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PPQ3 Flashcards

1
Q

Atropine is used for

A

Bradycardia caused by opioids; Reflex-bradycardia caused by alpha2-agonists (high BP);
AV-blocks & SA-blocks

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2
Q

ACP effects

A

Calming; Vasodilator; Depression of thermoregulation; Decreases BP; Antihistaminic;
Depression of platelet function

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3
Q

diazepam and midazolam

A

For old animals with poor general circulation; Decreases anxiety; Relaxes muscles;
High dose can caused respiratory depression

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4
Q

alpha 2 agonists

A

Sedative effect; Emetic; Antagonisable by atipamezole; Detomidine; Medetomidine;
Dexmedetomidine; Xylazine

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5
Q

medetomidine and xylazine

A

Using a general dose - phases of sedation, induction & maintenance cannot be
separated; Not recommended for old, cardiac & diabetic patients; Cause circulatory &
respiratory depression

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6
Q

opioid drugs

A

Major analgesics; Side effects are bradycardia & respiratory depression; Can be
antagonised by naloxone; Morphine; Fentanyl; Buprenorphine; Butorphanol
(Torbugesic); They all have differing levels of efficacy

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7
Q

opioid receptors

A

μ (Mu); k (Kappa); δ (Delta)

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8
Q

fentanyl

A

full agonist opioid drug; 15-30 minute duration of effect; may be redosed

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9
Q

morphine

A

Full agonist opioid drug; 4-6 hours duration of effect; Use high dose IV in mastocytoma
patients; Must not be redosed!

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10
Q

full opioid agonists

A

morphine; fentanyl

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11
Q

short duration of action

A

fentanyl

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12
Q

Partial μ-agonist

A

buprenorphine

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13
Q

Partial μ-antagonist & k-agonist

A

butorphanol

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14
Q

Weak μ-agonist

A

tramadol

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15
Q

propofol

A

Can be used in almost all patient groups; Short duration of action; Can be redosed;
High dose and rapid application lead to respiratory depression

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16
Q

application of propofol

A

slowly; IV; to effect

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17
Q

ketamine

A

Moderate analgesic effect; Benzodiazepines may help avoid catalepsy (muscle rigidity);
Eyes remain open, therefore the cornea may desiccate

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18
Q

safe inhalant anaesthetics

A

isoflurane, sevoflurane, desflurane

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19
Q

inhalant anaesthetics

A

1 MAC causes muscle relaxation in 50% of cases; 2 MAC causes muscle relation in
100% of cases; Short induction and recovery; Hypnotic; Muscle relaxant; No analgesic
effect

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20
Q

local anaesthetic

A

Blocks nerve cells; Types - Terminal, conductive, paravertebral, epidural & spinal;
Possible side effects – Cardiovascular & CNS signs, cell toxicity

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21
Q

Pancuronium; Atracurium; Vecuronium; Rocuronium

A

Central muscle relaxants; Peripheral depolarising muscle relaxants; Local anaesthetics

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22
Q

pain

A

Complex, multidimensional negative experience; No linear correlation between degree
of pathological changes and intensity of pain; Simultaneous nociceptive effects add up;
Function – Physiological or pathological; Origin – Organic or psychogenic; Duration –
Acute or chronic

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23
Q

pathological pain

A

Hyperalgesia: Mild noxious stimuli resulting in intense pain sensation; Allodynia: No
pain provocation, but pain sensation occurs; Analgesia can be combined; Pain impulse
may be inhibited by pain killers

