PPQ7 Flashcards
which statement is correct regarding anaesthetic aspects of hyperadrenocorticism
Limited range of motion of the diaphragm make mechanical ventilation necessary in the
maintenance phase of anaesthesia
which is correct regarding inhalant anaesthetics
most inhalant anaesthetics are liquid at room temperature
where are the scrotal incisions made for castration
parallel with raphe scroti, 1cm from the midline; 2 incisions
which belong to the core vaccines in dogs
Leptospira; Parvoviral enteritis; Distemper; Rubarth disease; Rabies; Canine hepatitis
which muscles can be used for IM drug application
M. semitendinosus/ semimembranosus
to perform a complete blood count exam, you need
EDTA blood sampling tube
in case of hypovolaemia, the first choice infusion is
lactated ringer solution
in case of epistaxis
as soon as possible haemostatis and coagulation profile test are required
point of maintenance infusion therapy is to
treat dehydration
characteristics of feline herpes viral rhinitis
bilateral mucopurulent nasal and ocular discharge
the concept of moist wound therapy does not inclue
a wet to dry dressing
primary assessment of the circulation, which is incorrect
perform, ECG and heart US
what does ‘3-metric’ mean on a suture material pack
0.3mm in diameter
characteristic of canine bronchitis
crackles and wheezes auscultation
what is the golden period in treatment of fresh traumatic wounds
6-8 hours from injury
during the early
healing phase, what are the most essential WBC’s in the wound
Monocytes
what characterises the proliferative phase of wound healing
angiogenesis
granulation tissue is especially sensitive to
desiccation
primary wound closure should be avoided in
gunshot wound and bite wounds
delayed primary closure
is usually performed 2-5 days after injury
which statement is false
wounds are rinsed with large volumes of hydrogen peroxide
preferred method of debridement in a lacerated wound is
surgical
in case of wound infection presumable caused by multi resistance organism
the patient should be treated in isolation wearing protective clothing
first aid key points
Haemostasis and prevention of further contamination
the basic concept of moist wound treatment is
based on the idea of preserving wound exudate in contact with the wound surface
which is false
a good bandage reduced blood flow to the wound
which contact layer is most suitable for heavily exudating wounds
calcium alginate
Used as a topical wound medication, the mechanism of action is based on
hyperosmolarity
sugar and honey
surgical site infection
often results in wound breakdown and dehiscence (rupture)
a layer of the Robert-jones bandage
secondary absorbent layer- cotton wool
not a risk factor for a wound infection
obesity
which statement is correct
sugar wound therapy enhances granulation
psedumonas spp. grows from a sample from the surface of a wound with healthy granulation tissue. this is most likely due to
contamination
what is the most dangerous complication of bandaging
distal limb oedema
what does not require emergency care
Tracheal hypoplasia; Heartworm disease; Gastric ulcer; Hydrocephalus; Cystitis;
Patellar luxation; Subcutaneous/skin autoimmune disease
which statement is false
all critical care patients require intensive wound care
which statement is false
primary survey is used to determine all organic disorders
which statements is false
ECG & echocardiograms are primary assessments of the circulation
when can you see the foetal skeleton on the x-ray
after the 45th day
when can HD (hip dysplasia) be seen on the x-ray
after 6 months
If you see decreased radiopacity of the femoral head & neck on an x-ray of a spitz,
what do you suspect?
