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SAM > PPQ2 > Flashcards

PPQ2 Flashcards

1
Q

which of the following is the permanent data of the animal

A

Species; Breed; Sex; Colour; Colour pattern; Nose/muzzle impression; Blood group;
Marks – Whorls, blemishes or defects

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2
Q

what colour is the mucosa in case of hypovolaemic shock

A

dirty red

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3
Q

what to check when you inspect the testes

A

Location; Size; Shape; Structure; Surface; Painfulness; Symmetry; Movability;
Consistency; Cryptorchidism (should descend by 6 months of age → sertoli cell tumour)

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4
Q

LMN lesions signs

A

Diminished or absent reflexes; Decreased or absent tone

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5
Q

physical exam of the kidney

A

Enlarged kidney size is always associated with renal disease in cats; Painful kidney may
indicate acute disease, renal stone, or tumour.

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6
Q

common causes of kidney shrinkage

A

congenital renal dysplasia; end stage kidney disease; chronic pyelonephritis

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7
Q

what can B mode echocardiography show

A

DCM & HCM

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8
Q

what is a pathognomic symptom

A

Specific. Characteristic for a particular disease. Sign whose presence means that the
disease is present without any doubt

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9
Q

instruments needed for neurological exam

A

reflex hammer; penlight; arterial clamp; needle

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10
Q

what is anisocoria

A

unequal pupil size

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11
Q

what can be examined by the inspection of joints

A

skin; angle; swelling; deformities; symmetry

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12
Q

what are the methods of neurological examination

A

X-ray; EEG; CT; MRI; Blood count; Pathogen detection; CSF analysis

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13
Q

type of exam commonly carried out together with an ECG

A

phonocardiography (PCG) (heart sounds)

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14
Q

choose the correct statement

A

CT is an X-ray tube that rotates around the patient to obtain multiple images that are
then replayed to a computer that reconstructs the image

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15
Q

what is an election of the skin with fluid and volume under 1cm without epitheal surrounding

A

vesicle

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16
Q

what is part of status praesens

A

nutritional status; general impression

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17
Q

what is not part of status praesens

A

history

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18
Q

indications of tracheoscopy or bronchoscopy

A

Acute cough in cases of suspected foreign body; Chronic cough if the cause is unknown
or the patient doesn’t respond to therapy; Unexplained abnormal breathing pattern;
Tracheal collapse → Confirmation & staging; Chronic bronchitis → Staging & sample
collection; Stridor; Removal of mucoid obstruction in atelectatic lung lobes; Suspected
narrowing of the airway; Suspected metastatic pulmonary neoplasia; Haemoptoe

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19
Q

signs of conscious pain perception in the dog

A

crying; biting towards the examiner

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20
Q

indications for colonscopy

A

Large bowel diarrhoea; Haematochezia; Blood in faeces; Increased faecal mucous;
Tenesmus; Dyschezia; Palpable rectal masses

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21
Q

where does the basic value belong to

A

status praesens

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22
Q

what could cause a cardiac beat dislocation

A

pneumothorax; hydrothorax; abscess; tumour

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23
Q

what is not transient data

A

type of coat; cropped/docked tail

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24
Q

what is transient data

A

age; body weight; brand marks; tattoos; micro- chips

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25
Q

what are the reduced mental statuses

A

dementia; stupor; indolentia (freedom from pain); somnolentia (sleepy/drowsy); delerium; coma

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26
Q

in dogs LSHF can lead to

A

dyspnoe; coughing; tachypnoea

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27
Q

when is RDW (red cell distribution width) elevated

A

regenerative anaemia

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28
Q

a papule is

A

small; solid elevation <1cm

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29
Q

acoustic impedance

A

density of product x acoustic velocity

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30
Q

in case of hepatopathy, AST is

A

sometimes increased; not liver specific; only used together with ALT; ‘useless’ is apparently the correct answer

