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Step 1 Clues > Micro > Flashcards

Micro Flashcards

1
Q

How do you know it’s an anaerobe?

A

Gas, bad odor

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2
Q

What bug causes Acute Bacterial Endocarditis?

A

Staph aureus (attacks healthy valves)

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3
Q

What bug causes Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis?

A

Strep viridans (attacks damaged valves)

Optochin-resistant
Bile-insoluble

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4
Q

How do you diagnose Rheumatic Fever?

A

Subcutaneous nodules
Polyarthritis
Erythema Marginatum (red margins)
Chorea (Sydenham’s)
Carditis (MS > AS > TS) “MAT”

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5
Q

Etiology of Rheumatic Fever

PYR, bacitricin sensitive

A

Group A- B-Hemolytic Strep (GAS)

Streptococcus pyogenes

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6
Q

what is Aschoff bodies

rheumatic heart disease

A

Granuloma of rheumatic inflammation.
*fibrinoid necrosis
*type IV hypersensitivity

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7
Q

What are the only Gram – diplococci

A

Neisseria

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8
Q

What is the only Gram + diplococci?

capsule

A

Strep pneumo

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9
Q

Heart block bugs

A

Diptheria
Chaga’s dz
Typhoid fever(salmonella)
Legionella
Lymes dz

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10
Q

What are the IgA protease bugs?

A

Strep pneumo.
H. influenza
Neisseria catt.

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11
Q

What do the IgA protease bugs cause?

A

Sinusitis,
otitis media,
pneumonia,
bronchitis

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12
Q

What are the simple Gram – bugs?

A

“simple HE”

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13
Q

What are the atypical (no cell wall) bacteria?

A

“CLUMsy”
Chlamydia

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14
Q

What is the only Gram + endotoxin

A

Listeria

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15
Q

What are the Gram – exotoxins

A

H. influenza, Bordetella pertussis

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16
Q

What are the spore forming Gram + bacteria?

A

Bacillus anthracis,
Clostridium botulinum

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17
Q

What bugs cause walking pneumonia? By age group

A

“Come My Love for a walk”
0-2 yo: Chlamydia pn.
10- 30y: Mycoplasma pn. >40 y:
40+ : Legionella pn.
AIDS/Premies: Pneumo carinii

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18
Q

Gram-pos bacilli

A

Listeria
Corynebacterium Dip
Bacillus

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19
Q

What causes Cryoglobulinemia

A

“I Am HE”
Influenza
Adenovirus
Mycoplasma
Hep B, C
EBV

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20
Q

What are the Silver Stainers?

A

H. pylori
Listeria
Vibrio
Campylobacter
PJP

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21
Q

What bacteria cause diarrhea <8hrs after introduction

A

“CBS”
Clostridium
Bacillus cereus
Staph aureus

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22
Q

What are the Gram – capsules?

A

“Some Killers Have Pretty Nice Capsules”
Salmonella
Klebsiella
H. influenza B
Pseudomonas
Neisseria
Citrobacter

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23
Q

What is the Gram + capsule?

A

Strep pneumo

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24
Q

What are the Urease + bugs?

A

“Urease PPUNCH”
Proteus
Pseudomonas
Ureaplasma
Nocardia
Cryptococcus
H. Pylori

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25
Q

What bugs cause Monocytosis?

A

“STELS”
Syphilis
TB
EBV
Listeria
Salmonella

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26
Q

What are the Big Mama Anaerobes?

A

Bacteroides fragilis
Strep. bovis
C. melangosepticus

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27
Q

What bacteria cause UTIs and prostatitis

A

E. coli
Proteus
Klebsiella
Pseudomonas

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28
Q

What bug is associated w/ cat scratch?

A

Bartonella henselae

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29
Q

What bug is associated w/ cat saliva?

A

Pasturella multocida

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30
Q

What bug is associated w/ cat pee?

A

Toxoplasmosis

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31
Q

What bug is associated w/ cat caca?

A

Toxacara cati

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32
Q

What diseases are caused by the Ixodes Tick?

