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SAM > PPQ3 > Flashcards

PPQ3 Flashcards

1
Q

Atropine is used for

A

Bradycardia caused by opioids; Reflex-bradycardia caused by alpha2-agonists (high BP);
AV-blocks & SA-blocks

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2
Q

ACP effects

A

Calming; Vasodilator; Depression of thermoregulation; Decreases BP; Antihistaminic;
Depression of platelet function

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3
Q

diazepam and midazolam

A

For old animals with poor general circulation; Decreases anxiety; Relaxes muscles;
High dose can caused respiratory depression

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4
Q

alpha 2 agonists

A

Sedative effect; Emetic; Antagonisable by atipamezole; Detomidine; Medetomidine;
Dexmedetomidine; Xylazine

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5
Q

medetomidine and xylazine

A

Using a general dose - phases of sedation, induction & maintenance cannot be
separated; Not recommended for old, cardiac & diabetic patients; Cause circulatory &
respiratory depression

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6
Q

opioid drugs

A

Major analgesics; Side effects are bradycardia & respiratory depression; Can be
antagonised by naloxone; Morphine; Fentanyl; Buprenorphine; Butorphanol
(Torbugesic); They all have differing levels of efficacy

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7
Q

opioid receptors

A

μ (Mu); k (Kappa); δ (Delta)

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8
Q

fentanyl

A

full agonist opioid drug; 15-30 minute duration of effect; may be redosed

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9
Q

morphine

A

Full agonist opioid drug; 4-6 hours duration of effect; Use high dose IV in mastocytoma
patients; Must not be redosed!

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10
Q

full opioid agonists

A

morphine; fentanyl

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11
Q

short duration of action

A

fentanyl

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12
Q

Partial μ-agonist

A

buprenorphine

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13
Q

Partial μ-antagonist & k-agonist

A

butorphanol

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14
Q

Weak μ-agonist

A

tramadol

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15
Q

propofol

A

Can be used in almost all patient groups; Short duration of action; Can be redosed;
High dose and rapid application lead to respiratory depression

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16
Q

application of propofol

A

slowly; IV; to effect

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17
Q

ketamine

A

Moderate analgesic effect; Benzodiazepines may help avoid catalepsy (muscle rigidity);
Eyes remain open, therefore the cornea may desiccate

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18
Q

safe inhalant anaesthetics

A

isoflurane, sevoflurane, desflurane

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19
Q

inhalant anaesthetics

A

1 MAC causes muscle relaxation in 50% of cases; 2 MAC causes muscle relation in
100% of cases; Short induction and recovery; Hypnotic; Muscle relaxant; No analgesic
effect

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20
Q

local anaesthetic

A

Blocks nerve cells; Types - Terminal, conductive, paravertebral, epidural & spinal;
Possible side effects – Cardiovascular & CNS signs, cell toxicity

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21
Q

Pancuronium; Atracurium; Vecuronium; Rocuronium

A

Central muscle relaxants; Peripheral depolarising muscle relaxants; Local anaesthetics

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22
Q

pain

A

Complex, multidimensional negative experience; No linear correlation between degree
of pathological changes and intensity of pain; Simultaneous nociceptive effects add up;
Function – Physiological or pathological; Origin – Organic or psychogenic; Duration –
Acute or chronic

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23
Q

pathological pain

A

Hyperalgesia: Mild noxious stimuli resulting in intense pain sensation; Allodynia: No
pain provocation, but pain sensation occurs; Analgesia can be combined; Pain impulse
may be inhibited by pain killers

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24
Q

ascending pathway of nociception

A

Transduction → Transmission → Modulation → Projection → Perception

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25
Q

modern concepts of pain management

A

Pre-emptive (prophylactic) analgesia; Multimodal analgesia; No gap should appear

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26
Q

intraoperative analgesic effect

A

Ketamine CRI; Lidocaine + fentanyl CRI; Local anaesthetic + opioids

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27
Q

purpose of anaesthesia machines

A

Administration of appropriate oxygen flow; Administration of appropriate inhalant
concentration; Elimination of exhales CO2

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28
Q

mixing part of the anaesthesia machine

A

gas source; flow meter; vaporiser

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29
Q

breathing circuit of the anaesthesia machine

A

‘Y’piece; resevoir bag; CO2 absorbent canister

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30
Q

oxygen by-pass

A

emergency option; concentration of inhalational anaesthetic in the circuit can be quickly reduced; pure3 O2 can directly enter the circuit

