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Step 1 Clues > pp clues obgyn ped > Flashcards

pp clues obgyn ped Flashcards

1
Q

What does the Seminal Vesicle give to sperm?

A

Food (fructose) and clothes (semen)

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2
Q

What do the Bulbourethral = Cowper’s glands secrete?

A

Bicarbonate (neutralize lactobacilli)

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3
Q

What does the Prostate secrete?

A

“The prostate HAZ it”
Hyaluronidase Acid phosphatase

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4
Q

What is the Capacitation reaction?

A

Zn used to peel semen off

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5
Q

What is the Acrosomal reaction?

A

Sperm release enzymes to eat corona radiata

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6
Q

What is the Crystalization reaction?

A

Wall formed after 1 sperm enters (to prevent polyspermy) the egg

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7
Q

Where does Testosterone come from?

A

Adrenal gland and testicles

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8
Q

Where does DHT come from?

A

Testicles (at puberty)

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9
Q

What is a Pseudohermaphrodite?

A

External genitalia problem; does not match genotype

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10
Q

What is a True Hermaphrodite?

A

internal genitalia problem => has both sexes’ genitalia

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11
Q

What is a Female Hermaphrodite?

A

Impossible b/c the default is female

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12
Q

What is a Female Pseudohermaphrodite?

A

XX with low 21-OHase
=> high testosterone

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13
Q

What is a Male Hermaphrodite?

A

XY with no MIF

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14
Q

What is a Male Pseudohermaphrodite?

A

XY that has low 17-OHase => low testosterone

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15
Q

What is Hirsuitism?

A

Hairy

Hi testoterone

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16
Q

What is Virilization?

A

female child with male sexual charcateristic

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17
Q

What is Testicular Feminization = Androgen Insensitivity

A

Bad DHT receptor w/ blind pouch vagina

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18
Q

What is McCune-Albright?

A

Precocious sexual development, polyostotic fibrous dysplasia “whorls of CT”, “Coast of Maine” pigmented skin macules

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19
Q

What is Cryptochordism?

A

Testes never descended => sterility after 15mo, seminomas

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20
Q

Which stage of the menstrual cycle has the highest estrogen levels?

A

Follicular stage (has
proliferative endothelium)

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21
Q

What stage of the menstrual cycle has the highest temperature?

A

Ovulatory stage

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22
Q

What stage of the menstrual cycle has the highest progesterone levels?

A

Luteal stage (has secretory endothelium)

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23
Q

What form of estrogen is highest at menopause?

A

E1: Estrone (made by fat)

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24
Q

What form of estrogen is highest in middle-age females?

A

E2: Estradiol (made by ovaries)

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25
Q

What form of estrogen is highest at pregnancy?

A

E3: Estriol (made by placenta)

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26
Q

What states have increased estrogen?

A

Pregnancy, liver failure, p450 inhibition, obesity

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27
Q

What is Adenomyosis?

A

Growth of endometrium 􏰇myometrium, enlarged “boggy” uterus w/ cystic areas

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28
Q

What does DES taken by Mom cause in her daughter?

A

􏰍 Adenomyosis–>menorrhagia
->Clear Cell CA of the vagina
-> Recurrent abortions from cervical
incompetence

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29
Q

What is Kallman’s syndrome?

A

No GnRH, anosmia (can’t smell)

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30
Q

What is Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome?

A

^Cysts: no ovulation-> progesterone
(^ endometrial CA) ->can’t inhibit LH, obese, hairy, acne

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31
Q

What is Savage’s syndrome?

A

Ovarian resistance to FSH/LH

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32
Q

What is Turner’s syndrome (XO)?

A

High FSH, low estrodiol( E2), ovarian dysgenesis

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33
Q

What does the Progesterone challenge test tell you?

A

Bleeds => she has estrogen
Not bleed => she has no E2 or ovaries
^FSH->Ovary problem
low FSH->pituitary problem

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34
Q

What is Sheehan syndrome?

