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SAM > PPQ8 > Flashcards

PPQ8 Flashcards

1
Q

Which drug is given in cases of spinal injury

A

methylprednisolone

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2
Q

which statement is true

A

propofol has no antagonists

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3
Q

in patients with decreased kidney perfusion, we can give

A

propofol and inhalational anaesthetic (but not alpha2 agonists

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4
Q

which statement is false

A

general anaesthesia causes rigid muscles

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5
Q

you dont give ketamine to patients with

A

her problem; glaucoma; head trauma patients; hyperthyroidism patients

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6
Q

which statement is false

A

x-ray beams are generated in the generator (x-ray tube is correct)

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7
Q

which statement is false

A

the anode is negatively charged in the x-ray tube

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8
Q

which statement is true

A

The intensifying screen and the image receptor in the fluoroscope are made of the same
material

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9
Q

which statement is false

A

DR systems use laser scanners to read the phosphor plate

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10
Q

which statement is true

A

intensifying screens with larger crystal size require a smaller dose of radiation

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11
Q

which statement is true

A

decreasing the film object distance results in sharper image

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12
Q

which statement is true

A

yellow discolouration of the image is a result of insufficient film rinsing

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13
Q

which statement is true

A

too light images can be corrected by increasing the exposure values

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14
Q

which statement is true

A

green sensitive films are pink

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15
Q

which statement is true

A

dosimeters needs to be sent to a lab to analyse radiation exposure

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16
Q

the lead apron should contain

A

0.5mm Pb equivalent of lead rubber

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17
Q

which statement is false

A

barium sulphate can be used for urography

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18
Q

dose of BaSO4 for gastric emptying studies is

A

10-15ml/kg

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19
Q

rupture of the ureter can be examined by

A

IV contrast

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20
Q

which statement is true

A

Iodine must be given for suspected oesophageal/GI rupture because BaSO4 is
contraindicated

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21
Q

which statement is false

A

the oesophagus is visible on the survey radiograph

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22
Q

which statement is false

A

The most used negative contrast medium is BaSO4 (Not true because it is a positive
contrast medium; Air is a negative contrast medium)

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23
Q

which statement is false

A

excretory urography can be used for examination of the kidney, ureter, bladder &
urethra (false because tis contrast stops at the bladder due to the sphincter)

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24
Q

which statement is true

A

BaSO4 tends to adhere to mucosal lesions

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25
Q

which contrast is injected in to the sub arachnoid space in myelography

A

iodine

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26
Q

where can myelography can be performed

A

lumbar region and atlanto-occipital joint

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27
Q

what types of intensifying screens are known

A

CaWo4 and are rare earth screen (blue or green)

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28
Q

characteristics of laryngeal paralysis

A

old; large breed; idiopathic background

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29
Q

characteristics of feline asthma

A

Cytological & microbiological examination of BAL is highly important

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30
Q

which sign reflects the most severe acute respiratory distress (pO2<60mmHg)

A

cyanosis

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31
Q

colloid infusions

A

are used in hypovolaemia combined with crystalloids

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32
Q

canine chronic bronchitis

A

Bronchial pattern on x-ray; Mucopurulent discharge in the bronchi during
bronchoscopy; Cytology & microbiology of BAL are required

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33
Q

what does ‘atypical operation’ mean

A

An individual procedure using the whole knowledge, experience & intuition of the
surgeon

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34
Q

which arytenoid structure is anchored during CAL

A

Processus muscularis, Processus cuneifomis, Processus corniculatus

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35
Q

characteristics of aspiration pneumonia

A

Prognosis can be influenced by pH, volume & quality of the aspirated content;
Megaoesophagus or laryngeal dysfunction

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36
Q

which statement is incorrect

A

Cervical tracheal resection/anastomosis – Either interrupted or continuous stitches are
applied

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37
Q

characteristics of canine/feline bacterial pneumonia

A

its background is usually viral, foreign body or food inspiration

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38
Q

which statement is incorrect regarding midline sternotomy

A

Finochietto rib retractor or gelpi retractor is applicable

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39
Q

which of the following can you not give subcutaneously

A

injections containing glucose

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40
Q

the peripheral venous catheter

A

has a valve in the upper (coloured cap) connection part

41
Q

how long can a nasogastric tube stay for

A

5-10 days

42
Q

after perivenous injection

A

a swelling develops at the injection site

43
Q

According to the WSAVA vaccination guidelines issued in 2016, the last injection of
a puppy series is at the age of…

A

16 weeks

44
Q

which breed is congenital laryngeal paralysis common

A

Husky

45
Q

Which of the following conditions is the rhinotomy not the primarily indicated
therapy?

A

nasal adenocarcinoma

46
Q

where do we measure blood glucose in cats

A

ear vein or paw pad

47
Q

which answer is wrong? benefits of a 3 way stopcock

A

it is harder for the animal to pull out the catheter from the vein

48
Q

which parameter is most specific for DIC

A

fibrinogen

49
Q

What are typic symptoms for a riding thrombus in cats

A

paralysis of the hindlimbs; loud vocalisation; loss of femoral pulse

50
Q

what is the most reliable method of diagnosis for pneomthorax

A

thoracoscopy

51
Q

which statement is false? electrosurgery

A

the efficiency & safety of monopolar systems is better

52
Q

which statements are true? electrosurgery

A

In monopolar systems, a large surface return electrode should be placed on the
patient’s body; In monopolar systems the return electrode can cause burn wound in the
patient in case of small contact area; In forceps-like bipolar systems, there is no need
for a large-size recurrent electrode

53
Q

In case of PPDH (Peritoneopericardial hernia), which abdominal organs are often
dislocated?

