PPQ8 Flashcards
1
Q
Which drug is given in cases of spinal injury
A
methylprednisolone
2
Q
which statement is true
A
propofol has no antagonists
3
Q
in patients with decreased kidney perfusion, we can give
A
propofol and inhalational anaesthetic (but not alpha2 agonists
4
Q
which statement is false
A
general anaesthesia causes rigid muscles
5
Q
you dont give ketamine to patients with
A
her problem; glaucoma; head trauma patients; hyperthyroidism patients
6
Q
which statement is false
A
x-ray beams are generated in the generator (x-ray tube is correct)
7
Q
which statement is false
A
the anode is negatively charged in the x-ray tube
8
Q
which statement is true
A
The intensifying screen and the image receptor in the fluoroscope are made of the same
material
9
Q
which statement is false
A
DR systems use laser scanners to read the phosphor plate
10
Q
which statement is true
A
intensifying screens with larger crystal size require a smaller dose of radiation
11
Q
which statement is true
A
decreasing the film object distance results in sharper image
12
Q
which statement is true
A
yellow discolouration of the image is a result of insufficient film rinsing
13
Q
which statement is true
A
too light images can be corrected by increasing the exposure values
14
Q
which statement is true
A
green sensitive films are pink
15
Q
which statement is true
A
dosimeters needs to be sent to a lab to analyse radiation exposure
16
Q
the lead apron should contain
A
0.5mm Pb equivalent of lead rubber
17
Q
which statement is false
A
barium sulphate can be used for urography
18
Q
dose of BaSO4 for gastric emptying studies is
A
10-15ml/kg
19
Q
rupture of the ureter can be examined by
A
IV contrast
20
Q
which statement is true
A
Iodine must be given for suspected oesophageal/GI rupture because BaSO4 is
contraindicated
21
Q
which statement is false
A
the oesophagus is visible on the survey radiograph
22
Q
which statement is false
A
The most used negative contrast medium is BaSO4 (Not true because it is a positive
contrast medium; Air is a negative contrast medium)
23
Q
which statement is false
A
excretory urography can be used for examination of the kidney, ureter, bladder &
urethra (false because tis contrast stops at the bladder due to the sphincter)
24
Q
which statement is true
A
BaSO4 tends to adhere to mucosal lesions
25
which contrast is injected in to the sub arachnoid space in myelography
iodine
26
where can myelography can be performed
lumbar region and atlanto-occipital joint
27
what types of intensifying screens are known
CaWo4 and are rare earth screen (blue or green)
28
characteristics of laryngeal paralysis
old; large breed; idiopathic background
29
characteristics of feline asthma
Cytological & microbiological examination of BAL is highly important
30
which sign reflects the most severe acute respiratory distress (pO2<60mmHg)
cyanosis
31
colloid infusions
are used in hypovolaemia combined with crystalloids
32
canine chronic bronchitis
Bronchial pattern on x-ray; Mucopurulent discharge in the bronchi during
bronchoscopy; Cytology & microbiology of BAL are required
33
what does 'atypical operation' mean
An individual procedure using the whole knowledge, experience & intuition of the
surgeon
34
which arytenoid structure is anchored during CAL
Processus muscularis, Processus cuneifomis, Processus corniculatus
35
characteristics of aspiration pneumonia
Prognosis can be influenced by pH, volume & quality of the aspirated content;
Megaoesophagus or laryngeal dysfunction
36
which statement is incorrect
Cervical tracheal resection/anastomosis – Either interrupted or continuous stitches are
applied
37
characteristics of canine/feline bacterial pneumonia
its background is usually viral, foreign body or food inspiration
38
which statement is incorrect regarding midline sternotomy
Finochietto rib retractor or gelpi retractor is applicable
39
which of the following can you not give subcutaneously
injections containing glucose
40
the peripheral venous catheter
has a valve in the upper (coloured cap) connection part
41
how long can a nasogastric tube stay for
5-10 days
42
after perivenous injection
a swelling develops at the injection site
43
According to the WSAVA vaccination guidelines issued in 2016, the last injection of
a puppy series is at the age of…
16 weeks
44
which breed is congenital laryngeal paralysis common
Husky
45
Which of the following conditions is the rhinotomy not the primarily indicated
therapy?
nasal adenocarcinoma
46
where do we measure blood glucose in cats
ear vein or paw pad
47
which answer is wrong? benefits of a 3 way stopcock
it is harder for the animal to pull out the catheter from the vein
48
which parameter is most specific for DIC
fibrinogen
49
What are typic symptoms for a riding thrombus in cats
paralysis of the hindlimbs; loud vocalisation; loss of femoral pulse
50
what is the most reliable method of diagnosis for pneomthorax
thoracoscopy
51
which statement is false? electrosurgery
the efficiency & safety of monopolar systems is better
52
which statements are true? electrosurgery
In monopolar systems, a large surface return electrode should be placed on the
patient’s body; In monopolar systems the return electrode can cause burn wound in the
patient in case of small contact area; In forceps-like bipolar systems, there is no need
for a large-size recurrent electrode
53
In case of PPDH (Peritoneopericardial hernia), which abdominal organs are often
dislocated?
omentum; liver; small intestines
54
what can we conclude from the speed of flow during Doppler echocardiography
the pressure difference between the heart chambers
55
which part of the stomach is usually dislocated in case of sliding (axial) hiatal hernia
fundus
56
what lesions are expected in severe endocardiosis
left heart distension
57
what lesions are expected in severe dilated cardiomyopathy
left heart distension/dilation
58
what changes do you expect to find in case of severe mitral valve diseases (MMVD)
left ventricular dilation
59
what lesion is expected in severe pulmonary stenosis
RV concentric hypertrophy
60
which one is a congenital pericardial disease
PPDH (Peritoneopericardial hernia)
61
Which procedures should be done if a patient is suffering from ventricular arrhythmia
after an ECG?