A

Post-partum hemorrhage->pituitary, hyperplasia infarcts ->no lactation

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35
Q

What is Asherman’s syndrome?

A

Previous D&C ->uterine scars

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36
Q

What is Oligomenorrhea?

A

Too few periods

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37
Q

What is Polymenorrhea?

A

Too many periods

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38
Q

mcc of post- coital vaginal bleeding?

A

Cervical cancer

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39
Q

What is the most common cause of post- coital vaginal bleeding in pregnant women?

A

Placenta previa

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40
Q

mcc of vaginal bleeding in post-
menopause women?

A

Endometrial cancer

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41
Q

What is Dysmenorrhea?

mcc of teenage seeing a doctor

A

PG-F causes painful menstrual cramps (teenagers miss school/work)

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42
Q

What is Endometriosis?

A

Painful cyclical heavy menstrual bleeding
=> “powder burns, chocolate cysts” due to ectopic endometrial tissue

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43
Q

What is Kleine regnung?

A

Scant bleeding at ovulation

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44
Q

What is Menorrhagia?

A

Heavy menstrual bleeding

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45
Q

What is Fibroids = Leiomyoma?

A

Benign uterus SM tumor
-> Submucosal type => bleeding
-> Subserosal type => pain

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46
Q

What is Metrorrhagia?

A

Bleeding or spotting in between periods

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47
Q

What is Mittelschmerz?

A

Pain at ovulation

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48
Q

What causes Syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum (spirochete)

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49
Q

What is Herpes?

A

ds DNA virus

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50
Q

What is HPV?

A

ds DNA virus

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51
Q

What is Chlamydia?

A

Obligate intracellular parasite

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52
Q

What causes Gonorrhea?

A

Gram – diplococcus

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53
Q

What causes Chancroid?

A

H. ducreyi

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54
Q

What causes
Lymphogranuloma Venereum?

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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55
Q

What causes Granuloma Inguinale?

A

C. granulomatosis

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56
Q

What causes Epididymitis?

A

Chlamydia or GC

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57
Q

What is Condyloma Lata?

A

Flat fleshy warts, ulcerate, 2° Syphilis

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58
Q

What is Condyloma Accuminata?

A

Verrucous “cauliflower” warts, koilocytes, HPV 6,11

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59
Q

How does Herpes present?

A

1°: Painful grouped vesicles on red base 2°: Painful solitary lesion

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60
Q

How does Syphilis present?

A

1°: Painless chancre (1-6 wks)
2°: Rash, condyloma lata (6 wks)
3°: Neuro, cardio, bone (6yrs)

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61
Q

How does Chancroid present?

A

Painful w/ necrotic center, Gram –rod, “school of fish” pattern

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62
Q

How does Lymphogranuloma Venereum present?

A

Painless ulcers→abscessed nodes→
genital elephantiasis

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63
Q

How does Granuloma Inguinale present?

A

Spreading ulcer, Donovan
bodies, granulation test

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64
Q

How does Chlamydia present?

in females

A

Cervicitis (yellow pus), conjunctivitis, PID

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65
Q

How does Gonorrhea present?

A

purulent urethral discharge
(yellow-green)
dysuria
arthritis,
cervicitis
PID
Palmer rash

purulent yellow malodor discharge
perihepatitis

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66
Q

What is Epididymitis?

A

Unilateral scrotal pain decreased by support

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67
Q

What causes Congenital blindness?

A

CMV

HHV-5-owl eye
ganciclovir

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68
Q

What causes Neonatal blindness?

A

Chlamydia

azithromycin

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69
Q

What is Lichen simplex chronicus?

A

Raised white lesions, chronic scratching in vulva

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70
Q

What is Lichen sclerosis?

A

Paper-like vulva, itching, cancer risk

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71
Q

What is Hidradenoma?

A

Sweat gland cysts

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72
Q

T(ToRCHes)

What causes non-bacterial fetal infections?