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24
Q

ascending pathway of nociception

A

Transduction → Transmission → Modulation → Projection → Perception

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25
modern concepts of pain management
Pre-emptive (prophylactic) analgesia; Multimodal analgesia; No gap should appear
26
intraoperative analgesic effect
Ketamine CRI; Lidocaine + fentanyl CRI; Local anaesthetic + opioids
27
purpose of anaesthesia machines
Administration of appropriate oxygen flow; Administration of appropriate inhalant concentration; Elimination of exhales CO2
28
mixing part of the anaesthesia machine
gas source; flow meter; vaporiser
29
breathing circuit of the anaesthesia machine
'Y'piece; resevoir bag; CO2 absorbent canister
30
oxygen by-pass
emergency option; concentration of inhalational anaesthetic in the circuit can be quickly reduced; pure3 O2 can directly enter the circuit
31
optimal breathing tubes are
ribbed; short and wide
32
optimal size of reservoir bag
5 times the respiratory volume
33
the absorbent cannister is part of the
open system; semi open system; semi closed system
34
CO2 absorption
The absorbent canister contains absorbing soda; The absorbing soda granules have a rough surface; Exhaustion of the soda is indicated by discoloration
35
pop-off valve (adjustable pressure limiting value)
Prevents excessive pressure in the circuit & lungs; Is open during spontaneous breathing; Is set to 20 cmH2O during manual or mechanical ventilation
36
advantages of semi open narcosis system
Low-resistance; Small mechanical dead space; Anaesthetic concentration can be quickly modified
37
advantages of a closed narcosis systems
Low gas consumption; Low inhalational anaesthetic consumption; Cheap
38
narcosis system types
Semi-open system; Semi-closed circuit; Closed circuit
39
indications for mechanical ventilation
Severe hypoxia; Severe hypercapnia; Excessive work of breathing; Open thorax; Hypoventilation caused by hypothermia; Neuromuscular blockade
40
IPPV
Airway pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure during inspiration; Airway pressure falls to atmospheric pressure during passive expiration; Cannot be used in large dogs
41
physiological dead space
anatomical + alveolar dead space
42
inspiration
Spontaneous inspiration is caused by decreasing interpleural pressure; IPPV inspiration is caused by increasing interpleural pressure; Expiration is spontaneous in both cases
43
CNS effects of IPPV
Controlled hyperventilation reduces CO2 level in the blood; Reduced CO2 level causes arterial vasoconstriction; Arterial vasoconstriction decreases intracranial pressure
44
volume controlled time cycled mechanical ventilation
Common in veterinary medicine; Constant flow during inspiration; Inspiratory phase ends after pre-set inspiratory time
45
triggering types (initiation of inspiratory phase)
time; pressure; flow
46
parameters of ventilation
Tidal volume – 10-15 ml/BWkg; Inhalation:Exhalation time ratio – 1:2-1:3; Target values 35-45mmHg etCO2 & 100% SpO2
47
blood pressure measuring methods
invasive direct; non-invasive doppler; non invasive oscillometric
48
blood pressure measurement at right atrial (RA) height
10cm height difference results in a deviation of 7.36mmHg
49
cuff size for BP measuring
Patients of different sizes require different sized of cuff; Optimal cuff width is 40% of the leg’s circumference; Wider cuffs produce lower BP values and vice versa
50
the MAP (mean arterial pressure) is
closer to diastolic pressure than to systolic pressure
51
urine production during general anaesthesia
1-2ml/BWkg/hour
52
pulse oximetry
Non-invasive; Continuous measurement; Measurement of O2 saturation of Hb; Sensor can be placed on the tongue or ear; In case of transmission-type sensors, one side emits, while the other detects light; Absorption depends on oxyhaemoglobin:deoxyhaemoglobin ratio
53
correlation between paO2 & SpO2
can be shown on a sigmoid curve
54
cause of pule-oximeter malfunction
total light absorption; improper contact; interference with electrosurgical devices
55
capnometry
Physiological range of etCO2: 35-45 mmHg; Capnogram may be divided into 4 phases; Exhausted CO2 absorbent soda lime increases inhaled CO2 level
56
correlation between paCO2 & etCO2
Positive correlation; PaCO2 > etCO2; The difference in small animals is 2-5mmHg
57
capnography types
side flow and main flow measuring
58
capnograph phases
Inhalation → Exhalation begins → Exhalation ends → Inhalation begins
59
causes of decreasing etCO2