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31
Q

optimal breathing tubes are

A

ribbed; short and wide

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32
Q

optimal size of reservoir bag

A

5 times the respiratory volume

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33
Q

the absorbent cannister is part of the

A

open system; semi open system; semi closed system

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34
Q

CO2 absorption

A

The absorbent canister contains absorbing soda; The absorbing soda granules have a
rough surface; Exhaustion of the soda is indicated by discoloration

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35
Q

pop-off valve (adjustable pressure limiting value)

A

Prevents excessive pressure in the circuit & lungs; Is open during spontaneous
breathing; Is set to 20 cmH2O during manual or mechanical ventilation

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36
Q

advantages of semi open narcosis system

A

Low-resistance; Small mechanical dead space; Anaesthetic concentration can be
quickly modified

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37
Q

advantages of a closed narcosis systems

A

Low gas consumption; Low inhalational anaesthetic consumption; Cheap

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38
Q

narcosis system types

A

Semi-open system; Semi-closed circuit; Closed circuit

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39
Q

indications for mechanical ventilation

A

Severe hypoxia; Severe hypercapnia; Excessive work of breathing; Open thorax;
Hypoventilation caused by hypothermia; Neuromuscular blockade

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40
Q

IPPV

A

Airway pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure during inspiration; Airway
pressure falls to atmospheric pressure during passive expiration; Cannot be used in
large dogs

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41
Q

physiological dead space

A

anatomical + alveolar dead space

42
Q

inspiration

A

Spontaneous inspiration is caused by decreasing interpleural pressure; IPPV
inspiration is caused by increasing interpleural pressure; Expiration is spontaneous in
both cases

43
Q

CNS effects of IPPV

A

Controlled hyperventilation reduces CO2 level in the blood; Reduced CO2 level causes
arterial vasoconstriction; Arterial vasoconstriction decreases intracranial pressure

44
Q

volume controlled time cycled mechanical ventilation

A

Common in veterinary medicine; Constant flow during inspiration; Inspiratory phase
ends after pre-set inspiratory time

45
Q

triggering types (initiation of inspiratory phase)

A

time; pressure; flow

46
Q

parameters of ventilation

A

Tidal volume – 10-15 ml/BWkg; Inhalation:Exhalation time ratio – 1:2-1:3; Target
values 35-45mmHg etCO2 & 100% SpO2

47
Q

blood pressure measuring methods

A

invasive direct; non-invasive doppler; non invasive oscillometric

48
Q

blood pressure measurement at right atrial (RA) height

A

10cm height difference results in a deviation of 7.36mmHg

49
Q

cuff size for BP measuring

A

Patients of different sizes require different sized of cuff; Optimal cuff width is 40% of
the leg’s circumference; Wider cuffs produce lower BP values and vice versa

50
Q

the MAP (mean arterial pressure) is

A

closer to diastolic pressure than to systolic pressure

51
Q

urine production during general anaesthesia

A

1-2ml/BWkg/hour

52
Q

pulse oximetry

A

Non-invasive; Continuous measurement; Measurement of O2 saturation of Hb; Sensor
can be placed on the tongue or ear; In case of transmission-type sensors, one side emits,
while the other detects light; Absorption depends on
oxyhaemoglobin:deoxyhaemoglobin ratio

53
Q

correlation between paO2 & SpO2

A

can be shown on a sigmoid curve

54
Q

cause of pule-oximeter malfunction

A

total light absorption; improper contact; interference with electrosurgical devices

55
Q

capnometry

A

Physiological range of etCO2: 35-45 mmHg; Capnogram may be divided into 4 phases;
Exhausted CO2 absorbent soda lime increases inhaled CO2 level

56
Q

correlation between paCO2 & etCO2

A

Positive correlation; PaCO2 > etCO2; The difference in small animals is 2-5mmHg

57
Q

capnography types

A

side flow and main flow measuring

58
Q

capnograph phases

A

Inhalation → Exhalation begins → Exhalation ends → Inhalation begins

59
Q

causes of decreasing etCO2

A

Acute respiratory distress (hyperventilation); Acute circulatory distress (decreased
heart minute-volume); Acute metabolic distress

60
Q

causes of zero etCO2 on the capnography’s display

A

Capnography performs calibration; Cardiac arrest; Respiratory arrest; Tube
malposition; Tube disconnection