T (TORCHes)

A

“TORCHeS”
=>Toxoplasma: multiple ring-enhancing lesions,
cat
urine,
parietal lobe Others

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73
Q

R

ToRCHeS

A

=>Rubella: cataracts,
hearing loss,
persistant PDA,
meningoencephalitis,
pneumonia,
“blueberry muffin” rash

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74
Q

C

ToRCHeS

DS dna virus

A

=>CMV: spastic diplegia of legs,
hepatosplenomegaly,
blindness,
central calcifications

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75
Q

H

ToRCHeS

A

=>HSV-2: temporal lobe hemorrhagic
encephalitis,

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76
Q

S

ToRCHeS

A

=>Syphilis: Rhagade’s (lip fissure),
saber
shin legs,
Hutchison’s razor teeth,
mulberry molars,
saddle nose

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77
Q

What is Paget’s disease of the breast?

A

Rash and ulcer around nipple, breast cancer

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78
Q

What is Lobular carcinoma?

A

Cells line up single file, contralateral primary

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79
Q

What is a Comedocarcinoma?

A

Multiple focal areas of necrosis, “blackheads”

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80
Q

What is Inflammatory carcinoma?

A

Infiltrates lymphatics, pulls on Cooper’s ligaments,“peau d’orange”

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81
Q

What is Cystosarcoma phylloides?

A

“Exploding mushroom”, firm, rubbery, moveable,good prognosis

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82
Q

What is Intraductal papilloma?

A

Nipple bleeding

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83
Q

What is Ductal carcinoma?

A

Worst prognosis breast cancer

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84
Q

What is Sarcoma Botyroides?

A

Vagina cancer, ball of grapes appearance

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85
Q

What is a Sister Mary Joseph Nodule?

A

Ovarian CA spread to umbilicus

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86
Q

What is Meig’s syndrome?

A

Pleural effusion, ovarian fibroma, ascites

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87
Q

What are the side effects of estrogen?

A

Weight gain, breast tenderness, nausea,

relaxation

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88
Q

What are the side effects of progesterone?

A

Acne, depression, HTN

increase apetite, aggressive, polycythemia

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89
Q

Why do pregnant women get anemia?

A

Dilutional effect; RBC rises 30% but volume rises 50%

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90
Q

What are the degrees of vaginal lacerations?

A

1st Degree: Skin
2nd Degree: Muscle
3rd Degree: Anus
4th Degree: Rectum

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91
Q

What is Vernix?

A

Cheesy baby skin

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92
Q

What is Meconium?

A

Green baby poop

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93
Q

What is Lochia?

A

Endometrial slough

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94
Q

What is normal blood loss
during a vaginal delivery?

A

500mL

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95
Q

What is normal blood loss during a C- section?

A

1L

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96
Q

How do you treat A1 Gestational DM?

A

Diet

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97
Q

How do you treat A2 Gestational DM?

A

Insulin

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98
Q

What are identical twins?

A

Egg split into perfect halves “monochorionic”

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99
Q

What are fraternal twins?

A

Multiple eggs fertilized by different sperm

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100
Q

What is Ovarian
Hyperstimulation Syndrome?

A

Weight gain and enlarged ovaries after clomiphene use

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101
Q

Who makes the Trophoblast?

A

Baby

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102
Q

Who makes the Cytotrophoblast?

A

Mom => GnRH, CRH, TRH, Inhibin

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103
Q

Who makes the Syncitotrophoblast?

A

Mom and baby => HCG, HPL

104
Q

When does implantation occur?

A

1 week after fertilization

105
Q

When is β-HCG found in urine?

A

2 weeks after fertilization

106
Q

What is the function of Estrogen?

A

Muscle relaxant,
constipation
↑protein production
irritability
varicose veins

107
Q

What is the function of Progesterone?

A

↑appetite,
↑acne,
dilutional anemia,
quiescent uterus,
pica,
hypoTN,
melasma

108
Q

What makes progesterone <10wk gestation?

A

Corpus luteum

109
Q

What makes progesterone >10wk gestation?

A

Placenta

110
Q

What is the function of β-HCG?