Acute respiratory distress (hyperventilation); Acute circulatory distress (decreased heart minute-volume); Acute metabolic distress
60
causes of zero etCO2 on the capnography's display
Capnography performs calibration; Cardiac arrest; Respiratory arrest; Tube malposition; Tube disconnection
61
causes of rebreathed CO2
Exhausted soda lime; Suck one-way valve; Large dead space
62
core temperature can be measured by
Pharyngeal probes; Oesophageal probes; Rectal probes
63
warming hypothermic patient
heating pads; infared lamps; covers and head mirrors
64
close control of blood glucose is needed in
Very small patients; Very young patients; Cachectic patients; Weak patients; Diabetic patients; Insulinoma patients
65
monitoring anesthetized patients involves assessment of
The stage of narcosis; Pain markers; Patient’s parameters
66
which statements are true
The generator determines the capacity of the x-ray machine; Greater capacity allows for shorter exposure time; The most common reasons for motion blurring is panting
67
which statement is false
Reduction of the exposure time will increase the motion blurring
68
what is the role of collimator
Setting the size of the x-ray beam
69
what are the exposure factors
kV; mA; s
70
what is not an exposure factor
kW
71
which statements are true
The kVp describes the strength (penetrating power) of the x-ray beam; The mA describes the number of x-ray photons; The same mAs can be recreated from different time components
72
which statement is false
To maintain the same exposure, if increasing the mAs, you must elevate kVp too
73
what is the normal range of tube voltage in small animal radiography
40-100 kVp
74
the use of the grid
improves the image contrast; filters the scattered beam
75
what is not a normal component of an indirect digital system (CR)
x-ray film
76
what are normal components of an indirect digital system (CR)
X-ray tube; collimator; PSP plate
77
which statements are true
The x-ray radiation is electromagnetic radiation; X-ray beams cannot be deflected by a magnetic field; Particles with higher energy have a higher penetrating power
78
which statement is false
the elementary unit of the x-ray beam is the electron
79
which statement is true
fluoroscopy can be digital or analogue
80
which statements are false
Some digital technologies use x-ray films; DR systems can be digital or analogue; The picture of CR systems can be static or dynamic
81
which statements is true
the fluoroscope is also called 'C-arm'
82
which statements are false
Fluoroscopy causes very low radiation exposure; Fluoroscopy is mainly used for static examinations; During fluoroscopy, the x-ray tube is generally above the animal
83
the negatively charged particle of an atom is the
electron
84
as x-rays pass through materials, they have the ability to
Cause some substances to fluoresce (emit visible light); Completely remove an electron from an atom, leaving the atom positively charged; Cause chemical changes that can kill cells
85
which statement is true
Electromagnetic radiation with higher frequency has more penetrating power through space and matter
86
which statement is false
X-rays can be detected by magnetic fields; X-rays with longer wavelengths penetrate farther than x-rays with shorter wavelengths; Gamma rays are required for the production of a radiograph
87
electrons travel
toward the anode in an x-ray tube
88
x-ray photons travel
away from the anode in an x-ray tube
89
way to increase penetrating power of x-rays
increasing kVp
90
The milliamperage-seconds (mAs) for 100mA and 1/10sec is:
10mAs
91
According to Sante’s rule, if a cat’s abdomen measures 8cm & FFD is 100cm, kVp is:
56
92
increasing the film object distance
the resulting image is larger
93
one percent of the energy produced at the anode is in the form of
x-rays
94
the temperature of the filament withing the cathode is controlled by
the time setting
95
what are characteristics of the x-rays
their intensity increases as SID (source image distance) decreases
96
what is not true for x-rays
Their total number produced is determined by kV; Longer wavelengths have more penetrating power; They diverge from a light source
97
potential difference between the anode and the cathode is measured in
kilovolts
98
which statement is true
Higher kVp settings allow for lower mAs and lower exposure time
99
which of the following increases radiographic density
thinner body parts
100
which statement is true
the abdomen, thorax and femur all have equal scale of contrast

SAM (11 decks)

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