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SAM > PPQ7 > Flashcards

PPQ7 Flashcards

1
Q

which statement is correct regarding anaesthetic aspects of hyperadrenocorticism

A

Limited range of motion of the diaphragm make mechanical ventilation necessary in the
maintenance phase of anaesthesia

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2
Q

which is correct regarding inhalant anaesthetics

A

most inhalant anaesthetics are liquid at room temperature

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3
Q

where are the scrotal incisions made for castration

A

parallel with raphe scroti, 1cm from the midline; 2 incisions

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4
Q

which belong to the core vaccines in dogs

A

Leptospira; Parvoviral enteritis; Distemper; Rubarth disease; Rabies; Canine hepatitis

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5
Q

which muscles can be used for IM drug application

A

M. semitendinosus/ semimembranosus

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6
Q

to perform a complete blood count exam, you need

A

EDTA blood sampling tube

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7
Q

in case of hypovolaemia, the first choice infusion is

A

lactated ringer solution

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8
Q

in case of epistaxis

A

as soon as possible haemostatis and coagulation profile test are required

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9
Q

point of maintenance infusion therapy is to

A

treat dehydration

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10
Q

characteristics of feline herpes viral rhinitis

A

bilateral mucopurulent nasal and ocular discharge

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11
Q

the concept of moist wound therapy does not inclue

A

a wet to dry dressing

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12
Q

primary assessment of the circulation, which is incorrect

A

perform, ECG and heart US

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13
Q

what does ‘3-metric’ mean on a suture material pack

A

0.3mm in diameter

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14
Q

characteristic of canine bronchitis

A

crackles and wheezes auscultation

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15
Q

what is the golden period in treatment of fresh traumatic wounds

A

6-8 hours from injury

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16
Q

during the early

healing phase, what are the most essential WBC’s in the wound

A

Monocytes

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17
Q

what characterises the proliferative phase of wound healing

A

angiogenesis

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18
Q

granulation tissue is especially sensitive to

A

desiccation

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19
Q

primary wound closure should be avoided in

A

gunshot wound and bite wounds

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20
Q

delayed primary closure

A

is usually performed 2-5 days after injury

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21
Q

which statement is false

A

wounds are rinsed with large volumes of hydrogen peroxide

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22
Q

preferred method of debridement in a lacerated wound is

A

surgical

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23
Q

in case of wound infection presumable caused by multi resistance organism

A

the patient should be treated in isolation wearing protective clothing

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24
Q

first aid key points

A

Haemostasis and prevention of further contamination

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25
Q

the basic concept of moist wound treatment is

A

based on the idea of preserving wound exudate in contact with the wound surface

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26
Q

which is false

A

a good bandage reduced blood flow to the wound

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27
Q

which contact layer is most suitable for heavily exudating wounds

A

calcium alginate

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28
Q

Used as a topical wound medication, the mechanism of action is based on
hyperosmolarity

A

sugar and honey

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29
Q

surgical site infection

A

often results in wound breakdown and dehiscence (rupture)

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30
Q

a layer of the Robert-jones bandage

A

secondary absorbent layer- cotton wool

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31
Q

not a risk factor for a wound infection

A

obesity

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32
Q

which statement is correct

A

sugar wound therapy enhances granulation

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33
Q

psedumonas spp. grows from a sample from the surface of a wound with healthy granulation tissue. this is most likely due to

A

contamination

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34
Q

what is the most dangerous complication of bandaging

A

distal limb oedema

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35
Q

what does not require emergency care

A

Tracheal hypoplasia; Heartworm disease; Gastric ulcer; Hydrocephalus; Cystitis;
Patellar luxation; Subcutaneous/skin autoimmune disease

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36
Q

which statement is false

A

all critical care patients require intensive wound care

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37
Q

which statement is false

A

primary survey is used to determine all organic disorders

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38
Q

which statements is false

A

ECG & echocardiograms are primary assessments of the circulation

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39
Q

when can you see the foetal skeleton on the x-ray

A

after the 45th day

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40
Q

when can HD (hip dysplasia) be seen on the x-ray

A

after 6 months

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41
Q

If you see decreased radiopacity of the femoral head & neck on an x-ray of a spitz,
what do you suspect?

A

perthes disease

42
Q

how early do you x-ray a dog with ileus once fed with contrast medium

A

12 hours

43
Q

what is the principle of ALARA

A

to keep the radiation As Low As Reasonable Achievable

44
Q

when can an osteophyte be detected

A

after 3 weeks

45
Q

which part of the carpus is the most affected in OCD

A

cartilage

46
Q

hansen I can also be described as

A

An extrusion; Typical in chondrodystrophic breeds, calcification of the nucleus
pulposis, anulus fibrosis rupture and rapid deterioration

47
Q

statement of bone tumour; age and type

A

5-6 years: Middle/large breeds; Fibrosarcoma, malignant melanoma, squamous cell
carcinoma