61
Q

causes of rebreathed CO2

A

Exhausted soda lime; Suck one-way valve; Large dead space

62
Q

core temperature can be measured by

A

Pharyngeal probes; Oesophageal probes; Rectal probes

63
Q

warming hypothermic patient

A

heating pads; infared lamps; covers and head mirrors

64
Q

close control of blood glucose is needed in

A

Very small patients; Very young patients; Cachectic patients; Weak patients; Diabetic
patients; Insulinoma patients

65
Q

monitoring anesthetized patients involves assessment of

A

The stage of narcosis; Pain markers; Patient’s parameters

66
Q

which statements are true

A

The generator determines the capacity of the x-ray machine; Greater capacity allows
for shorter exposure time; The most common reasons for motion blurring is panting

67
Q

which statement is false

A

Reduction of the exposure time will increase the motion blurring

68
Q

what is the role of collimator

A

Setting the size of the x-ray beam

69
Q

what are the exposure factors

A

kV; mA; s

70
Q

what is not an exposure factor

A

kW

71
Q

which statements are true

A

The kVp describes the strength (penetrating power) of the x-ray beam; The mA
describes the number of x-ray photons; The same mAs can be recreated from different
time components

72
Q

which statement is false

A

To maintain the same exposure, if increasing the mAs, you must elevate kVp too

73
Q

what is the normal range of tube voltage in small animal radiography

A

40-100 kVp

74
Q

the use of the grid

A

improves the image contrast; filters the scattered beam

75
Q

what is not a normal component of an indirect digital system (CR)

A

x-ray film

76
Q

what are normal components of an indirect digital system (CR)

A

X-ray tube; collimator; PSP plate

77
Q

which statements are true

A

The x-ray radiation is electromagnetic radiation; X-ray beams cannot be deflected by a
magnetic field; Particles with higher energy have a higher penetrating power

78
Q

which statement is false

A

the elementary unit of the x-ray beam is the electron

79
Q

which statement is true

A

fluoroscopy can be digital or analogue

80
Q

which statements are false

A

Some digital technologies use x-ray films; DR systems can be digital or analogue; The
picture of CR systems can be static or dynamic

81
Q

which statements is true

A

the fluoroscope is also called ‘C-arm’

82
Q

which statements are false

A

Fluoroscopy causes very low radiation exposure; Fluoroscopy is mainly used for static
examinations; During fluoroscopy, the x-ray tube is generally above the animal

83
Q

the negatively charged particle of an atom is the

A

electron

84
Q

as x-rays pass through materials, they have the ability to

A

Cause some substances to fluoresce (emit visible light); Completely remove an electron
from an atom, leaving the atom positively charged; Cause chemical changes that can
kill cells

85
Q

which statement is true

A

Electromagnetic radiation with higher frequency has more penetrating power through
space and matter

86
Q

which statement is false

A

X-rays can be detected by magnetic fields; X-rays with longer wavelengths penetrate
farther than x-rays with shorter wavelengths; Gamma rays are required for the
production of a radiograph

87
Q

electrons travel

A

toward the anode in an x-ray tube

88
Q

x-ray photons travel

A

away from the anode in an x-ray tube

89
Q

way to increase penetrating power of x-rays

A

increasing kVp

90
Q

The milliamperage-seconds (mAs) for 100mA and 1/10sec is:

A

10mAs

91
Q

According to Sante’s rule, if a cat’s abdomen measures 8cm & FFD is 100cm, kVp is:

A

56

92
Q

increasing the film object distance

A

the resulting image is larger

93
Q

one percent of the energy produced at the anode is in the form of

A

x-rays

94
Q

the temperature of the filament withing the cathode is controlled by

A

the time setting

95
Q

what are characteristics of the x-rays

A

their intensity increases as SID (source image distance) decreases

96
Q

what is not true for x-rays

A

Their total number produced is determined by kV; Longer wavelengths have more
penetrating power; They diverge from a light source

97
Q

potential difference between the anode and the cathode is measured in

A

kilovolts

98
Q

which statement is true

A

Higher kVp settings allow for lower mAs and lower exposure time

99
Q

which of the following increases radiographic density

A

thinner body parts

100
Q

which statement is true

A

the abdomen, thorax and femur all have equal scale of contrast

SAM (11 decks)

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