PPQ5 Flashcards

1
Q

which part of the long bones is radiolucent

A

growth plate in young animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

sunburst-like periosteal reaction is typical for which disorder?

A

Malignant bone tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which statement is true

A

the joint capsule is not visible on the radiograph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which abnormality can be connected to clinical signs

A

hemivertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which abnormality cannot be connected to clinical signs

A

calcified nucleus pulposus; SH-2 epipysiolysis; Spondylosis deformans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

the number of vertebrae in a dog

A

C7;Th13;L7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which answer is true? radiographic sign of a Wobbler-syndrome

A

deformed cervical vertebra; C2-C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

hansen type 1 discus hernia

A

Is a generally acute clinical process; Chondrodystrophic breeds; Nucleus pulposis
calcification; Annulus fibrosis rupture; Extrusion; Rapid deterioration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

which statement is false regarding discospondylosis

A

it is an aseptic process

calcification of ventral vertebral ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which statements are true regarding discospondylosis

A

It is characterised by osteolytic changes; The end plates of the vertebrae are effected; It
generally goes with pain and pyrexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

which of the following features defines the suture materials drainage ability

A

monofilament vs multifilament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which statement is correct regarding intra and post operative hypothermia

A

there is decreased anaesthesia demand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which statement is correct concerning the maintenance phase of anaesthesia

A

the goal is to maintain the ‘surgical tolerance’ depth of anaesthesia using the lowest sufficient dose of anaesthetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the normal value of Norberg angle in healthy dogs

A

higher than 105 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which statements are true

A

acids cause coagulation necrosis; alkalises can cause colliquation necorsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the number of permanent teeth in a dog

A

42

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the number of permanent teeth in cats

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which of the following USP numbers indicates the thinnest suture material

A

4-0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which statement is correct regarding the imaging of spinal cord compression (SCC)

A

myelography is a useful tool in the diagnosis of SCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

which of the following suture materials are non-absorbable

A

polypropylene; polyamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

the proper name of the ‘oxspring’ view for the examination of the navicular bone

A

dorsoproximal-palmarodorsal oblique view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which parameter decreases in DIC

A

Fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which of the following features makes polyproylene the most popular cardiovascular suture material

A

good tensile strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what does ‘2-metric’ mean on a suture material pack

A

suture material is 0.2mm in diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

current concepts of pain management/analgesia is

A

pre-emptice (prophylatic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites of action)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is spongostan

A

gelatine sponge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

which statement is correct regarding physiology of the paediatric patient

A

the vegetative innervation of the heart and the vasomotor function is immature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

which statement is correct

A

clean-contaminated soft tissue procedures require antibiotic prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

which one is an opioid antagonist

A

naloxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

phase of wound healing are

A

acute inflammation- resorption- proliferation- remodelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the main shock organ of the cat?

A

Lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the main shock organ of the dog?

A

GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

which statement is correct regarding dentine in the dog

A

it is capable of repair in living tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated leading to
acute symptoms in case of perineal hernia?

A

urinary bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is false? an active drain

A

it is not recommended as flushing drain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

which statements are true? an active drain

A

is used as a flushing drain; can be open suction-drain; can be closed suction-drain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what does ‘epulis’ mean

A

benign fibromatous mass on the gingivia

38
Q

which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the salivary mucocele

A

its one of the effective treatments is puncture and content removal from the cyst

39
Q

According to the Vasanjee et al Vet Surg paper (2006), which of the following liver
biopsy techniques caused remarkable collateral tissue damage?

A

laparoscopic ‘pinch’ biopsy

40
Q

which statement is true

A

injuries of the tongue are always regarded as contaminated

41
Q

which of the following conditions doesnt cause hydronephrosis

A

ureteral torsion

42
Q

which of the following conditions causes hydronephrosis

A

Ureteral stricture associated with previous surgery; Ureteral tumour; Ureterolithiasis

43
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning gastric foreign body?

A

the gastrotomy is contaminated/septic procedure

44
Q

which of the following statements is correct concerning gastric foreign body?

A

The success rate of the gastroscopic foreign body removal can be as high as 95%;
Gastric foreign body may cause perforation; Oral feeding can be started 4-6 hours after
gastrotomy

45
Q

which approach is mostly recommended in case of diaphragmatic hernia repair

A

laparotomy

46
Q

which of the following signs has the strongest diagnostic value in intestinal intussusception

A

palpation of the invaginated intestinal section

47
Q

which statement is correct

A

glucocorticoids inhibit the production of inflammatory prostaglandins

48
Q

which statement is correct concerning the endotracheal tube

A

Not only aspiration may be prevented by using endotracheal tubes, but it also allows for
connection to the anaesthesia machine by the Y-piece and mechanical ventilation

49
Q

which of the following is indicated in case of unilateral hydronephrosis

A

partial nephrectomy

50
Q

which approach is recommended for nasal opening in brachycephalic dogs

A

ventral rhinotomy (due to lack of space dorsally)

51
Q

which of the following arteries does not directly contribute to splenic blood supply

A

left gastric

52
Q

Which of the following diseases cannot cause hindlimb lameness in skeletally
immature dogs?