48
Q

predisposed for Perthe’s disease

A

Young, small toy breeds

49
Q

Bilateral forelimb periosteal reaction, what should be x-rayed next

A

thoracic cavity; lung for metastasis

50
Q

what bone disease leads to fracture

A

renal osteodystrophy

51
Q

what can be seen on x-ray in case of intestinal linear foreign body

A

intestines appear pleated

52
Q

hansen type II

A

Large breeds; Aged > 8 years; Nuleus pulposis fibrinisation; Annulus fibrosus intact;
Protrusion; Chronic process

53
Q

fusion time of anconeous process

A

4-5 months

54
Q

security around x-rays

A

Radiation of vet > Radiation of patient; People are not allowed to restrain the animal;
ALARA; Immobilise by sedation; Lead apron; Thyroid gland protection; Lead gloves;
Rotate restrainer; Distance; Personal monitoring device

55
Q

tissue radiodensity in order

A

Metal/stone (Radiopaque) > Bone > Fluid/soft tissue > Fat > Gas (Radiolucent)

56
Q

position of malignant bone tumours

A

stifle near; elbow far

57
Q

which beam emits the most UV radiation

A

UV beams

58
Q

common disease in Westie

A

craniomandibular osteopathy

59
Q

developmental disease of the spine in small animals

A

Spina bifida; Block vertebrae; Hemivertebrae; Transient vertebrae

60
Q

which contrast media would you choose for urinary tract

A

hyperosmotic; ionic iodine

61
Q

where do we do the epidural injection

A

sacro-coccygeal junction; C1-C2

62
Q

tracheal collapse of the cervical trachea is seen during

A

inspiration

63
Q

tracheal collapse of the thoracic trachea is seen during

A

expiration

64
Q

what does kV mean

A

kilovolt- unit of electrical potential

65
Q

what does mAs mean

A

miliampere- unit used for electric current

66
Q

what types of x-ray generators are used today

A

Single-phase with low capacity; 3-phase which needs 3 phase electric current; High frequency, largest and most stable capacity

67
Q

which disorder is mostly diagnosed on a plain abdominal radiography

A

intestinal obstruction

68
Q

which statement is not true? in a healthy dog, the pylorus can be seen

A

on the left in DV view

69
Q

which statement is true? in a healthy dog, the pylorus can be seen

A

Ventrally in left lateral recumbency; Ventrally in the right lateral recumbency; On the
right in VD view

70
Q

which statement is false

A

If there is no dangerous amount of fluid in the oral cavity, remove the tube with the cuff
inflated

71
Q

which statement is false

A

Stadium analgesiae – Max. pupil dilation; Ø Corneal tension

72
Q

which statement is false

A

Acepromazine should have a higher does because lower doses notably elongate the
duration of action

73
Q

which statement is false

A

propofol general dose: 0.5 ml/bwkg IV

74
Q

which statement is true

A

propofol general dose: 5mg/bwkg IV

75
Q

which statement is false

A

mixing system of the anaesthetic- absorbed canister with soda lime

76
Q

which statement is false

A

parameters of ventilation- inhalation: exhalation time ratio = 1:2-8:1

77
Q

which is true

A

parameters of ventilation- inhalation: exhalation time ratio = 1:2- 1:3

78
Q

which is false

A

capnometry- paCO2

79
Q

which statement is false

A

pain sensation is not influenced by fear and stress

80
Q

which statement is false

A

pain management is not very important in young animals, but it is in adults

81
Q

which statement is false

A

preoperative analgesics- phenothiazine but butyrophenone derivatives

82
Q

which statement is false

A

antagonists- propofol: dantrolene

83
Q

which statement is false

A

Physical characteristics of young patients – BBB is less permeable, so puppies until 4
weeks of age require higher doses

84
Q

which statement is false

A

old patients have increased vital capacity, respiratory frequency & compliance

85
Q

which statement is false

A

opioids cannot be administered intraoperatively

86
Q

which statement is false

A

epidural anaesthesia- 10% lidocaine is most frequently used

87
Q

which statement is true

A

epidural anaesthesia- 2% lidocaine is most frequently used

88
Q

which statement is false

A

most postoperative complications can be manifested using balance anaesthesia (PIVA)

89
Q

which statement is true

A

greyhounds should not be given thiopental

90
Q

which statement is true

A

boxers should not be given phenothiazines

91
Q

which statement is true

A

large breeds & individuals are sensitive to hypoxia

92
Q

which statement is true

A

premedication- ACP + butorphanol

93
Q

which statement is true

A

premedication- medetomidine + butorphanol

94
Q

which statements is true

A

premedication- midazolam + butorphanol

95
Q

which statement is true

A

premedication- medetomidine + butorphanol + butorphanol??

96
Q

which statement is true

A

premedication- diazepam + butorphanol

97
Q

which statements is true

A

premedication- fentanyl

98
Q

which statement is true

A

Pre-operative antibiotics are indicated in orthopaedic surgery – 30 mins prior and a
second dose lasting for 3 hours

99
Q

when should antibiotics be used

A

f surgery >90 mins; Implantation; Infection; Orthopaedics; Oesophageal; Dirty
surgery – Faecal/urine contamination

100
Q

which drugs are contraindicated in liver patients

A

Ketamine; Diazepam; Methoxyflurane; Halothane – Fentanyl is recommended

SAM (11 decks)

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