A

*Lyme disease – bull’s eye lesion
*Babesiosis – hemolytic anemia
*Ehrlichiosis – puncture near the eye

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33
Q

What bugs cause hospital abscesses?

A

*Day 1-3: Staph aureus – lots of O2
*Day 4-7: Strep viridans – no enzymes
*Day >7: Anaerobes – PMNs

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34
Q

What kind of patients does Staph and Pseudomonas like to attack

A

DM
Cystic fibrosis pts
Burn pts
Neutropenic pts

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35
Q

What diseases have granulomas?

A

TB
Sarcoidosis
Syphilis
Histiocytosis X
The -ellas

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36
Q

What diseases provide malaria protection?

A

Sickle cell: AAs G-6PD: Mediterranean

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37
Q

What bug causes multiple liver abscesses?

A

Entamoeba histolytica

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38
Q

What bug causes multiple cerebral abscesses?

citris producing

A

Citrobacter

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39
Q

What has multiple lung aneurysms?

A

Osler-Weber-Rendu

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40
Q

What bugs cause Loeffler syndrome?

A

“NASSA”
Necator americanus
Ancylstoma duodenale
Schistosomiasis
Strongyloides
Ascaris lumbricoides

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41
Q

What is the sign of Loeffler syndrome?

A

Pulmonary eosinophilia

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42
Q

What is PIE syndrome?

A

Pulmonary Infiltrate w/ Eosinophilia

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43
Q

What diseases have PIE syndrome?

A

Aspergillus, Loeffler’s, Churg-Strauss

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44
Q

What disease does Coxsackie A

A

Hand-Foot-Mouth disease

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45
Q

What diseases does Coxsackie B

A

Endocarditis, DM type 1

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46
Q

What bugs cause Meningitis?

A

0-2 mo: “baby BEL”*
Group B Strep
E. coli
Listeria

> 2mo: Strep pneumo

> 10-21y/o: N. meningitidis

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47
Q

What are the CSF lab values for Meningitis

A

PMNs –>bacterial
T cell/MP–>non-bacterial
Normal glucose–>viral

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48
Q

What does the Hep B Core Ag tell you?

A

Gone before pt has symptoms (2 mo)

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49
Q

What does the Core Ab tell you?

A

Past infection

core Ab=IgG

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50
Q

What does the Surface Ag tell you?

A

Current infection

Surface Ag= IgM

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51
Q

What does the Surface Ab tell you?

A

Vaccination has occurred

Surface Ab= IgG to vaccine

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52
Q

What does the E Ag tell you?

A

Transmissibility/ infectivity

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53
Q

What does the E Ab tell you?

A

Low transmissibility

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54
Q

What antibody shows current Hep A infection?

A

IgM

surface antigen

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55
Q

What antibody shows past Hep A infection?

A

IgG

core Ab

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56
Q

What type of people does Hep E like to infect?

A

Pregnant women, Asians

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57
Q

What is associated w/ Staph aureus?
Enymes and conditions

A

Cellulitis, dairy products, gold pigment, endocarditis, styes, hordeolum (on eyelid)

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58
Q

What is conditions associated w/ Strep pyogenes?

A

“LINES”, ASO, hyaluronic acid capsule

Lymphangitis
Impetigo
Necrotizing Fasciitis
Erysipelas
Scarlet fever

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59
Q

What is associated w/ Staph epidermidis?

A

Central lines, VP shunts, white pigment

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60
Q

What is associated w/ Propionibacterium acnes?

A

Acne, progesterone => propionic acid

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61
Q

What is associated w/ Pasteurella Multocida?

A

Cat/dog saliva => cellulitis w/ lymphadenitis

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62
Q

What is associated w/ Staph saprophyticus?

A

Female UTIs, honeymooner’s cystitis

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63
Q

What is associated w/ Hemophilus aegyptus?

A

Swollen eyeball w/ pus

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64
Q

What is associated w/ Francisella tularensis?

A

Ulcers at rabbit or deer tick bite site
(Tx: Streptomycin)

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65
Q

What is associated w/ Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

Otitis externa,
icthyma granulosum,
loves rubber,
whirlpool folliculitis,
ADP ribosylates EF-2

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66
Q

What is associated w/ Streptococcus pneumoniae?

