PPQ2 Flashcards
which of the following is the permanent data of the animal
Species; Breed; Sex; Colour; Colour pattern; Nose/muzzle impression; Blood group;
Marks – Whorls, blemishes or defects
what colour is the mucosa in case of hypovolaemic shock
dirty red
what to check when you inspect the testes
Location; Size; Shape; Structure; Surface; Painfulness; Symmetry; Movability;
Consistency; Cryptorchidism (should descend by 6 months of age → sertoli cell tumour)
LMN lesions signs
Diminished or absent reflexes; Decreased or absent tone
physical exam of the kidney
Enlarged kidney size is always associated with renal disease in cats; Painful kidney may
indicate acute disease, renal stone, or tumour.
common causes of kidney shrinkage
congenital renal dysplasia; end stage kidney disease; chronic pyelonephritis
what can B mode echocardiography show
DCM & HCM
what is a pathognomic symptom
Specific. Characteristic for a particular disease. Sign whose presence means that the
disease is present without any doubt
instruments needed for neurological exam
reflex hammer; penlight; arterial clamp; needle
what is anisocoria
unequal pupil size
what can be examined by the inspection of joints
skin; angle; swelling; deformities; symmetry
what are the methods of neurological examination
X-ray; EEG; CT; MRI; Blood count; Pathogen detection; CSF analysis
type of exam commonly carried out together with an ECG
phonocardiography (PCG) (heart sounds)
choose the correct statement
CT is an X-ray tube that rotates around the patient to obtain multiple images that are
then replayed to a computer that reconstructs the image
what is an election of the skin with fluid and volume under 1cm without epitheal surrounding
vesicle
what is part of status praesens
nutritional status; general impression
what is not part of status praesens
history
indications of tracheoscopy or bronchoscopy
Acute cough in cases of suspected foreign body; Chronic cough if the cause is unknown
or the patient doesn’t respond to therapy; Unexplained abnormal breathing pattern;
Tracheal collapse → Confirmation & staging; Chronic bronchitis → Staging & sample
collection; Stridor; Removal of mucoid obstruction in atelectatic lung lobes; Suspected
narrowing of the airway; Suspected metastatic pulmonary neoplasia; Haemoptoe
signs of conscious pain perception in the dog
crying; biting towards the examiner
indications for colonscopy
Large bowel diarrhoea; Haematochezia; Blood in faeces; Increased faecal mucous;
Tenesmus; Dyschezia; Palpable rectal masses
where does the basic value belong to
status praesens
what could cause a cardiac beat dislocation
pneumothorax; hydrothorax; abscess; tumour
what is not transient data
type of coat; cropped/docked tail
what is transient data
age; body weight; brand marks; tattoos; micro- chips
what are the reduced mental statuses
dementia; stupor; indolentia (freedom from pain); somnolentia (sleepy/drowsy); delerium; coma
in dogs LSHF can lead to
dyspnoe; coughing; tachypnoea
when is RDW (red cell distribution width) elevated
regenerative anaemia
a papule is
small; solid elevation <1cm
acoustic impedance
density of product x acoustic velocity
in case of hepatopathy, AST is
sometimes increased; not liver specific; only used together with ALT; ‘useless’ is apparently the correct answer
in what condition would you hear a stronger heartbeat
Thin thoracic wall
what is ataxia
incoordination of movement
what is true about angiodema and urticaria
usually due to vaccination, blood transfusion or bee stings (allergic reaction)
how can you categorise the heart sounds by auscultation
FRIDA: frequency; rhythm; intensity; demarcation of heart sounds; adventitious murmur
which of the following findings indicate that your patient might have lower urinary tract disease
Pollakiuria; Dysuria; Stranguria; Periuria; Haematuria
regarding its origin, a seizure can be
generalised; extracerebral
which are most specific symptoms to heart disease/ failure
murmur; arrhythmia’ dyspnoea
which are not indications for rhinoscopy
salivation; vomitus
what are indications for rhinoscopy
Sneezing; Reverse sneezing; Nasal discharge; Epistaxis; Facial swelling/distortion;
Suspicion of foreign body
which is a directly audible respiratory sound
Tooting/honking sound in tracheal collapse; Snoring sound in case of tracheal
obstruction
what is not classed as an additional exam
percussion
what is classed as an additional exam
Biopsy; cyctocentesis; FNA
Basic clinical values
temperature; pulse; respiratory rate (TPR)
main characteristics of endoscopy
complementary diagnostic procedure; semi invasive procedure
characteristic of normal cardiac dullness during percussion on the left side
dog: Absolute dullness, cat; Relative dullness
normal HR of cats in the clinic
140-180bpm
normal HR of dogs in the clinic
60-140 bpm
the bronchial respiratory sound can be heard under normal conditions
above larynx and below trachea
which sentence is false
In dogs, the cough in chronic bronchitis, emphysema is high, intensive, explosive &
barking-like
which sentences are true
In dogs, the cough originating from the larynx that is retching-gagging like tends to
vomit; In dog, tracheitis is loud, explosive & barking like; In dogs, the cough in
tracheal collapse is goose-honking-like
alopecia is
The loss of hair and may vary from partial to complete; A primary skin lesion in
endocrine disorders & follicular dysplasia; A secondary skin lesion to trauma or
inflammation; Physiologic in the case of trauma
which sentence is not true
the narrowed upper airways cause mostly held expiration
which sentences are true
held inspiration can be due to narrowed upper airways and increased abdominal pressure
which sentences are true
held expiration can be due to decreased lung elasticity and micro-bronchitis
which sentences are true
Intermittent inspiration can be due to excitement, long exhausting work or during a
painful chest disorder
which statement is false
The pH of the regurgitated content is usually alkalic
which statement is true
Regurgitation is passive and a consequence of disorder to the oesophagus & pharynx;
Vomiting is characterised by active abdominal movement and preceded by nausea; The
vomited content is always digested and the pH is always acidic.