Blood gas analysis; Abdominal US; C-troponin-I measurement; Echocardiography
62
which organ is the source of MDF
pancreas
63
what is MDF
Myocardia depressant factor; Mediator during shock that reduced the heart
contractility, constricting splanchnic arteries & impairing phagocytosis. Survival can
be improved by blocking this by using glucocorticoids, lidocaine or prostaglandins.
64
What treatment should be given to a dog with B1 level mitral endocardiosis
ACE inhibitor (enalapril); reduce salt in diet; regular BP measurement
65
what treatment should be given to a dog with B2 level mitral endocardiosis
Pimobendan
66
what treatment should be given to a dog with C/D level mitral endocardiosis
supplemental oxygen; furosemide; pimobendan; amlodipine
67
which statement is correct
During surgical scrubbing, the hands should be higher than the elbow; The sterile
instruments of which the packages are soaked should not be used; In the surgery room,
a sterile person should not let their hand hang lower than the operating table.
68
which are parts of the pathological remodelling of the heart
MHC receptor formation on the myocardial cell membranes; The macroscopic
transformation of the heart (dilation/hypertrophy); Change of the myocardial cell
function
69
which condition leads to the shift of cardiac dullness
pleural effusion
70
After physical & auxiliary examination, we diagnose mitral endocardiosis, but the
typical symptoms are not present yet. Which stage can we put the patient in?
AHA-B
71
pimobendan is
Ca channel sensitiser & phosphodiesterase inhibitor (decreases the preload;
Vasodilator; Venodilator)
72
basic therapy for endocardiosis with typical symptoms present
(treat for MMVD-C &-D)Furosemide; Potassium; Pimobendan; Supplemental oxygen
73
which corticosteroid is recommended in shock
corticosteroids are not recommended in shock
74
Which type (localisation) is typical for perineal hernia in female dogs?
perineal hernia does not happen in females (VENTRAL??)
75
The herniation/strangulation of which organ causes acute symptoms in case of
perineal hernia?
bladder
76
Which macrocyclic lactone do we use in our university clinic in complex therapy for
dogs with HWD?
moxidectin
77
typical for PRAA
Abnormal development of the aortic arch; Regurgitation; Coughing; Dyspnoea; WL
78
Which congenital heart disease is more common in female dogs?
PDA
79
in which stage of HWD can ascites occur
stage 3
80
if we increase the preload
It increases the contractility of the heat; The heart dilates; The cardiac performance
will decrease
81
in the progression of cardiac failure, a role is attributed to
Chronic activation of the RAAS and the sympathetic nervous system; Inflammatory
mediators & free radicals; Insufficient oxygen and energy supply of the cardiomyocytes
despite the increased demand
82
which mode can be used for real time 2d visualisation of myocardial structure
M-mode (forms a trace)
83
what diagnostic tests are needed for HWD screening
modified Knott test
84
suture techniques
According to the number of layers can be single layer of multiple layer; According to
apposition, can be “layer to layer”, inward turning & relaxing
85
knot tying techniques
In surgery, a knot is at least 2 opposite direction half-knots positioned on one another;
We can do a one-handed, a two-handed or an instrument tie; For a larger vessel and
tissue pack ties, using an instrument tie is safer
86
a typical symptom of haemopericardium in dogs
distal heart sounds
87
which statement is correct
The efficiency of scrubbing is primarily determined by the contact time, not the strength
of scrubbing
88
which drugs have afterload decreasing effects
Amlodipine; pimobendan; hydralazine
89
most common heart disease in dogs
mitral endocardiosis
90
most common heart disease in cats
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
91
Which surgical method is the most recommended for diaphragmatic hernia
correction?
laparotomy
92
which drugs have significant diuretic effect in small animals
furosemide; torsemide; chlorothiazide
93
spironolactone is an
ACE-I inhibitor (which prevents Angiotensin II production which would normally
narrow blood vessels) Decreases BP
94
can diaphragmatic hernia be diagnosed by ultrasound
yes
95
which is not needed for a standard echocardiographic examination
linear transducer
96
what is not typical of the PRAA surgery
circumcostal sutures for the closure of the chest
97
which plane is used to measure the left atrium to the aortic root ratio
short axis at heart base from right side
98
the most important medications to treat congestive heart failure
Pimobendan (to decrease preload); Levosimendan; Furosemide (to decrease preload);
Amlodipine (to decrease afterload)
99
which statement is true regarding feline heart worm disease
cats are occasionally infected