A

omentum; liver; small intestines

54
Q

what can we conclude from the speed of flow during Doppler echocardiography

A

the pressure difference between the heart chambers

55
Q

which part of the stomach is usually dislocated in case of sliding (axial) hiatal hernia

A

fundus

56
Q

what lesions are expected in severe endocardiosis

A

left heart distension

57
Q

what lesions are expected in severe dilated cardiomyopathy

A

left heart distension/dilation

58
Q

what changes do you expect to find in case of severe mitral valve diseases (MMVD)

A

left ventricular dilation

59
Q

what lesion is expected in severe pulmonary stenosis

A

RV concentric hypertrophy

60
Q

which one is a congenital pericardial disease

A

PPDH (Peritoneopericardial hernia)

61
Q

Which procedures should be done if a patient is suffering from ventricular arrhythmia
after an ECG?

A

Blood gas analysis; Abdominal US; C-troponin-I measurement; Echocardiography

62
Q

which organ is the source of MDF

A

pancreas

63
Q

what is MDF

A

Myocardia depressant factor; Mediator during shock that reduced the heart
contractility, constricting splanchnic arteries & impairing phagocytosis. Survival can
be improved by blocking this by using glucocorticoids, lidocaine or prostaglandins.

64
Q

What treatment should be given to a dog with B1 level mitral endocardiosis

A

ACE inhibitor (enalapril); reduce salt in diet; regular BP measurement

65
Q

what treatment should be given to a dog with B2 level mitral endocardiosis

A

Pimobendan

66
Q

what treatment should be given to a dog with C/D level mitral endocardiosis

A

supplemental oxygen; furosemide; pimobendan; amlodipine

67
Q

which statement is correct

A

During surgical scrubbing, the hands should be higher than the elbow; The sterile
instruments of which the packages are soaked should not be used; In the surgery room,
a sterile person should not let their hand hang lower than the operating table.

68
Q

which are parts of the pathological remodelling of the heart

A

MHC receptor formation on the myocardial cell membranes; The macroscopic
transformation of the heart (dilation/hypertrophy); Change of the myocardial cell
function

69
Q

which condition leads to the shift of cardiac dullness

A

pleural effusion

70
Q

After physical & auxiliary examination, we diagnose mitral endocardiosis, but the
typical symptoms are not present yet. Which stage can we put the patient in?

A

AHA-B

71
Q

pimobendan is

A

Ca channel sensitiser & phosphodiesterase inhibitor (decreases the preload;
Vasodilator; Venodilator)

72
Q

basic therapy for endocardiosis with typical symptoms present

A

(treat for MMVD-C &-D)Furosemide; Potassium; Pimobendan; Supplemental oxygen

73
Q

which corticosteroid is recommended in shock

A

corticosteroids are not recommended in shock

74
Q

Which type (localisation) is typical for perineal hernia in female dogs?

A

perineal hernia does not happen in females (VENTRAL??)

75
Q

The herniation/strangulation of which organ causes acute symptoms in case of
perineal hernia?

A

bladder

76
Q

Which macrocyclic lactone do we use in our university clinic in complex therapy for
dogs with HWD?

A

moxidectin

77
Q

typical for PRAA

A

Abnormal development of the aortic arch; Regurgitation; Coughing; Dyspnoea; WL

78
Q

Which congenital heart disease is more common in female dogs?

A

PDA

79
Q

in which stage of HWD can ascites occur

A

stage 3

80
Q

if we increase the preload

A

It increases the contractility of the heat; The heart dilates; The cardiac performance
will decrease

81
Q

in the progression of cardiac failure, a role is attributed to

A

Chronic activation of the RAAS and the sympathetic nervous system; Inflammatory
mediators & free radicals; Insufficient oxygen and energy supply of the cardiomyocytes
despite the increased demand

82
Q

which mode can be used for real time 2d visualisation of myocardial structure

A

M-mode (forms a trace)

83
Q

what diagnostic tests are needed for HWD screening

A

modified Knott test

84
Q

suture techniques

A

According to the number of layers can be single layer of multiple layer; According to
apposition, can be “layer to layer”, inward turning & relaxing

85
Q

knot tying techniques

A

In surgery, a knot is at least 2 opposite direction half-knots positioned on one another;
We can do a one-handed, a two-handed or an instrument tie; For a larger vessel and
tissue pack ties, using an instrument tie is safer

86
Q

a typical symptom of haemopericardium in dogs

A

distal heart sounds

87
Q

which statement is correct

A

The efficiency of scrubbing is primarily determined by the contact time, not the strength
of scrubbing

88
Q

which drugs have afterload decreasing effects

A

Amlodipine; pimobendan; hydralazine

89
Q

most common heart disease in dogs

A

mitral endocardiosis

90
Q

most common heart disease in cats

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)

91
Q

Which surgical method is the most recommended for diaphragmatic hernia
correction?

A

laparotomy

92
Q

which drugs have significant diuretic effect in small animals

A

furosemide; torsemide; chlorothiazide

93
Q

spironolactone is an

A

ACE-I inhibitor (which prevents Angiotensin II production which would normally
narrow blood vessels) Decreases BP

94
Q

can diaphragmatic hernia be diagnosed by ultrasound

A

yes

95
Q

which is not needed for a standard echocardiographic examination

A

linear transducer

96
Q

what is not typical of the PRAA surgery

A

circumcostal sutures for the closure of the chest

97
Q

which plane is used to measure the left atrium to the aortic root ratio

A

short axis at heart base from right side

98
Q

the most important medications to treat congestive heart failure

A

Pimobendan (to decrease preload); Levosimendan; Furosemide (to decrease preload);
Amlodipine (to decrease afterload)

99
Q

which statement is true regarding feline heart worm disease

A

cats are occasionally infected

SAM (11 decks)

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