perthes disease
how early do you x-ray a dog with ileus once fed with contrast medium
12 hours
what is the principle of ALARA
to keep the radiation As Low As Reasonable Achievable
when can an osteophyte be detected
after 3 weeks
which part of the carpus is the most affected in OCD
cartilage
hansen I can also be described as
An extrusion; Typical in chondrodystrophic breeds, calcification of the nucleus
pulposis, anulus fibrosis rupture and rapid deterioration
statement of bone tumour; age and type
5-6 years: Middle/large breeds; Fibrosarcoma, malignant melanoma, squamous cell
carcinoma
predisposed for Perthe’s disease
Young, small toy breeds
Bilateral forelimb periosteal reaction, what should be x-rayed next
thoracic cavity; lung for metastasis
what bone disease leads to fracture
renal osteodystrophy
what can be seen on x-ray in case of intestinal linear foreign body
intestines appear pleated
hansen type II
Large breeds; Aged > 8 years; Nuleus pulposis fibrinisation; Annulus fibrosus intact;
Protrusion; Chronic process
fusion time of anconeous process
4-5 months
security around x-rays
Radiation of vet > Radiation of patient; People are not allowed to restrain the animal;
ALARA; Immobilise by sedation; Lead apron; Thyroid gland protection; Lead gloves;
Rotate restrainer; Distance; Personal monitoring device
tissue radiodensity in order
Metal/stone (Radiopaque) > Bone > Fluid/soft tissue > Fat > Gas (Radiolucent)
position of malignant bone tumours
stifle near; elbow far
which beam emits the most UV radiation
UV beams
common disease in Westie
craniomandibular osteopathy
developmental disease of the spine in small animals
Spina bifida; Block vertebrae; Hemivertebrae; Transient vertebrae
which contrast media would you choose for urinary tract
hyperosmotic; ionic iodine
where do we do the epidural injection
sacro-coccygeal junction; C1-C2
tracheal collapse of the cervical trachea is seen during
inspiration
tracheal collapse of the thoracic trachea is seen during
expiration
what does kV mean
kilovolt- unit of electrical potential
what does mAs mean
miliampere- unit used for electric current
what types of x-ray generators are used today
Single-phase with low capacity; 3-phase which needs 3 phase electric current; High frequency, largest and most stable capacity
which disorder is mostly diagnosed on a plain abdominal radiography
intestinal obstruction
which statement is not true? in a healthy dog, the pylorus can be seen
on the left in DV view
which statement is true? in a healthy dog, the pylorus can be seen
Ventrally in left lateral recumbency; Ventrally in the right lateral recumbency; On the
right in VD view
which statement is false
If there is no dangerous amount of fluid in the oral cavity, remove the tube with the cuff
inflated
which statement is false
Stadium analgesiae – Max. pupil dilation; Ø Corneal tension
which statement is false
Acepromazine should have a higher does because lower doses notably elongate the
duration of action
which statement is false
propofol general dose: 0.5 ml/bwkg IV
which statement is true
propofol general dose: 5mg/bwkg IV
which statement is false
mixing system of the anaesthetic- absorbed canister with soda lime
which statement is false
parameters of ventilation- inhalation: exhalation time ratio = 1:2-8:1
which is true
parameters of ventilation- inhalation: exhalation time ratio = 1:2- 1:3
which is false
capnometry- paCO2
which statement is false
pain sensation is not influenced by fear and stress
which statement is false
pain management is not very important in young animals, but it is in adults
which statement is false
preoperative analgesics- phenothiazine but butyrophenone derivatives
which statement is false
antagonists- propofol: dantrolene
which statement is false
Physical characteristics of young patients – BBB is less permeable, so puppies until 4
weeks of age require higher doses
which statement is false
old patients have increased vital capacity, respiratory frequency & compliance
which statement is false
opioids cannot be administered intraoperatively
which statement is false
epidural anaesthesia- 10% lidocaine is most frequently used
which statement is true
epidural anaesthesia- 2% lidocaine is most frequently used
which statement is false
most postoperative complications can be manifested using balance anaesthesia (PIVA)
which statement is true
greyhounds should not be given thiopental
which statement is true
boxers should not be given phenothiazines
which statement is true
large breeds & individuals are sensitive to hypoxia
which statement is true
premedication- ACP + butorphanol
which statement is true
premedication- medetomidine + butorphanol
which statements is true
premedication- midazolam + butorphanol
which statement is true
premedication- medetomidine + butorphanol + butorphanol??
which statement is true
premedication- diazepam + butorphanol
which statements is true
premedication- fentanyl
which statement is true
Pre-operative antibiotics are indicated in orthopaedic surgery – 30 mins prior and a
second dose lasting for 3 hours
when should antibiotics be used
f surgery >90 mins; Implantation; Infection; Orthopaedics; Oesophageal; Dirty
surgery – Faecal/urine contamination
which drugs are contraindicated in liver patients
Ketamine; Diazepam; Methoxyflurane; Halothane – Fentanyl is recommended