A

biceps tendon insertion tendinopathy

53
Q

Which of the following diseases can cause hindlimb lameness in skeletally immature
dogs?

A

panosteitis; perthes disease; achilles tendinopathy

54
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding nephrolithiasis?

A

dalmatians always for urate uroliths

55
Q

which of the following statements is correct regarding nephrolithiasis

A

It can occur bilaterally; It can lead to ureterolithiasis; It can be caused by a congenital
disorder

56
Q

which sign reflects the most severe acute respiratory distress (spO2 is <60mmHg)

A

cyanosis

57
Q

which anal zone involves circumanal hepatoid glands

A

zona cutanea

58
Q

which statement is incorrect concerning prostate US

A

it can differentiate cysts from abscesses

59
Q

which statement is correct concerning prostate US

A

It can detect fluid accumulation within the organ; It can detect parenchymal
hypertrophy; It provides possibility of core biopsy

60
Q

which nerve is most prone to iatrogenic injury during TECA + LBO procedure

A

auriculopalpebral branch of the facial nerve

61
Q

Which tool is next to be chosen in the case of uncertain radiographic findings in
suspected diaphragmatic hernia?

A

ultrasound

62
Q

intramedullary pinning is not good for

A

treatment of achilles tendon fracture

63
Q

which type of small intestinal obstruction has usually the poorest prognosis

A

mesenteric torsion

64
Q

which is correct regarding pelvic fractures

A

it is an absolute indication for surgical treatment

65
Q

which is correct regarding pelvic fractures

A

It can be a result of major trauma; Commonly combined with a urinary tract injury; It
could be associated with pneumothorax

66
Q

Which of the following protocols is to be followed in case of acute obstruction form
of feline lower urinary tract disease (FLUTD)?

A

stabilisation + urethral catheterisation

67
Q

which of the following statements is incorrect regarding gastric dilation and volvulus (GDV)

A

GDV starts right after the last feeding

68
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding gastric dilation and volvulus
(GDV)?

A

The GDV may be caused by dietary disorders; There is also a chronic form of GDV;
GDV is usually of acute onset

69
Q

which suture material is not recommended for cystotomy wound closure

A

poliglecaprone

70
Q

which suture materials can be used for cystotomy wound closure

A

PDS; Polyglyconate; Glycomer

71
Q

which of the following is the most informative one for diagnosing ectopic ureters

A

IV urography + pneumocystography; + Negative contrast

72
Q

what does ‘skeletonisation’ mean

A

Cassation of the mesenterial blood supply on the intestinal section to be resected

73
Q

how many lung lobes does a dog have

A

7

74
Q

how many lung lobes does a cat have

A

6

75
Q

Which of the following procedures is not recommended for surgical resolution of
prostatic cysts?

A

puncture

76
Q

what is the advantage of scrotal uretrostomy

A

early dissectible urethral section, wider and safer stroma

77
Q

which statement is incorrect concerning acute abdominal catastrophe

A

The precise diagnosis of organ dysfunctions is necessary for surgical indication

78
Q

which of the following breeds is usually not affected by ectopic ureter

A

german shepherd

79
Q

which of the following breeds is usually affected by ectopic ureters

A

labrador, husky, westie

80
Q

which of the diagnostic findings indicated the diagnosis of urinary bladder rupture

A

if contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography

81
Q

which statement is correct concerning diaphragmatic hernia

A

Hiatus hernia has 2 forms: Axial & paraoesophageal; The Peritoneopericardial hernia
is inherited; They take 5-10% of diaphragmatic hernias

82
Q

which statement is true regarding inguinal hernia

A

the indirect inguinal hernia is more common than the direct one

83
Q

ideal therapy in case of joint injury is

A

joint lavage within 6 hours

84
Q

which is the uppermost muscle layer to be incised during lateral thoracotomy

A

m. cutaneous trunci

85
Q

Which of the following nerves are most prone to iatrogenic injury during ventral bulla
osteotomy (VBO)?

A

hypoglossal nerve

86
Q

Which of the following suture patterns is not recommended for cystotomy wound
closure?

A

double layer (penetrating + lambert) suture

87
Q

which of the following statements is correct

A

a penrose drain is a tube drain

88
Q

which of the following decisions is correct in case of disuse gastric necrosis during GDV surgery

A

euthanasia

89
Q

which urolith is surely radiodense

A

calcium oxalate

90
Q

which brachycephalci disorder is not surgically curable

A

tracheal hyoplasia