Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SAM > PPQ6 > Flashcards

PPQ6 Flashcards

1
Q

Which statement is correct

A

a passive drain is always a single exit drain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

which statement is correct

A

over exposure looks like same on both digital and analogue radiographs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which statement is correct regarding pain

A

There is no linear correlation between the physical extent of damage and the intensity of
pain experienced by the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which statement is correct regarding electricity-caused injuries

A

it is always lethal above 100mA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which statement is correct

A

the tissue damage is extensive in contused wounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which statements is correct regarding anaesthesia of patients with liver dysfunction

A

phencyclidines (e.g Ketamine) may induce a bout of hepatic encephaloapthy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which statement is correct

A

positioning of cervical spine generally needs sedation or anaesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which therapy is of primary importance in case of cranial injury

A

intracranial pressure decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following doesn’t represent an increased risk of infection of surgical
infection?

A

antimicrobial prophylaxis for a previous surgical procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following represents an increased risk of infection of surgical infection?

A

prolonged hospitalisation; obesity; prolonged procedure time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following categories is correct according to the wound edge
approximation?

A

appositional-inverting tension-relieving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which is not a type of periosteal reaction

A

medullar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which are types of periosteal reaction

A

lamellar; columnar; sunburst like

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which location is not typical in OCD in dogs

A

carpus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which location is typical of OCD in dogs

A

tarsus; shoulder; stifle. elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which instruments are members of the abdominal instruments set

A

Balfour self-retraining retractor; Doyen clamp; Atraumatic tissue forceps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which instrument is not a member of the abdominal instrumentation

A

Fianchietto self-retaining retractor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following instruments is a member of the thoracic instrumentation set?

A

Fianchietto self-retaining retractor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following instruments is not a member of the thoracic instrumentation
set?

A

De bakey/satinsky vascular clamp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which statement is correct regarding anaesthesiologic considerations of
hypothyroidism?

A

obesity results in a limited range of motion of the diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which local anaesthetic technique is the safest from the patient’s aspect

A

infiltrational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which colour is typical for compensatory stage of shock

A

bright red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which procedure is a definite indication for preoperative administration of an
antibiotic?

A

Removal of previously implanted, infected and fistulating filament replacement material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following factors doesn’t affect the success of feline perineal
urethrostomy?

A

transection of ischiocavernous muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

which of the following factors affects the success of feline perineal urethrostomy

A

Mucocutaneous approximation of the stroma; Transection of the bulbospongiosus
muscle; Type of suture material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following tools/findings is of lowest diagnostic value in the diagnosis of
urinary bladder tumours

A

therapy irresponsive haematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following tools/findings is of highest diagnostic value in the diagnosis
of urinary bladder tumours

A

Double contrast cystography; Ultrasonography; Urine sediment analysis/cytology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following clinical findings is not a member of the diagnostic triad
defining the absolute indication of surgery in case of thoracic trauma?

A

status of the thoracic wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following clinical findings are members of the diagnostic triad defining
the absolute indication of surgery in case of thoracic trauma?

A

Skin defect on the thoracic wall; Positive radiological finding of lung contusion; ARD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

which is the appropriate diagnostic/therapeutic protocol in GDV

A

Stabilisation orogastric tubation - Gastric lavage gastrocentesis – Adequate narcosis -
Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

According to Shamir et al, which of the following features is incorrect concerning the
typical canine population usually suffering from thoracic trauma?

A

body weight <20kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

According to Shamir et al, which of the following features is concerning the typical
canine population usually suffering from thoracic trauma?

A

male; bite wound; bodyweight <10kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is sequester

A

necrotised, demarcated area in the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

which is necessary for bone healing

A

good blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which method is chosen as first case of foreign body-caused caudal thoracic
(prediaphragmatic) oesophageal obstruction

A

endoscopic removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

which statement is correct

A

In case of renal traumatic bleeding, retroperitoneal blood loss may occur but usually
does not lead to life-threatening circulatory changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which statement is correct regarding extracapsular fixation method in cranial cruciate
ligament repair?

A

the suture material is non-absorbable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which statement is incorrect regarding linear foreign body-caused small intestinal
obstruction?