A

Maintains corpus luteum,
sensitizes TSHr
=> act hyperthyroid (to ↑BMR)

111
Q

What makes β-HCG?

A

Placenta

112
Q

How fast should β-HCG rise?

A

Doubles every 2 days until 10 wks (when placenta is fully formed)

113
Q

What is the function of AFP?

A

Regulates fetal intravascular volume

114
Q

What is the function of HPL?

A

Blocks insulin receptors => sugar stays high (baby’s stocking up on stuff needed for the journey)

insulin resistance gestational diabetes

115
Q

What is the function of Inhibin?

A

Inhibits FSH => no menstruation

116
Q

What is the function of Oxytocin?

A

Milk ejection, baby ejection

117
Q

What is the function of Cortisol in pregnancy?

A

Decreases immune rejection of baby, lung maturation

118
Q

What are the thyroid hormone levels during pregnancy?

A

↑TBG => ↑bound T4, normal free T4 levels
↑Total T4

119
Q

When can you first detect fetal heart tones?

A

Week 20

120
Q

When can you tell the sex of a fetus
by US?

A

Week 16

121
Q

What does an AFI <5 indicate?

A

Oligohydramnios (cord compression)

122
Q

What does an AFI >20 indicate?

A

Polyhydramnios (DM)

123
Q

How fast should fundal height change?

A

Uterus grows 1cm/wk

124
Q

What is the Pool Test?

A

Fluid in vagina

125
Q

What is Ferning?

A

Estrogen crystallizes on slide

126
Q

What is Nitrazine?

A

Shows presence of amniotic fluid

127
Q

What is the risk of chorionic
villus sampling?

A

Fetal limb defects

128
Q

What is the risk of amniocentesis?

A

Abortion (2% risk)

129
Q

What is a normal biophysical profile?

ultrasound

A

8-10

130
Q

What is a biophysical profile?

A

“Test the Baby, MAN!”
Tones of the heart
Breathing
Movement: BPD, HC, AC, FL
AFI
Non-stress test (normal = “reactive”)

131
Q

What pelvis types are better for vaginal delivery?

A

Gynecoid, anthropoid

132
Q

What pelvis types will need C/S?

A

Platypelloid, android

133
Q

How do you predict a due date with Nägele’s Rule?

A

9 months from last menses →add 1 wk

134
Q

Why is Nägele’s Rule inaccurate?

A

B/c it does not start from ovulation date

135
Q

How do you correct Nägele’s Rule for cycles >28 days?

A

Add x days if cycle is x longer

136
Q

How much weight should a pregnant woman gain?

A

1lb/wk

137
Q

When should intercourse be avoided during pregnancy?

A

3rd trimester b/c PG-F in semen may cause uterine contractions

138
Q

What are the Leopold maneuvers?

A

1) Feel fundus
2) Feel baby’s back
3) Feel pelvic inlet
4) Feel baby’s head

139
Q

What is Stage I of labor?

A

Up to full dilation
1) Latent Phase (<20h): Contractions →4 cm cervical dilation
Active Phase (<12h): 4-10 cm cervical dilation (1cm/ hr)

140
Q

What is Stage II of labor?

A

Full dilation →delivery
Station 0: Baby above pelvic rim (most uteri are anteverted)
1. Engage
2. Descend
3. Flex head
4. Internal rotation
5. Extend head
6. Externally rotate
7. Expulsion: LOA most common
presentation

141
Q

What is Stage III of labor?

A

Delivery of placenta (due to PG-F) Bloodgush→cordlengthens→fundus firms

142
Q

How do you monitor baby’s HR?

A

Doppler, scalp electrode

143
Q

How do you monitor uterus?

A

Tocodynamics, uterine pressure catheter

144
Q

What Bishop’s score predicts delivery will be soon?

A

> 8

145
Q

What are Braxton-Hicks contractions?

A

Irregular contractions w/ closed cervix

146
Q

What is a Vertex presentation?

A

Posterior fontanel (triangle shape) presents first, normal

147
Q

What is a Sinciput presentation?