A

Otitis media, red bulging tympanic membrane

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67
Q

What is associated w/ Fusobacterium?

A

Painful mouth ulcers, gum pus, Vincent’s angina

Vincent’s angina: Pharyngitis and tonsilitis

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68
Q

What is associated w/ Strep mutans

A

Dental cavities

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69
Q

What is associated w/ Strep viridans?

A

Subacute bacterial endocarditis, green pigment

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70
Q

What is associated w/ Strep salivarius?

A

Cold agglutinin test

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71
Q

What is associated w/ Strep pyogenes?

A

Rheumatic fever, strain 12 => PSGN

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72
Q

What is associated w/ Group C strep?

A

Pharyngitis

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73
Q

What is associated w/ Cornybacterium diptheriae?

A

Chinese letters,
gray pseudomembrane, suffocations,
ADP ribosylates EF2,
heart block,
Elek test

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74
Q

What is associated w/ Strep pneumonia?

A

Gram + diplococci, rusty sputum, IgA protease, vaccine covers 23 strains

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75
Q

What is associated w/ H. influenza?

A

Gram – pleomorphic rod,

Factors V/X,

5C-ribose capsule,

B-type: meningitis, epiglottitis, sepsis

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76
Q

What is associated w/ N. catarrhalis?

A

loves mucus–> attacks respiratory tract

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77
Q

What is associated w/ Chlamydia psittaci?

A

Parakeets, parrots

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78
Q

What is associated w/ Chlamydia pneumonia?

A

Staccato coughing, elementary and reticulate bodies

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79
Q

Primary CNS lymphoma with a single cerebral ring-enhancing lesion in immunocompromised ppl

A

EBV

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80
Q

EBV characteristics

A

Envelope ds linear DNA virus

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81
Q

Primary cns lymphoma, new unset of seizure, single ring enhancing lesion

A

EBV in (AIDS, transplant pt…)

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82
Q

Adenovirus characteristic

A

Non envelope ds linear dna

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83
Q

Localized warm, tender, erythema, swollen, Xrays: perioesteal elevation

Dx, Bug, enzyme used

A

Osteomyelitis: staphylococcus using collagenase, hyaluronadase, lecithenase

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84
Q

What is associated w/ Mycoplasma pneumonia?

A

Bullous myringitis, ground-glass CXR, P1 protein, erythema multiforme

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85
Q

What is associated w/ Legionella pneumonia?

A

AC ducts, silver stains lung, CYEA, Pontiac fever, Legionnaire’s pneumonia

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86
Q

What is associated w/ Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia?

A

AIDS/premies, rusty sputum, silver stains lung, (Tx: steroids)

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87
Q

What is associated w/ Clostridium botulinum?

A

Canned food, honey, inhibits ACh release, resp failure, stool toxin (Tx: Penicillin

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88
Q

What is associated w/ Clostridium tetani?

A

Rusty nail wounds, inhibits Gly release, resp failure, risus sardonicus, tennis racquet shape

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89
Q

What is associated w/ Bordetella pertussis?

A

Whooping cough, ADP ribosylates Gi

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90
Q

What is associated w/ Bacillus anthracis?

A

Black eschar, woolsorter’s lung disease, D- Glu, boxcar-like spore (Tx: Ciprofloxacin)

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91
Q

What is associated w/ H. Pylori?

A

Duodenal ulcers

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92
Q

What is associated w/ Salmonella

A

Raw chicken & eggs, turtles, rose typhoid
spots, H2S, sickle cell osteomyelitis

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93
Q

What is associated w/ Campylobacter jejuni?

A

Raw chicken & eggs, very bloody diarrhea, inactivated by gastric juice, Guillane-Barre, seagull-shape

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94
Q

What is associated w/ Clostridium perfringens?

A

Holiday ham & turkey, DM gas gangrene, soil/feces

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95
Q

What is associated w/ Bacillus cereus?

A

Fried rice, pre-formed toxin

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96
Q

What is associated w/ Listeria monocytogenes?