A

it may be corrected via only one gastrotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

which statement is correct regarding linear foreign body-caused small intestinal obstruction

A

It usually requires multiple GI incisions; Iatrogenic perforation might be caused;
Multiple GI incisions do not increase septic risk compared to single GI opening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

which is typical of cauda equine compression

A

hansen type II disc herniation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following causes is not primary in the aetiology of external otitis in
dogs?

A

bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Which of the following are primary causes in the aetiology of external otitis in dogs?

A

parasite; grass awn; atopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated in case of
scrotal hernia

A

small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

which of the following procedures is the most effective and appropriate in feline otitis media

A

ventral bulla ostetomy (VBO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which of the following diagnostic methods is the most reliable one to assess bone
involvement of oral tumours?

A

radiography

46
Q

Which of the following decisions is correct in the case of fundus necrosis during
GDV surgery?

A

partial gastrectomy

47
Q

Which is the most effective and appropriate procedure in canine otitis externa &
media?

A

TECA + LBO

48
Q

which is correct regarding intervertebral disc disease

A

it is generally acute in chondrodystrophic dogs (short legs. long back)

49
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding incisional hernia?

A

it can be prevented by elizabeth collar in all cases

50
Q

which of the following statements is correct regarding incisional hernia

A

It is an iatrogenic complication; It might be suppurative; It may be caused by surgical
technical error

51
Q

which conditions indicate liver lobectomy

A

liver abscess

52
Q

synovial fluid is determined as septic if

A

the WBC count is >40g/L; with mostly neutrophils

53
Q

which statements are correct

A

Mepivicaine is less irritating than lidocaine; Bupivicaine has a longer duration than
mepivacaine; Bupivicaine has approximately 4 hours of duration

54
Q

which statement is correct

A

Regarding patellar luxation in dogs, the anatomical & functional axis of the leg is not in
the same line

55
Q

which layers need to be closed forst during a midline laparotomy

A

External rectus sheet (the internal rectus sheet & peritoneum are not to be sutured as
this leads to adhesion formation)

56
Q

which statement is correct concerning syringe pumps

A

Parameters required for adequate calculation of infusion rate (ml/hr) are body weight,
drug conc. and the dose of the drug to be administered

57
Q

which statement is correct

A

Recovery from anaesthesia takes place when the administration of the anaesthetics are
discontinued or antagonists are administered

58
Q

which statement is correct

A

ACP is recommended for young, anxious or aggressive patients of a good general
condition

59
Q

optional drug for preoperative analgesia

A

alpha2 agonists (medetomidine) & NMDA-antagonists (ketamine/gabapentin)

60
Q

which activity is done first in case of pneumothorax

A

thoracocentesis

61
Q

which procedure can be used to demonstrate urethral rupture

A

retrograde urethrography

62
Q

increasing sequence of capacity of vein catheter

A

Yellow

63
Q

stadium analgesia

A

transitional phase towards the state of complete unconsciousness

64
Q

barium sulphate can be used for which procedure

A

gastric emptying study

65
Q

Which statement is correct regarding anaesthesia of patients with renal dysfunction?

A

alpha 2 agonists decrease renal function

66
Q

GGE (guaipgenesine)

A

muscle relaxant

67
Q

general infusion rate in perioperative period in dogs and cats

A

1ml/kg/hr e.g. 17-20 drops/kg/hr

68
Q

during nephrotomy

A

the kidney is occluded via clamping both the renal artery and vein

69
Q

Which of the following therapeutic steps is to be taken first after diagnosing urethral
obturation in the male dog?

A

urethrohydropropulsion

70
Q

which ligament repair is required in case of patellar luxation

A

patellar straight ligament

71
Q

which statement is correct

A

Corticosteroid & NSAID treatment is recommended in case of acute spinal injury

72
Q

Which diagnostic step/sign is pathognomic in case of cranial cruciate ligament
rupture?