A

Anterior fontanel (diamond shape) presents first

148
Q

What is a Face presentation?

A

Mentum anterior →forceps delivery

149
Q

What is a Compound presentation?

A

Arm or hand on head →vaginal delivery

150
Q

What is a Complete breech?

A

Butt down, thighs and legs flexed

151
Q

What is a Frank breech?

A

Butt down, thigh flexed, legs extended (~pancake)

152
Q

What is a Footling breech?

A

Butt down, thigh flexed, one toe is sticking out of cervical os

153
Q

What is a Double Footling breech?

A

Two feet sticking out of cervical os

154
Q

What is a Transverse Lie?

A

Head is on one side, butt on the other

155
Q

What is Shoulder Dystocia?

A

Head out, shoulder stuck

156
Q

Can you try vaginal delivery on a woman who has had a Classic Horizontal C/S previously?

A

No, must have C/S for all future pregnancies

157
Q

Can you try vaginal delivery on a woman who has had a Low Transverse C/S previously?

A

Yes

158
Q

What is early deceleration?

A

Normal, due to head compression

159
Q

What is late deceleration?

A

Uteroplacental insufficiency b/c placenta can’t provide O2/nutrients

160
Q

What is variable deceleration?

A

Cord compression

161
Q

What is increased beat-to- beat variability?

A

Fetal hypoxemia

162
Q

What is decreased beat-to- beat variability?

A

Acidemia

163
Q

What is Pre-eclampsia?

A

Ischemia to placenta => HTN (>140/90)

164
Q

What is the treatment for Pre- eclampsia?

A

Delivery

165
Q

What is HELLP syndrome?

A

Hepatic injury causing:
* Hemolysis
* Elevated Liver enzymes
* Low Platelets

166
Q

What is Eclampsia?

A

HTN + seizures

167
Q

What are the symptoms of eclampsia?

A

H/A, changes in vision, epigastric pain

168
Q

What is the treatment for eclampsia?

A

4mg Mg sulfate as seizure prophylaxis

169
Q

What is Chorioamnionitis?

A

Fever, uterine tenderness, ↓fetal HR

170
Q

What are the symptoms of
Amniotic Fluid Emboli?

A

Mom just delivered baby and has SOB → PE, death (amniotic fluid →lungs)

171
Q

What is Endometritis?

A

Post-partum uterine tenderness

172
Q

What is an incomplete
molar pregnancy?

A

2 sperm + 1 egg (69, XXY), has embryo parts

173
Q

What is a complete molar pregnancy?

A

2 sperm + no egg (46, XX – both paternal), no embryo

174
Q

What is Pseudocyesis?

A

Fake pregnancy w/ all the signs and symptoms

175
Q

What is the most common cause of 1st trimester maternal death?

A

Ectopic pregnancy

176
Q

What is the most common cause of 1st trimester spontaneous abortions?

A

Chromosomal abnormalities

177
Q

What are the most common causes of 3rd trimester spontaneous abortions?

A

Anti-cardiolipin Ab, placenta problems, infection, incompetent cervix

178
Q

What is a threatened abortion?

A

Cervix closed, baby intact (Tx: bed rest)

179
Q

What is an inevitable abortion?

A

Cervix open, baby intact (Tx: cerclage = sew cervix shut until term)

180
Q

What is an incomplete abortion?

A

Cervix open, fetal remnants (Tx: D&C to prevent placenta infection)

181
Q

What is a complete abortion?

A

Cervix open, no fetal remnants (Test: β- HCG)

182
Q

What is a missed abortion?

A

Cervix closed, no fetal remnants (Tx: D&C)

183
Q

What is a septic abortion?

A

Fever >100°F, malodorous discharge

184
Q

What is Placenta Previa?

A

Post-coital bleeding, placenta covers cervical os; ruptures placental arteries

185
Q

What is Vasa Previa?

A

Placenta aa. hang out of cervix

186
Q

What is Placenta Accreta?

A

Placenta attached to superficial lining

187
Q

What is Placenta Increta?