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31
Q

in what condition would you hear a stronger heartbeat

A

Thin thoracic wall

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32
Q

what is ataxia

A

incoordination of movement

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33
Q

what is true about angiodema and urticaria

A

usually due to vaccination, blood transfusion or bee stings (allergic reaction)

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34
Q

how can you categorise the heart sounds by auscultation

A

FRIDA: frequency; rhythm; intensity; demarcation of heart sounds; adventitious murmur

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35
Q

which of the following findings indicate that your patient might have lower urinary tract disease

A

Pollakiuria; Dysuria; Stranguria; Periuria; Haematuria

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36
Q

regarding its origin, a seizure can be

A

generalised; extracerebral

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37
Q

which are most specific symptoms to heart disease/ failure

A

murmur; arrhythmia’ dyspnoea

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38
Q

which are not indications for rhinoscopy

A

salivation; vomitus

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39
Q

what are indications for rhinoscopy

A

Sneezing; Reverse sneezing; Nasal discharge; Epistaxis; Facial swelling/distortion;
Suspicion of foreign body

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40
Q

which is a directly audible respiratory sound

A

Tooting/honking sound in tracheal collapse; Snoring sound in case of tracheal
obstruction

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41
Q

what is not classed as an additional exam

A

percussion

42
Q

what is classed as an additional exam

A

Biopsy; cyctocentesis; FNA

43
Q

Basic clinical values

A

temperature; pulse; respiratory rate (TPR)

44
Q

main characteristics of endoscopy

A

complementary diagnostic procedure; semi invasive procedure

45
Q

characteristic of normal cardiac dullness during percussion on the left side

A

dog: Absolute dullness, cat; Relative dullness

46
Q

normal HR of cats in the clinic

A

140-180bpm

47
Q

normal HR of dogs in the clinic

A

60-140 bpm

48
Q

the bronchial respiratory sound can be heard under normal conditions

A

above larynx and below trachea

49
Q

which sentence is false

A

In dogs, the cough in chronic bronchitis, emphysema is high, intensive, explosive &
barking-like

50
Q

which sentences are true

A

In dogs, the cough originating from the larynx that is retching-gagging like tends to
vomit; In dog, tracheitis is loud, explosive & barking like; In dogs, the cough in
tracheal collapse is goose-honking-like

51
Q

alopecia is

A

The loss of hair and may vary from partial to complete; A primary skin lesion in
endocrine disorders & follicular dysplasia; A secondary skin lesion to trauma or
inflammation; Physiologic in the case of trauma

52
Q

which sentence is not true

A

the narrowed upper airways cause mostly held expiration

53
Q

which sentences are true

A

held inspiration can be due to narrowed upper airways and increased abdominal pressure

54
Q

which sentences are true

A

held expiration can be due to decreased lung elasticity and micro-bronchitis

55
Q

which sentences are true

A

Intermittent inspiration can be due to excitement, long exhausting work or during a
painful chest disorder

56
Q

which statement is false

A

The pH of the regurgitated content is usually alkalic

57
Q

which statement is true

A

Regurgitation is passive and a consequence of disorder to the oesophagus & pharynx;
Vomiting is characterised by active abdominal movement and preceded by nausea; The
vomited content is always digested and the pH is always acidic.

58
Q

which parameters cannot be examined my palpation

A

colour; smell/odour; percussion sound

59
Q

which parameters can be examined by palpation

A

painfulness; consistency; movability; size

60
Q

which sentences are true

A

Intermittent inspiration can be due to excitement, long exhausting work or during a
painful chest disorder

61
Q

what are the appropriate tests to examine the endocrine function of the pancreas

A

fructosamine; insulin

62
Q

method of the hepatojugular reflux test

A

compress the epigastrium and observe the v.jugularis

63
Q

part of the brain responsible for mental status

A

thalmocortex

64
Q

premedication

A

pharmacological intervention prior to induction of general anaesthesia

65
Q

calming

A

sedation

66
Q

reduction of fear

A

anxiolysis

67
Q

catalepsy may be caused by

A

ketamine

68
Q

neuroleptanalgesia

A

superficial sleeping; analgesia; caused by phenothiazine + opioid combination

69
Q

pain relief

A

analgesia

70
Q

neuroleptanalgesia is not caused by

A

benzodiazepine + opioid

71
Q

types of anaesthesia

A

local; regional; general; total IV

72
Q

general anaesthesia criteria

A

hypnosis; analgesia; muscle relaxants

73
Q

general anaesthesia doesnt need to be

A

inhalational

74
Q

balanced anaesthesia

A

Consciousness may be steered with anaesthetics; Pain may be controlled by analgesics;
Muscle relaxation may be altered via muscle relaxants

75
Q

balanced anaesthesia

A

is not achievable with a single ‘mono-anaesthetic’ drug

76
Q

dissociative anaesthesia

A

Thalamocortical dissociation; Peripheral analgesia; Alteration of consciousness

77
Q

dissociative anaesthesia

A

doesnt lead to limbic depression

78
Q

phenothiazines may cause life threatening hypotension in

A

Boxers

79
Q

brachycephalic breeds need

A

Pre-oxygenation; short induction; fast intubation

80
Q

Brachycephalic breeds dont require

A

early extubation

81
Q

MDR-1 gene defect is detected in

A

Australian shepherd; English shepherd; German shepherd

82
Q

preanesthetic circulatory examination

A

mucous membranes; CRT; pulse frequency and quality

83
Q

preanesthetic heart function examination

A

auscultation; ECG; US

84
Q

preanesthetic minimal laboratory exam

A

WBC count; Haematocrit; TPP; urea; creatinine; ALT

85
Q

ASA 1

A

healthy state; symptom- free state; low anaesthesia risk; 6 weeks- 5years

86
Q

ASA 2

A

mild systemic disease; no apparent functional disorder; 3 days- 6 weeks; 5-8 years

87
Q

ASA 3

A

severe systemic disease with visible functional impairement; non-life threatening status; 8-10 years

88
Q

ASA 4

A

severe systemic disease; constant threat to patients life; high anaesthesia risk; 0-3 days; over 10 years of age

89
Q

ASA 5

A

Moribund status; Patient is very likely to die withing 24 hours, with or without the
surgery

90
Q

CEPOD classification

A

CEPOD I -Immediate, life-saving intervention; CEPOD II – Urgent intervention;
CEPOD III – Intervention planned for near future; CEPOD IV – Delayable intervention

91
Q

pre-anaesthetic fasting

A

Usually 6 hours; Less than 6 hours in very young patients; Only 2 hours in emergency
patients

92
Q

advantages of premedication

A

Decreases stress, fear & aggression; Lowers anaesthetic demand; Decreases drug
expenditure; Elimination of the excitation stage; Balanced anaesthesia

93
Q

steps of general anaesthesia

A

premedication; induction; recovery

94
Q

effects of premedication

A

Decreases pain, stress, fear & aggression; Decreases anaesthetic dosage, side-effects &
costs; Eliminated the excitation

95
Q

reasons for vein cannulation

A

drug admin; fluid therapy; emergency access

96
Q

preferred drugs for induction

A

Anaesthetics with moderate (or no) side effects; Rapid onset of action; Short duration or
counteractable

97
Q

maintenance of general anaesthesia

A

intramuscular; intravenous; inhalational

98
Q

role of anaesthesiologist

A

Control the depth of anaesthesia; Patient monitoring; Maintain homeostasis

99
Q

stages of narcosis (I-IV)

A

I – Stadium analgesiae (induction phase); II – Stadium excitationis (excitatory phase);
III – Stadium tolerantiae (surgical narcosis); IV – Stadium asphyxiae (overdose &
asphyxia)

100
Q

characteristics of general anaesthesia

A

Unconsciousness; Lack of perception; Analgesia

SAM (11 decks)

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