which parameters cannot be examined my palpation
colour; smell/odour; percussion sound
which parameters can be examined by palpation
painfulness; consistency; movability; size
which sentences are true
Intermittent inspiration can be due to excitement, long exhausting work or during a
painful chest disorder
what are the appropriate tests to examine the endocrine function of the pancreas
fructosamine; insulin
method of the hepatojugular reflux test
compress the epigastrium and observe the v.jugularis
part of the brain responsible for mental status
thalmocortex
premedication
pharmacological intervention prior to induction of general anaesthesia
calming
sedation
reduction of fear
anxiolysis
catalepsy may be caused by
ketamine
neuroleptanalgesia
superficial sleeping; analgesia; caused by phenothiazine + opioid combination
pain relief
analgesia
neuroleptanalgesia is not caused by
benzodiazepine + opioid
types of anaesthesia
local; regional; general; total IV
general anaesthesia criteria
hypnosis; analgesia; muscle relaxants
general anaesthesia doesnt need to be
inhalational
balanced anaesthesia
Consciousness may be steered with anaesthetics; Pain may be controlled by analgesics;
Muscle relaxation may be altered via muscle relaxants
balanced anaesthesia
is not achievable with a single ‘mono-anaesthetic’ drug
dissociative anaesthesia
Thalamocortical dissociation; Peripheral analgesia; Alteration of consciousness
dissociative anaesthesia
doesnt lead to limbic depression
phenothiazines may cause life threatening hypotension in
Boxers
brachycephalic breeds need
Pre-oxygenation; short induction; fast intubation
Brachycephalic breeds dont require
early extubation
MDR-1 gene defect is detected in
Australian shepherd; English shepherd; German shepherd
preanesthetic circulatory examination
mucous membranes; CRT; pulse frequency and quality
preanesthetic heart function examination
auscultation; ECG; US
preanesthetic minimal laboratory exam
WBC count; Haematocrit; TPP; urea; creatinine; ALT
ASA 1
healthy state; symptom- free state; low anaesthesia risk; 6 weeks- 5years
ASA 2
mild systemic disease; no apparent functional disorder; 3 days- 6 weeks; 5-8 years
ASA 3
severe systemic disease with visible functional impairement; non-life threatening status; 8-10 years
ASA 4
severe systemic disease; constant threat to patients life; high anaesthesia risk; 0-3 days; over 10 years of age
ASA 5
Moribund status; Patient is very likely to die withing 24 hours, with or without the
surgery
CEPOD classification
CEPOD I -Immediate, life-saving intervention; CEPOD II – Urgent intervention;
CEPOD III – Intervention planned for near future; CEPOD IV – Delayable intervention
pre-anaesthetic fasting
Usually 6 hours; Less than 6 hours in very young patients; Only 2 hours in emergency
patients
advantages of premedication
Decreases stress, fear & aggression; Lowers anaesthetic demand; Decreases drug
expenditure; Elimination of the excitation stage; Balanced anaesthesia
steps of general anaesthesia
premedication; induction; recovery
effects of premedication
Decreases pain, stress, fear & aggression; Decreases anaesthetic dosage, side-effects &
costs; Eliminated the excitation
reasons for vein cannulation
drug admin; fluid therapy; emergency access
preferred drugs for induction
Anaesthetics with moderate (or no) side effects; Rapid onset of action; Short duration or
counteractable
maintenance of general anaesthesia
intramuscular; intravenous; inhalational
role of anaesthesiologist
Control the depth of anaesthesia; Patient monitoring; Maintain homeostasis
stages of narcosis (I-IV)
I – Stadium analgesiae (induction phase); II – Stadium excitationis (excitatory phase);
III – Stadium tolerantiae (surgical narcosis); IV – Stadium asphyxiae (overdose &
asphyxia)
characteristics of general anaesthesia
Unconsciousness; Lack of perception; Analgesia