A

Placenta invades into myometrium

188
Q

What is Placenta Percreta?

A

Placenta perforates through myometrium

189
Q

What is Placenta Abruptio?

A

Severe pain, premature separation
of placenta

190
Q

What is Velamentous Cord Insertion?

A

Fetal vessels insert between chorion and amnion

191
Q

What is a Uterus Rupture?

A

Tearing sensation, halt of delivery

192
Q

What is an Apt test?

A

Detects HbF in vagina

193
Q

What is Wright’s stain?

A

Detects nucleated fetal RBC in Mom’s vagina

194
Q

What is a Kleihauer-Betke test?

A

Detects percentage of fetal blood in maternal circulation (dilution test)

195
Q

What is maternity blues?

A

Post-partum crying, irritability

196
Q

What is post-partum depression?

A

Depression >2wks

197
Q

What is post-partum psychosis?

A

Hallucinations, suicidal, infanticidal

198
Q

What are the newborn screening tests?

A

“Please Check BBefore Going HHome”*
PKU
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Biotinidase,
β-thalassemia
Galactosemia
Hypothyroidism
Homocystinuria

199
Q

What is VATER syndrome?

A

Vertebral abnormality Anal
TE fistula
Renal

200
Q

What is an average IQ?

A

85-100

201
Q

What are the most common causes of mental retardation in the US?

A

EtOH, Fragile X, Down’s

202
Q

calculate IQ

A

(mental age/chronological age)100

203
Q

What is Rubeola also known as?

A

Measles

SSPE:Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

204
Q

What is Rubella also known as?

A

German measles
3day measles

R in ToRCHeS infection

205
Q

What is the APGAR test?

A

Test at 1 and 5min (normal>7)
Appearance (color)
Pulse
Grimace
Activity
Respiration

206
Q

What is the most common eye infection the first day of life?

A

Clear discharge due to silver nitrate

207
Q

What is the most common eye infection the first week of life?

A

Gonorrhea => purulent discharge

208
Q

What is the most common eye infection the second week of life?

A

Chlamydia

209
Q

What is the most common eye infection the third week of life?

A

Herpes

210
Q

What are the causes of Hyperbilirubinemia?

A

Sepsis, ABO incompatibility, hypothyroidism, breastfeeding

211
Q

What is the cause of symmetrically small babies?

A

Chromosomal abnormality or TORCHS

212
Q

What is the cause of asymmetrically small babies?

A

Poor blood supply spares brain => small body, normal head

213
Q

What is the cause of large babies?

A

DM or twin-twin transfusions

214
Q

What is Milia?

A

Neonatal whiteheads on malar area

215
Q

What is Nevus Flammeus?

A

“Stork bites” on back of neck, look like flames

216
Q

What is Seborrheic Dermatitis?

A

Red rash w/oily skin and dry flaky hairline

217
Q

What are Hemangiomas?

A

mc benign bld vessel tumor
Flat blood vessels

218
Q

What are Mongolian spots?

A

Melanocytes on lower back

219
Q

What is Erythema Toxicum?

A

White vesicle on red area, has eosinophils

220
Q

What is Subgaleal Hemorrhage?

A

Prolonged jaundice in newborns due
to birthing trauma

221
Q

What is Caput Succedaneum?

A

Bleeding under scalp (edema crosses suture lines)

222
Q

What is Cephalohematoma?

A

Bleeding under bone (blood not cross suture lines)

223
Q

What is an Epstein’s pearl?

A

White pearls on hard palate

224
Q

What is persistent eye drainage
since birth usually due to?

A

Blocked duct

225
Q

What are wide sutures due to?

A

Hypothyroidism, Down’s

226
Q

What causes a Cleft Lip?

A

Medial nasal prominence did not fuse

227
Q

What causes a Cleft Palate?

A

Maxillary shelves did not fuse

228
Q

What is the most common cause of
no red reflex?

A

Cataracts

229
Q

What is the most common cause
of a white reflex?

