disease in small animals

A

Haematuria; Pollakiuria; Stranguria; Dysuria; Periuria; Incontinence

72
Q

the most important aspect of struvite urolithiasis treatment in dogs

A

diet; abx; urine acidification

73
Q

acute causes of nephrosis

A

Renal ischaemia; Nephrotoxic materials; Haemoglobin; Myoglobin

74
Q

renal cysts

A

are mainly incidental findings

75
Q

most common cause of struvite urolithiasis in dogs

A

chronic bacterial UTI

76
Q

which therapies are recommended for treatment of dehydration in CKD`

A

Administration of IV fluids; Administration of SC infusion; Increase water consumption

77
Q

renal amyloidosis is usually found in

A

abyssinian cats

78
Q

what us true about renal glycosuria

A

Plasma glucose levels are normal; Can have genetic causes; May be a part of Fanconi
syndrome

79
Q

how would you treat a cat with interstitial cystitis

A

Increase water; Facial pheromones; Environmental enrichment (not urine acidification)

80
Q

creatinine level of dogs & cats with IRIS stage 1 CKD is

A

normal <130 umol/L

81
Q

which statement is true for animals with renal dysplasia

A

common symptoms are PU/PD

82
Q

Which therapeutic measure decreases blood potassium during the treatment of
hyperkalaemia?

A

Potassium-free infusion & furosemide; Glucose-containing infusion; Rapid-acting
insulin applications

83
Q

what is the main and initiating cause of the calcium-phosphorus imbalance in CKF

A

retention of phosphorus

84
Q

In dogs, which type of urolithiasis can be affected by housing conditions, lifestyle &
body condition?

A

calcium oxalate

85
Q

What is true for polycystic kidney disease

A

Often asymptomatic; Renal abscesses may develop in case of bacterial infection of the
cyst; US examination is required for diagnosis (surgery is not often necessary)

86
Q

the most effective gastric protectant for dogs with CKD

A

pantoprazole

87
Q

which urinary stone cannot be dissolved medically

A

calcium oxalate

88
Q

it typically causes acute & chronic kidney disease- preexisting chronic disease +

A

haemodynamic disturbances

89
Q

Which one of the following uroliths appears usually in cases of dogs with bacterial
cystitis?

A

struvite

90
Q

possible causes of hydronephrosis

A

Granuloma formation following neutralisation; Ascending infection; Transitional cell
carcinoma in the bladder

91
Q

Until what level is it recommended to increase the Ht with erythropoietin/darbepoetin
therapy in chronic kidney disease?

A

until the Ht is around 30%

92
Q

renal amyloidosis is typically found in which dog breed

A

shar-pei

93
Q

oliguria in the dog- aetiology

A

inadequate water intake; Dehydration; Acute nephrosis

94
Q

Hypercholesterolaemia is typically associated with the following kidney disease

A

glomerulopathies of dogs

95
Q

renal amyloidosis is not typically caused by

A

chronic liver diease

96
Q

what statement is true about immune-complex glomerulonephritis

A

an important element of therapy is broad spectrum abx therapy

97
Q

which statement is correct regarding ectopic ureters

A

the urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition episodes

98
Q

what is the advantage of scrotal urethrostomy

A

easily dissectible urethra, larger section, wide and safe stroma

99
Q

which treatment does not affect the PTH-level in chronic renal cases

A

ACE-inhibitor therapy

100
Q

in case of renal traumatic bleeding

A

retroperitoneal blood loss may even lead to exsanguination

SAM (11 decks)

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