A

Raw cabbage, hot dogs, spoiled milk, migrant workers => heart block, meningitis, abortions

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97
Q

What is associated w/ Vibrio parahaemolyticus?

A

Raw fish

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98
Q

What is associated w/Actinomyces?

A

Face fistulas, sulfur granules

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99
Q

What is associated w/ Vibrio
vulnificus?

A

Raw oysters, cellulitis in swimmer’s cuts

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100
Q

What is associated w/ Shigella?

A

Day care outbreaks => seizures, destroys 60S ribosome, infects M cells

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101
Q

What is associated w/ Vibrio cholera?

A

Rice water diarrhea, ADP ribosylates Gs

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102
Q

What is associated w/ Clostridium difficile?

A

Explosive diarrhea = pseudomembranous colitis

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103
Q

Clostridium difficile treatment?

A

Vancomycin

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104
Q

What is associated w/ Yersinia enterolitica?

A

Presents like appendicitis + Reiter’s, bloody diarrhea

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105
Q

What is associated w/ Strep bovis?

A

Colon cancer

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106
Q

What is associated w/ Clostridium melanagosepticus?

A

Colon cancer; black pigment

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107
Q

What is associated w/ ETEC?

A

Traveler’s => rice-water diarrhea

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108
Q

What is associated w/ EHEC?

A

Hemorrhagic => renal failure(hus:0157:H7) shega-like toxin

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109
Q

What is associated w/ EIEC?

A

Inflammatory => loose stool

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110
Q

What is associated w/ EPEC?

A

Pathogenic => newborn diarrhea

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111
Q

What is associated w/ E. coli?

A

Raw hamburger, ADP ribosylates Gs, verotoxin, HUS

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112
Q

What is associated w/ Proteus mirabilis?

A

Staghorn calculus, UTI (Tx: Norfloxacin)

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113
Q

What is associated w/ Klebsiella pneumonia?

A

Alcoholics, currant jelly sputum, UTI, lung fissures, homeless people

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114
Q

What is associated w/ Staph saprophyticus?

A

Young & college girls UTIs

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115
Q

What is associated w/ Enterococcus

A

UTI, infective endocarditis post-GI/GU procedure, nitrate negative UTI

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116
Q

What is associated w/ N. meningitides?

A

DIC, pili, releases toxin in log phase
Maltose fermentation

117
Q

What is associated w/ Brucella?

A

Farmers/vets, spiking fever 5x/day, animal placentas

118
Q

What is associated w/ R. rikettsii?

A

Ticks => Rocky mountain spotted fever

119
Q

What is associated w/ R. akari?

A

Mites => fleshy papules

120
Q

What is associated w/ R. typhi?

A

Fleas, starts in armpit (rash)

121
Q

What is associated w/ R. prowazekii?

A

Lice, starts on body (rash)

122
Q

What is associated w/ R. tsutsugamushi?

A

Mites => scrub typhus

123
Q

What is associated w/ Coxiella burnetti?

A

Dusty barn => Q fever

124
Q

What is associated w/ Yersinia pestis?

A

Rats, fleas => Bubonic plague

125
Q

What is associated w/ Bartonella henselae?

A

Cat scratch => single painful lymph node, silver stains

126
Q

What is associated w/ Bacteroides fragilis?

A

Post-op bowel abscess, grows in blood clots

127
Q

What is associated w/ Chlamydia trachomatis?

A

Neonatal inturned eyelashes/cornea ulcers

128
Q

What is associated w/ Neisseria gonorrhea?

A

Pili, urethritis, tenovitis, septic arthritis

129
Q

lymphangitis, impetigo, necrotizing fasciitis, erysipelas scarlet fever. etiology

A

Strep Pyogenes

130
Q

etiology of rash on palm and sole

A

TSS,SSSS–>Staph A
RMSF
Cocksackie A
Kawasaki
Scarlet fever
Syphilis

131
Q

honey crusted lesion

A

s. pyogenes

132
Q

bacteria pick up DNA from environment

A

transformation

133
Q

Conjugation method is seen with

A

Pili

134
Q

ulcer at back of mouth–trench mouth cause by

A

fusobacterium

135
Q

ipsilateral pain on head rotation

A

peritonsillar abscess

136
Q

Retropharengia abscess (normal flora) presentation (physical)

A

Pain with extension

137
Q

small intestinal infection cause by Ecoli

A

Cholecystitis
Ascending cholangitis
Appendicitis
Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
Abdominal abscess

138
Q

EColi makes

A

90% vit k
Biotin
Folate
B5
Releasing factor for B12

139
Q

Big MaMa Anaerobes

A

Bacteroides fragilis
Strep. Bovis
Clostridium melangosepticus
clostridium difficile

140
Q

Clostridium Diff tx

A

oral vancomycin

141
Q

Tx for Big MaMa

A

CLindamycin: above diaphragm
Metronidazole: below the diaphragm
Cefoxitin: above and below the diaphragm

142
Q

What test differentiate Staph family

A

Coagulase

143
Q

Differentiate Staph from Strep

A

Catalase

144
Q

Vancomycin covers

A

Complete gram pos coverage

145
Q

Vanco side effect
Moa: Bind terminal D-ala-D-ala of cell-wall precursor peptides

A

Ototoxicity
Redness due to rapid infusion

146
Q

Group D strep

A

Strep viridans (s. Mutants…)
Enterococcus (E. Faecalis)

147
Q

Thrombolytics

Antodote

A

Urikinase
Streptokinase
Tissue plasminogen activator
Alteplase

Amiocaproic acid

148
Q

Meningitis 0 to 2 months(BEL)

A

GBS
E. Coli
Listeria

149
Q

Meningitis 2mos to 10 years

A

Strep pneumonia
Neisseria m.

150
Q

10 years to 21 year meningitis

A

Neisseria m
Strep p.

151
Q

21+ yo meningitis

A

Strep pneumonia

152
Q

Diphtheria toxin action

A

Adp-riboylates EF-2
Gray membrane at back of throat

153
Q

2 bacteria:Adp- ribosylation ef-2

A

C. Dip
Pseudomonas

154
Q

G-i ADP- Ribosylates

A

Bordetella pertussis

155
Q

G-s aDP- Ribosylation

A

Vibrio cholera and ETEC.
Increase cAMP

156
Q

Painless genital ulcer with granuloma inguinal.

A

Klebsiella granulomatis

157
Q

What confirmatory test is use for granuloma inguinale

A

Biopsy and Giemsa or wright staining

Shows dark-staining intracytoplasmic Donovan bodies

158
Q

Haemophilus ducreyi test

A

Chocolate agar

159
Q

Test for HSV genital herpes

A

PCR or Tzank smear of an open skin with multinucleate gaint cells.

160
Q

Epiglottitis, Thumb sign on X-ray

A

Hemophilus Flu, type B

161
Q

Hemophilus is a…
Characteristic

A

Gram neg pleomorphic rod
Ig-A Protease

162
Q

Poly ribose phosphate
Capsules

A

Hemophilus 20% capsulated

163
Q

Otitis media, bronchitis and pneumonia, sinusitis

A

Hemophilus
Influenza

164
Q

MCC of chancroid, painful genital lesion

A

Ducreyi

165
Q

G-neg diplococcus family

A

N. Meningitidis Maltose: DIC , Adrenal insufficiency

Gonorrhea: ferments glucose : fitz-hugh-Curtis syndrome

N. catarrhalis: does not ferment sugar
Loves mucus
3rd mc resp infection

166
Q

Rifampin is prophylactic for

A

N. meningitides and H. flu type B.

167
Q

pyelonephritis

e.coli treatment

A

quenonones

IV ciprofloxacin
levofloxacin

cephalosporins

ceftriaxone

168
Q

ciprofloxacin covers

A

Gram Neg
ecoli, proteus, klebsiella, enterobacter, pseudomonas

169
Q

Primary treatment for gram pos :clostridium , staph enterocolitis

A

vancomycin

170
Q

Fever, urinary symptoms and perineal pain In older male associated with

A

Acute bacteria prostatitis

171
Q

Acute bacteria prostatitis cause by

A

Ecoli in 50 yo

172
Q

Most common lobar pneumonia

A

Strep pneumonia

173
Q

Adult Community acquire lobar pneumonia txt

A

Macrolides/doxycycline

174
Q

Optochin sensitive, bile soluble, a-hemolytic, cat-neg

A

Strep pneumonia

175
Q

Beta-hemolytic gram pos cocci

A

Strep pyogenes

176
Q

Neonatal herpes/ vesicular rash at strongest risk for

A

Meningoencephalitis

177
Q

Congenital hearing loss and microcephaly

A

Toxo, syphillis, Zika, cmv

178
Q

Bloody diahrea with right lower abdomen pain

A

Yersinia enterocolitis

179
Q

Major virulence of c. Perfringens

A

A-toxin(lecithinase): myonecrosis

180
Q

UTI/ Pyelonephritis: fever, N/vomiting & flank pain: bug? Treatment?

A

Ecoli : ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin n ceftriaxone

181
Q

Quinolones MOA

A

inhibit topoisomerase
DNA gyrase

psuedomonas coverage

182
Q

What quinolones cover psuedomonas

A

ciprofloxacin
levofloxacin

183
Q

cephalosporine 5th gen

MERSA and resistant pseudomonas

A

ceftaroline

184
Q

3rd gen cephalosporine

disulferan reaction
block Vit K

A

moxalactam
cefoperazone

185
Q

3rd gen cephalosporine

not given to babies 1st 2 months

A

ceftriaxone

long halflife

186
Q

3rd gen cephalosporine

given to babies in first 2 months

A

cefotaxime

water soluble

187
Q

3rd gen cephalosporin

covers

A

G-Neg/Anaerobe

188
Q

2nd gen cephalosporine

covers

A

G. Neg
G. Pos
Anaerobe

GI surgery

189
Q

2nd gen cephalosporine

disulferam reaction
Blocks Vit K

A

Cefotetan

gonorrhea coverage

190
Q

2nd gen cephalosporine

Gonorrhea coverage

A

cefotetan
cefoxitin
ceferoxin

191
Q

1st gen cephalosporine

covers

A

G. Pos

192
Q

1st gen cephalosporine

I.V.

A

cefazolin

water soluble

193
Q

1st gen cephalosporine

Oral admin

A

cephalothin (interstitial nephritis
cefadroxil
cefpodoxime
cephalexin

194
Q

penicillins

staph and psuedomonas

A

Ticarcillin/clavulanic acid
piperacillin/Tozobactam

195
Q

penicillin with hi Na+ load

A

carbenicillin

anti-pseudomona

196
Q

monobactam covers

A

only G.Neg

197
Q

Beta-lact Resistant penicillins

A

Naf
Oxa
cloxa
dicloxa

Nafcillin=hi Na+ load

198
Q

covers community acquire pneumonia

A

ceftriazon
Azytromycin

199
Q

Ampicillin best for

A

Listeria
UTI

200
Q

Extended penicillins

covers simple G. Neg

ecoli, proteus, Ella family

A

Amoxicillin/Clavulanic Acid
Ampicillin/Sulbactam

201
Q

simple penicillins

A

Pen V
Pen G

202
Q

curve rod
urease pos
silver stain
hydrogen breath

A

H. pylori

203
Q

H. Pylori associated with

A

95% Duodenal ulcers
70% Gastric ulcers

204
Q

H. pylori treatment options

A

Amoxicillin, Bismuth, H-2 blocker
or PPI for 2 week

AOC: Amoxi, Omeprazole, Clarithromycin

205
Q

causes acute apendisitis
fecalif

A

ecoli

206
Q

acending cholingitis
murpy sign
hi Alkaline phosphatase

A

Ecoli

207
Q

Abdominal abscess

A

Ecoli

208
Q

Acute spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

A

E.coli

209
Q

Acute Cholecystitis

A

Ecoli

210
Q

Proteus Mirabilis

A

2nd mcc of UTIs
Urease pos
high urin pH

211
Q

encapsulated
3rd mcc cause of UTIs
alcoholics

A

Klebsiella Pneumonia

212
Q

produces a red pigment

A

Serratia Marcescens

213
Q

Burn

other than Staph and Psuedomonas

A

Acinetobacter

214
Q

multiple cerebral abscesses
0-2 months babies
encapsulated
citric acid production

A

citrobacter

215
Q

likes plastic (endotracheal tubes, bladder catheter
golden-green pigment

A

pseudomonas

216
Q

whirlpool folliculitis-pus at ass crack

A

P. Aeruginosa

217
Q

Tense black bollus
mcc of death 2nd week of burn

A

Echthyma Gangrenosum

associated with P. Aeregenosa Do not rupture

218
Q

eats through mastoid -kills

A

Malignant otitis externa

P. Aeregenosa

219
Q

Ella family

Associated with humoral or cell mediated?

A

cell mediated inflamation
Macrophages
Erythema nodosum
anemia of chronic disease

220
Q

ella fam

associated with daycare outbreaks

A

shigella

gastroenteritis

221
Q

what verulene factor of shigella causes seizures

A

exotoxin

shiga toxin

222
Q

Shigella Sonnei mc in

Shigella Dysentery

A

US

MC outside US

223
Q

osteomyelitis in sickle cell

A

salmonella

encapsulated

224
Q

eating half cooked chicken/egg

A

gastroenteriitis

salmonella

225
Q

salmonella hides in

A

gallbladder

causing cholecystitis

226
Q

slamonella

mc strain in US

A

S. enteritidis

227
Q

salmonella

mc strain outside U.S.

A

Dysentery

228
Q

triad of typhoid fever

A

fever
rose spots
intestinal fire

229
Q

typhoid is also associated with

A

heart block
contaminated water
treat with ciprofloxacin

230
Q

whooping cough stages

A

prodromal stage
catarrhal stage
paroxysmal stage

231
Q

exotoxin of bordetella pertussis MOA

A

ADP-ribosylates G-i

232
Q

B. pertussis exotoxin results in

A

cell death
Hi c-AMP –hi lung mucus

233
Q

salmonnella typhi treatment

A

ciprofloxacin

234
Q

Bordetella

dx

A

Eliza on nasopharyngeal washings

235
Q

what is mcc death from bordetella

A

suffocation

236
Q

bordetellas causes hi or lo lymphocytosis

A

extreme lymphocytosis

237
Q

Bordetella treatment

A

erythromycin

pt and close contacts

238
Q

Brucella

farmers and veterinarians

A

undulating fever

animal placenta

239
Q

treatment

Francisella Tularensis

hunters/farmer

A

streptomycin

240
Q

tularemia or oculoglundular fever

A

Francisella Tularensis

90% rabbits/10% dear

241
Q

inhibit 30s and covers all G. Neg

A

aminoglycosides

242
Q

aminoglycosides

Tobramycin used for

A

eyedrop

243
Q

aminoglycosides

inhibits 30s

A

gentamycin
Tobramycin
Neomycin
amikacin
streptomycin

244
Q

vibrio requires ___________and attacks ________________

A

Iron
Duodenum/ junjunum

245
Q

vibrio

exotoxin moa

A

ADP-riboxylates G-s and elevates c-AMP

246
Q

vibrio diarrhea is

A

osmotic diarrhea

247
Q

Vibrio curved rod

Parahemolyticus

A

raw fish

248
Q

vibrio

vulnificus

A

raw oysters
Curved rod

249
Q

Campylobacter jejuni

presentation

A

very copious bloody diarrhea

curved rod with flagilla

250
Q

raw chickens and raw eggs bloody diarrhea

A

compylobacter jejuni

GBS

251
Q

Treat C. Jujuni with

A

erythromycin

252
Q

two types

Yersinia

A

pestis
enterocolitica

253
Q

Y. Pestis causes

rat

A

Bubonic plague
Pneumonic plague

254
Q

Y. Enterocolitica causes

A

ileitis
or mesenteric adenitis
Reiter’s syndrome

255
Q

HLA-B27 associated with

A

Reiter’s syndrome
Ankylosing spondylitis
psoriasis

256
Q

Atypicals characteristics n treatment options

A

no cell wall
graulomatous
quinolones, macrolides and TCA
interstitial pneumonia

257
Q

Chlamydia two forms

A

elementary body(extracellular infectious)

reticulate body (dormant form)

258
Q

Parasite that depends on host ATP and causes eosinophilia

A

chlamydia

259
Q

MCC of Neonatal blindness

A

C. Trachomatis

cornea scarring: prevent with erythromycin

260
Q

chlamydia Trachomatis diseases

presentation and complication

A

*lymphogranuloma venereum
*STIs (90% asymtomatic)
*Infertility in women
*ectopic pregnancy (scarring)

261
Q

C. Trachomatis DX

A

Eliza with all pap smears

262
Q

C. Trachomatis treatment

A

1 dose azithro for pregnancy
100mg daily/7day doxycycline

263
Q

chlamydia Pneumonia

presentation/characteristic

A

atypical age 0-2 month
staccato coughing
symptoms worse than physical findings
eosinophilia

264
Q

chlamydia Pneumonia may be associated with

A

alzheimer and
coronary artery disease

265
Q

Chlamydia psittaci

A

bird poop
interstiial pneumonia
nonbacterial endocarditis

266
Q

no cell wall
no epithelial lining
looks like jerryfish
what am I?

A

Mycoplasma

267
Q

age 10-30

cold agglutinin
walking pneumonia
bullous myringitis

A

mycoplasma pneumonia

268
Q

mycoplasma associated with vaginitis

A

Hominis

269
Q

40 n up

atypical
silver stains
community acquire

A

legionella pneumophila

270
Q

grows on CYE-A

Charcoal Yeast Extra Agar

A

legionella

271
Q

interstitial pneumonia
granulomatous inflam
heart block

A

legionella pneumophilia

272
Q

1st degree heart block

A

fixed prolonged PR interval

273
Q

2nd degree heart block

Mo-1

A

progressively prolonged PR interval until drop beat

274
Q

2nd degree heart block

Mo-2

A

normal PR, erraticaly dropping beat

AV node partial infarted

275
Q

3rd degree heart block

A

No relationship b/t P waves and QRS

complete AV node infart

276
Q

what do

legionella
lyme
diphtheria
chaga’s
salmonella(typhoid)

have in common

A

Heart Blocks

277
Q

no cell wall
no epithelial lining
cause vaginitis
urease pos
what am I?

A

ureaplasma Urealyticum

278
Q

3 reations that manifest with Jerisch-Herxheimer reaction

A

spirochetes
EBV
CMV

279
Q

tic bite causing thrombocytopenia
Treatment

A

RMSF (Rocky Mountain spotted fever)
Doxy

280
Q

tic bite that causes hepatitis and heart block

A

Lyme dz

281
Q

Catalase-pos organism affecting NADPH oxidase pt
Bateria
Fungi

A

Bacteria: Staph a, Burkholderia, Serratia, Nocardia
Fungi: Aspergillus

282
Q

Sabin(poliovirus) produces a stronger

A

IgA response

283
Q

What drug class covers Pseudomonas PO
check sensitivity

A

Ciprofloxacin 750mg q12h
Levofloxacin 750mg QD

284
Q

Use PO for MRSA coverage

A

Clindamycin
Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX):
Tetracyclines (Doxycycline or Minocycline)
Linezolid

285
Q

Commonly used for MRSA, particularly effective in outpatient settings for SSTIs12.

A

Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX):

286
Q

These are effective against MRSA and are often used in community-acquired MRSA

A

Tetracyclines (Doxycycline or Minocycline)

287
Q

Effective for MRSA, but susceptibility should be confirmed with a D-test if the isolate is erythromycin-resistant, as resistance can vary geographically

A

Clindamycin

288
Q

effective against MRSA and can be used orally. It is often reserved for more serious infections

A

Linezolid

289
Q

alway test _____ in males with UTI and treat for ____ day

A

PSA
30 day

Step 1 Clues (27 decks)

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