A

Retinoblastoma

look for osteosarcoma

230
Q

What is the sign of a Clavicle Fracture?

newborn

A

Asymmetric Moro reflex

231
Q

What is an Omphalocele?

A

intestines protrude out of the umbilicus covered by the peritoneum

232
Q

What is Dysfunctional Uterine Bleeding?

A

Diagnosis of exclusion, usually
due to anovulation

233
Q

What is Chronic Pelvic Pain?

A

Endometriosis until proven otherwise

234
Q

What is Gastrochesis?

A

Abdominal wall defect, off-center

235
Q

What is a Nephroblastoma?

A

Kidney “Wilm’s” tumor, hemihypertrophy, aniridia

236
Q

What is a Neuroblastoma?

A

Adrenal medulla tumor, hypsarrthymia, opsoclonus, ↑VMA

237
Q

What is Polyhydramnios?

A

Too much amniotic fluid, baby can’t swallow

238
Q

What are the most common causes of Polyhydramnios?

A

NM problem: Werdnig-Hoffman
GI problem: Duodenal atresia

239
Q

What is Oligohydramnios?

A

Too little amniotic fluid, baby can’t pee

240
Q

What are the most common causes of Oligohydramnios?

A

Abd muscle problem: Prune Belly Renal agenesis: Potter’s syndrome

241
Q

What is Fifth disease?

A

Erythema infectiosum “slapped cheeks”, arthritis in mom, aplastic anemia

B19, hydrop fetalis,
infect stem cell: proerythrocyte

242
Q

What is Sixth disease?

HHV 6/7

A

Roseola, exanthema subitum (fever disappears, then rash appears)

complication: Febrile siezure and encephalitis

243
Q

What is Hand-Foot-Mouth disease?

A

Mouth ulcers => won’t eat or drink, palm/sole rash, Coxsackie A virus

244
Q

What is Measles = Rubeola?

A

1) Cough, Coryza, Conjunctivitis
2) Koplik spot
3) Morbilliform blotchy rash

SSPE

245
Q

What is Molloscum Contagiosum?

A

Flesh-colored papules w/ central dimple

DNA Poxvirus

246
Q

What is Mumps?

linear envelope ssRNA nonsegmented virus

A

Parotiditis => red Stenson’s duct

double transmission paramyxovirus

247
Q

What is Otitis Media?

A

Middle ear infection

S. pneumoniae [4]
Haemophilus influenzae [7]
Moraxella catarrhalis

248
Q

What is Pityriasis Rosea?

A

Herald patch → migrates along skin lines “C-mass tree” appearance

249
Q

What is Rubella = German 3- day measles?

togavirus- env +ssRNA

A

Trunk rash, lymphadenopathy behind ears, don’t look sick

250
Q

How is Smallpox different from Chickenpox?

A

Smallpox is on face, same stage of development, fever

251
Q

What is Varicella = Chickenpox?

A

1) Red macule
2) Clear vesicle on red dot
3) Pustule
4) Scab

252
Q

What is Zellweger syndrome

cerebrohepatorenal syndrome

A

Neonatal seizures

PEX gene: impaired peroxisome synthesis

253
Q

What is the most common cause of delayed speech development?

A

Hearing loss

254
Q

What are the signs of child abuse?

A

*Multiple ecchymoses
* Retinal hemorrhage
* Epidural/Subdural hemorrhage
* Spiral fractures (twisted)
* Multiple fractures in different healing
stages

255
Q

What should you rule out when child abuse is suspected?

A
  • Osteogenesis imperfecta
  • Bleeding disorders
  • Fifth disease
  • Mongolian spots
256
Q

Treatment for hypertension before pregnancy n 12 weeks postpartum

A

Lebetalol: B-blocker
Nifedipine: Ca++ blocker
Methyldopa: alpha2 agonist
Hydralazine: incr cGMP

257
Q

pregnant HTN treatment with dihydropyridines causes

A

Skin flush, swelling of low extremity, constipation….ca+ blocking effect.

Step 1 Clues (27 decks)

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