A

cranial drawer test

73
Q

which examination is not enough alone for diagnosing cauda equine myelography

A

CT myelography

74
Q

which examination is enough alone for diagnosing cauda equine myelography

A

MRI; plain x-ray; CT

75
Q

which statement is false

A

the commotion causes irreversible damage in the brain

76
Q

which statements are true

A

Haematoma can be the consequence of a contusion; The urinary bladder injury can
cause bloody urine; In case of severe pneumothorax, emergency thoracocentesis is
necessary

77
Q

which of the following breeds is congenital cleft palate common

A

french bulldog

78
Q

which of the following statement is incorrect regarding splenic hemangiosarcoma (HSA)

A

the ruptured status of the tumour at surgery is not a negative prognostic factor

79
Q

which of the following statements is true regarding splenic hemangiosarcoma (HSA)

A

Tumorous splenectomy is to be regarded as a palliative procedure; Chemotherapy does
not definitely improve the outcome; Splenic HSA does not metastasise into the heart

80
Q

Which of the following is least effective in German Shepherd’s perineal fistulation?

A

conservative management

81
Q

Which of the following are more effective in German Shepherd’s perineal fistulation?

A

fistulectomy; cyclosprine; prednisolone

82
Q

which oral region is mostly affected by oral tumours

A

gingivia

83
Q

which statement is correct concerning pulse oximetry

A

hypertension has no effect on pulse-oximetry values (but hypotension does)

84
Q

reversible drugs and their antagonists

A

Diazepam & flumazenil; fentanyl & naloxone; medetomidine & atipamezole

85
Q

which statement is correct concerning preanaesthetic assessment

A

Recommended “minimum” laboratory parameters are WBC, PCV, TPP, Creatinine,
Urea, ALT & AST

86
Q

which of the following sterilisation methods operate at the highest temperature

A

autoclave (Steam)

87
Q

which of the following can happen if alpha2 agonists are injected intraarterially

A

collapse

88
Q

which statement is correct regarding physiology of the geriatric patients

A

functional reserve capacity of the adrenal glands is decreased

89
Q

which statement is correct

A

the tissue damage is minimal associated with incised wounds

90
Q

which belong to signs of arthrosis on the radiograph

A

perichondral osteophyte formation; irregular subchondral bone; cortical osteolysis

91
Q

the columnar periosteal reaction is typical of which disorder

A

hypertrophic osteopathy

92
Q

which of the following breeds is mostly predisposed to Wobbler syndrome

A

doberman; great dane

93
Q

which are postural reactions

A

hopping; placing; wheel barrowing

94
Q

which isnt a postural reaction

A

panniculus reflex

95
Q

which statement is incorrect regarding perianal adenoma

A

it originates from anal sac in females; it mostly occurs in males

96
Q

which statements are correct regarding perianal adenoma

A

It is uncommon in females; It mostly occurs in males; It mainly originates from
Circumanal glands

97
Q

which is the major difference between midline and incisional gastropexy

A

the technique fixes different areas of the stomach

98
Q

which statement is correct regarding ectopic ureter

A

the urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition episodes

99
Q

which tissue is least sensitive to ionizing radiaiton

A

brain

100
Q

which solution has the most alkalising effect in the treatment of metabolic acidosis

A

NaHCO3 solution

101
Q

which statement is correct concerning capnometry

A

it is the analysis of the CO2 concentration of the inhaled and exhaled gas mixture

102
Q

which statements are false

A

vulnus ruptum is an incised wound; the vulnus ruptim is usually a lobed wound

103
Q

which of the following doesnt contraindicate the use of NSAIDS

A

immaturity of the skeletal system

104
Q

which of the following contraindicates the use of NSAIDS

A

shock; prolonged BMBT; active GI ulceration

105
Q

which statement is correct in dental nomenclature

A

mesial surface faces to the next tooth in the dental arch

106
Q

which statement is correct

A

the formation of bulla are typical of II-degree burns

107
Q

which of the following suture patterns is tension-relieving

A

interrupted horizontal mattress

108
Q

which disorder resembles the malignant bone tumours in dog

A

osteomyelitis

109
Q

which is not correct regarding balance anaesthesia

A

drug accumulation should be considered in case of longer surgery

110
Q

which are correct regarding balance anaesthesia

A

Recovery is better than at the inhalational anaesthesia; Mortality rate is reduced than
at inhalational anaesthesia; MAC is lower than at inhalational anaesthesia

111
Q

which structure can be seen in radiograph of healthy dog

A

subchondral bone

112
Q

which structures cant be seen in radiograph of healthy dog

A

Joint cartilage; Periosteum; Adrenal gland

SAM (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions