Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SAM > PPQ1 > Flashcards

PPQ1 Flashcards

1
Q

what is not a mark?

A

tattoo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is not part of the nationale

A

history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the principles of mareks sound percussion (MC)

A

Crackling sound of the hammer & plessimeter; Sound of thoracic wall or wall of any
organ; Resonant sound of gas-containing tissue or other organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the characteristics of pulse pressure?

A

Difference between systolic & diastolic blood pressure; Determined by HR, stroke
volume & peripheral resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the indications of an ECG?

A

Irregular heartbeats noted during physical exam; Bradycardia; Tachycardia;
Evaluation of cardiac arrhythmias; Detection of enlarged cardiac chambers; Show
cardiac disturbances of electrolytes & systemic diseases; Aid cardiac disease diagnosis;
Monitor anaesthesia; Evaluate effectiveness of cardiac drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the dental formula of a dog

A

Top: 3-1-4-2; Bottom: 3-1-4-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the dental formula of a cat

A

Top: 3-1-3-1; Bottom 3-1-2-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the indications in the oesophagus for a GI endoscopy

A

Dysphagia; Regurgitation; Foreign body; Oesophageal stricture; Megaoesophagus;
Oesophagitis; Patent ductus arteriosus; Hiatal hernia; Worms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the indication in the stomach for a GI endoscopy

A

Dysphagia; Regurgitation; Chronic vomiting; Foreign body; Haematemesis; Melena;
Gastritis; Ulcers; Neoplasia; Pyloric obstruction; Gastric mobility disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the indications in the duodenum for GI endoscopy

A

Chronic vomiting; Haematemesis; Melena; Chronic diarrhoea; Inflammatory bowel
disease; Lymphangiectasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are indications in the colon for GI endscopy

A

Tenesmus; Haematochezia; Dyschezia (constipation); Rectal masses; Faecal mucus;
Lymphoma; Adenocarcinoma; Caecal inversion; Colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

not an indication for a GI endoscope

A

Ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

in dogs RSHF can lead to

A

Ascites; Pleural fluid accumulation; Distended jugular; Dyspnoea; Subcutaneous fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what sound do you hear in case of pulmonary oedema

A

Non-musical rhonchi (Crepitation and crackling)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what type of stones can be seen with US

A

inorganic, organic, struvite and oxalate (all stone types)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is nystagmus

A

involuntary movement of the eyeball

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is horner’s syndrome

A

sympathetic denervation of orbit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are characteristics of horners syndrome

A

Myosis; Ptosis (drooping of the upper eyelid); Enophthalmos; Prolapse of the third
eyelid; Reduced sweating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what can cause horners syndrom

A

polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how many hours must you leave after eating to avoid post prandial lipaemia

A

12 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which statement is not true

A

history is part of general impression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

which is true about ataxia

A

incoordination; muscle weakness;; vestibular malfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is true about precordial thrill (fremitus)

A

pathological. grade 5 murmur (very loud murmur with pre-cordial thrill)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

when is fremitus heard

A

Dry pleurisy; Bronchitis; Fibrinous bronchitis; Stenotic cardiac valves; Valve
insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

which organs can be palpated in cats abdomen

A 
Both kidneys; Urinary bladder; Small intestine; Colon; Liver; Ovaries (when enlarged);
Lymph nodes (when enlarged)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is not a kidney evaluation parameter

A

creatinine kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

checking the bone marrow, what is not performed

A

x-ray; scintigraphy; ALKP (to check for osteolysis) ; US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

checking bone marrow, what is performed

A

CT; MRI; cytology; haematology; FNA; biopsy of ln; CBC; bone marrow core biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

indications for skin biopsy

A

hereditary/congenital skin diseases; auto-immune skin diseases; neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

where can heart be palpated ?

A

over edge of the sternum; left side: ICS3-6; right side : ICS 3-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is true about the kidney

A

acute nephritis: enlarged and painful

chronic nephritis: smaller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what ancillary methods can be used to test muscles

A

EMG; biopsy; CK; LDH; AST; ALT; US; MRI. urinalysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

name some anticoagulants

A

heparin; EDTA; citrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

which are ‘connected’ skin lesions

A

vesicle and bulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what can be heard in upper region in the case of hydrothorax

A

Splashing sound; Louder sound; Forced loud breathing; Increased dullness
(percussion); Bronchial sounds above and zero sounds below the fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

how to examine the spleen

A

Palpation; Percussion. Lab. D: CBC; US; Radiography; FNA → cytology; Biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is a vesicle

A

Circumscribed elevation filled with fluid, often viral/auto-immune origin; Skin lesion <
1 cm & filled with clear fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is not true

A

Narrowing of the upper airway occurs mostly in held expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

signs of UMN disease

A

Hyperactive reflexes; Increased tone (Ø Atrophy or fasciculations)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the most important way to examine the urinary tract

A

Ultrasound; Radiology; Urinalysis; Culture; Imaging; Uroscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

proprioception tests

A

Complex responses involving spinal reflexes and central coordination for normal
movement & posture – Wheelbarrow test; Hopping test; Hemihopping; Correction test
(knuckling-over test); Crossing over; Tactile & optical placing reactions; Reflex
stepping.

42
Q

what do you test with BMBT

A

Buccal mucosal bleeding time; Tests for thrombocytopathy, thrombocytopenia &
vasopathies (should be between 3-5 minutes to be normal)

43
Q

give normal percussion sound standpoints

A

Volume/loudness; Pitch/frequency; Tone/resonance; Duration; Special sounds

44
Q

expired air standpoints

A

Odour; Strength; Temperature; Symmetry

45
Q

clinical signs are seen in the case of pericardial effusion

A

Elevation of the caudo-ventral border: Increased cardiac dullness (enlargement)

46
Q

what noises can be heard upon pericardial effusion

A

increased cardiac dullness; crepitation/crackling

47
Q

why do we use the valsalva probe

A

Used to diagnose heart abnormalities along with echocardiograms; Valsalva
maneuverer/compression test – Breathing stopped → Pleuropericardial / pleuropleural
rubbing disappears; Breathing stopped at the end of inspiration (increased thoracic
pressure) → Pericardial rubbing increases

48
Q

bone clinical exam

A

Physical exam: General inspection & palpation (pain; consistency; crepitation;
movement; temperature) percussion

49
Q

symptoms of general seizure

A

Diffused origin within cortex, thalamus & brainstem → All muscles affected; General
symptoms → Excitation or loss of consciousness

50
Q

thorax; normal percussion sound

A

Sharp; High or low; Sonorous (resonant) and long percussion sound

51
Q

examination of adrenal glands

A

CBC (stress leukogram); Biochemistry (ALP, SIALP, NA:K ratio); ACTH-stim.; Low
dose dexamethasone suppression (LDDS) test; US; CT

52
Q

locomotor system examination

A

History; Physical exam; General impression; Inspection, palpation & percussion of the
given organ; Compare symmetrical parts of the body

53
Q

what is part of the ‘general impression’

A

Body size; Body shape & development state; Nutritional condition; General condition &
grooming; Consciousness & behaviour; Posture; Locomotion; Obvious abnormalities

54
Q

what is not part of general impression

A

Basic clinical values; Status praesens; Pulse

55
Q

what is true about endoscopy

A

can be done in awake patients (sedation)

56
Q

what is M- mode echocardiography

A

unidirectional M mode echocardiography. used for measurement of left ventricle

57
Q

what to check when suspecting locomotion problems

A

History; Physical exam; General impression → Observation standing, moving &
recumbent; Inspection, palpation & percussion of a given organ; Compare symmetrical
parts of the body; Further examination

58
Q

what is a grade 1/6 cardiac murmer

A

very soft murmur; heard only after a few seconds in a quiet room

59
Q

what is a grade 2/6 cardiac murmur

A

soft murmur; easily heard with auscultation

60
Q

what is a grade 3/6 cardiac murmur

A

moderate intensity murmur with good audibility

61
Q

what is a grade 4/6 cardiac murmur

A

loud murmur; very good audibility but without precordial thrill

62
Q

what is a grade 5/6 murmur

A

very loud murmur with precordial thrill

63
Q

what is a grade 6/6 cardiac murmur

A

loudest murmur; even audible with stethoscope lifted from chest wall

64
Q

what is the procedure of the nervous system exam

A

Ask (history) → Watch(general aspects) → Touch (physical exam) → Pain (examine
pain perception)

65
Q

what are the US type

A

M-mode (where there is a cross section of a chamber and it forms a trace); B-mode
(standard US view); Doppler (flow patterns)

66
Q

examination of the prostate gland

A

Palpation → Abdominal & RDP; Visualisation → X-ray & US; Urinalysis;
Examination of prostatic fluid → Prostatic massage; Semen examination; Cytology;
Biopsy

67
Q

description of lymph nodes

A

Shape; Size; Consistency; Structure; Pain; Movability; Temperature compared to the
other; Surface; Intactness of covered skin

68
Q

what is the consequence if the transducer frequency is higher

A

higher resolution; less penetration depth

69
Q

where is the diernhoffer triangle

A

Cardiac region; Normally filled with air; Normally produces a resonant sound,
however this sound may become dulled by presence of pleural effusion.

70
Q

reasons why there might be bleeding from the penis

A

injury; wound; prostate problem

71
Q

how is the epidermal collarette formed

A

Remainder of the covering of a ruptured vesicle or pustule; Also seen in epidermal
necrosis; Can be caused by bacteria or dermatophytes

72
Q

pathological behaviour

A

auto-mutilation

73
Q

what indicated consciousness

A

Ability to learn; Eating; Walking; Ability to remember; Being aware of the
surroundings; Ability to recognise the environment

74
Q

puncta maxima of the dogs on the right side

A

Heart apex: ICS 3-5; Murmur: ICS 4 (tricuspid valve)

75
Q

what causes an enlarged P wave

A

atrial enlargement

76
Q

2 different labs have measured creatinine but got different results; what is the reason

A

One used a spectrophotometer; One used specific enzymes; Incorrect measurement;
Wrong equipment

77
Q

what is an incorrect way of sampling the spinal cord

A

blood sample; biopsy; US of abdominal cavity

78
Q

what is the correct way of sampling the spinal cord

A

FNA

79
Q

describe the panniculus reflex

A

Pinch the skin over the vertebrae from the iliac wing up until the level of the scapulae;
Lack of a reflex may indicate absence of deep pain perception; Normal response would
produce bilateral contraction of the m. cutaneous trunci

80
Q

which nerves are responsible for the panniculus reflex

A

Afferent: Spinal segments, centre: C7 - Th1; Efferent: M. cutaneous trunci

81
Q

which nerves are responsible for the perineal reflex

A

Afferent: N. pudendalis; Efferent: N. pudendalis (anal sphincter) & N. rectalis caudalis
(tail flexion); Centre: S1 – S3

82
Q

in which species is the percussion of of the hemithorax absolute

A

dog

83
Q

in which species can you feel the heart on the right side

A

dog; cat; rabbit

84
Q

puncta maxima of the dog on the left side

A

Heart apex: ICS 3-6; Murmur: 3(Pulmonary artery); 4 (Aorta); 5 (Mitral valve)

85
Q

tests for muscle function

A

examine the relaxed animal; standing and lateral recumbency

86
Q

symptoms of vestibular ataxia

A

head tilt; nystagmus; animal leans and falls to the affected side

87
Q

what is the most important part of urinary diagnostics

A

lab d of urine and blood

88
Q

what can the mucosa look like if there is cardiac failure

A

cyanotic; livid (dark blue- grey); pale/whitish

89
Q

what can be examined on the teeth

A

Stones (cremor dentis); Surface; Closure; Number; Tartar; Movability; Percussion
sound

90
Q

what do you examine with the swinging light test

A

N. opticus + N. oculomotor

91
Q

description of synovial fluid

A

clear; light straw in colour; sticky; viscous; strand forming

92
Q

normal motion of a joint

A

easily movable; passive movement is free of pain and no constant crepitation is felt

93
Q

what causes iron deficiency anaemia

A

Chronic blood loss; Blood sucking parasites; Chronic GI bleeding (ulcer, tumour);
Chronic cystitis

94
Q

what to check on nasal plane

A

moistness; colour; surface

95
Q

how to check the pancreas

A

check amylase and lipase biochem parameters

96
Q

signs of damaged trigeminal nerve

A

sagging lower jaw; trismus (lockjaw); motor tic (repeated contractions of chewing muscles)

97
Q

what can be the inspection of the thorax

A

respiratory rate; chest size; deformities

98
Q

arterial palpation

A

Rhythm; Symmetric; Rate; Quality (size; strength; duration of pulse wave; fullness of
artery)

99
Q

sign of kidney failure

A

chronic: smaller

100
Q

what is a rhythmic oscillating muscle twitch

A

tremor

SAM (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions