PMNR Flashcards
What type of joint is the hip?
A. Ball and socket
B. Hinged
C. Pivot
D. Gliding
A. Ball and socket joints have full ROM (ex. hip, shoulders)
Hinged joints only allow a small range of motion (ex. humerus c ulna and radius). Pivot joints allow a wide ROM but not as much as ball and socket joints. Gliding allows sliding motion between 2 bones.
Which is not a hip flexor muscle?
A. Iliopsoas
B. Gracilis
C. Adductor Magnus
D. Rectus Femoris
C. Adductor Magnus is a hip extensor
Which is not a hip abductor?
A. Gluteus Medius
B. Gluteus Minimum
C. Long head of biceps femoris
d. Piriformis
C. Long head of Biceps Fem is a hip adductor
Which muscle is an internal rotator of the hip?
A. Obturator internus
B. Semitendinosus
C. Quadratus femoris
D. Superior gemellus
B. Semiten is an internal rotator of hip. Other ms are ERs.
Which muscle is an external rotator of the hip?
A. TFL
B. GMax
C. GMed
D. Gracilis
B. GMax is an ER. The rest are IRs.
What is the function of the iliofemoral ligament?
A. ExAbER
B. ExAdIR
C. FAbER
D. FAdIR
A. ExAbER
Normal ROM for hip flexion in adults?
A. 0-150deg
B. 10-140deg
C. 0-100deg
D. 0-120deg
D. 0-120deg
Which of the ff. is not a joint of the pelvic girdle?
A, Femoroacetabular jt.
B. Pubic symphysis
C. (B) SI jts.
D. LS joint
D. LS joint
What does the FABERE/Patrick’s Test test for?
A. Hip jt. dysfxn
B. GMed wkness
C. Femoral N. irritation
D. ITB tightness
A. Hip jt. dysfxn
What is the test to check for contraction of ITB?
A. Thomson’s
B. Painful arc
C. Ober
D. Yergason
C. Ober
What are the signs of a positive Trendelenburg test?
A. Pelvis on unsupported side stays same height
B. Pelvis on unsupported side is elevated slightly
C. Pelvis on unsupported side descends
D. Pelvis on supported side stays level
C. Pelvis on unsupported side descends (GMed wkness)
How do you measure for LLD?
A. ASIS to lateral malleolus
B. PSIS to lateral malleolus
C. ASIS to medial malleolus
D. PSIS to medial malleolus
C. ASIS to medial malleolus
If a patient is in supine with knees flexed to 90deg and feet flat on the table, how will it be determined if the right femur is longer than the left?
A. L knee is higher than R
B. R knee is higher than R
C. L knee is anterior to R
D. R knee is anterior to L
C. L knee is anterior to R
FA-TH
FA (longer femur, affected leg more ant)
TH (longer tibia, affected leg higher)
During which type of contraction is a hamstring injury most likely to occur?
A. Concentric ms contrxn
B. Eccentric ms contrxn
C. Isometric contrxn
D. Isotonic contrxn
B. Eccentric ms contrxn
All of the ff are true about piriformis syndrome EXCEPT:
A. Sciatic n. may be involved bc in some individuals the n. runs through the piriformis ms fibers
B. Pain may be in lateral buttock, post. hip and thigh, sciatica-like pain
C. Pain c FAbER
D. Pain may be exacerbated by walking up stairs or prolonged sitting
C. Pain c FAdIR
FAdIR has piriformis syndrome; also motions used during Piriformis test
All of the ff. are true about iliopsoas bursitis and tendinitis syndrome EXCEPT:
A. Condition may cause snapping hip syndrome c flexion
B. Pain c hip extension
C. Pain is usually noted deep in the groin and radiates to the front of the hip
D. Refers to a stretch or tear or complete rupture of your iliopsoas ms and tendon where the tendon attaches to the femur
B. Pain c hip flexion
Injury usually caused by eccentric contrxn of iliopsoas ms or rapid flexion against ext force
Which are the following is false about hip dislocation?
A. MC type is Ant.
B. Sciatic N. may be stretched or compressed during post. hip d/l
C. Femoral N may be injured during ant. hip d/l
D. MVAs are MC cause of hip d/l
A. MC type is post. hip d/l (90%)
In a post hip d/l, how will the leg be positioned?
A. ExAdIR
B. FAdIR
C. ExAbER
D. FAdER
B. FAdIR
Affected leg is shorter because d/l femoral head is higher on N side
Pt. will be unable to abduct affected side
What is the pathophysiology behind AVN of femoral head?
A. Sepsis
B. Crystalline deposits
C. Interruption of vascular supply
D. Friction
C. osteonecrosis (AKA aseptic necrosis)
Common cause: steroid use/alcohol abuse
What is not true about hip fx.?
A. Females > Males
B. MC underlying cause = weakened bone from metastatic dse
C. Approx 25% of patients over age 50 with hip fx.s die in a year
D. About 50% of hip fx. patients require some form of AD
B. MC cause is falls or trauma secondary to osteoporosis
What is the common type of hip fx.?
A. Femoral neck
B. Intracapsular
C. Intertrochanteric
D. Subtrochanteric
C. Intertrochanteric
3-4 in from hip jt.
Does not interrupt blood supply, may be easier to repair
Normal ROM of knee
A. 0-90 deg
B. 0-135 deg
C. 10-150 deg
D. 0-170 deg
B. 0-135deg
Which ms is a knee flexor?
A. RecFem
B. Vastus Lateralis
C. VMO
D. Biceps femoris
D. Biceps Femoris
Which ms is a knee extensor?
A. Gracilis
B. Semimem
C. Vastus intermedius
D. Biceps fem
C. Vastus intermedius
Which nerve roots innervate the quadriceps?
A. L1, L2, L3
B. L2, L3, L4
C. L3, L4, L5
D. L4, L5, S1
B. L2, L3, L4
Gastrocs is supplied by which nerve?
A. Femoral
B. Obturator
C. Common peroneal
D. Tibial
D. Tibial
Tibial -> gastrocs, popliteus, soleus, plantaris
Sural - CUTANEOUS branch of sciatic
Which ligament of the spine resists extension?
A. PLL
B. Ligamentum flavum, facet jt. capsule
C. ALL
D. Interspinous and supraspinous ligaments
C. ALL
Which ms is a ER of the leg?
A. Biceps femoris
B. Semiten
C. Sartorius
D. Gracilis
A. Biceps femoris
–> hip ext (1), knee flexion, knee ER
All of the ff are true about the ACL except:
A. Originates in the medial femoral condyle and attaches to lateral tibial eminence
B. Draws the femoral condyles ant. during flexion
C. Prevents hyperext. of knee and backward sliding of femur
D. IR of femur tightens it and ER loosens it
A. ACL originates from lat femoral condyle and attaches to medial tibial eminence; travels thru intracondylar notch
Which nerve root will most likely be affected by a post. L3-L4 herniated disc?
A. L2
B. L3
C. L4
D. L5
C. L4
What part of meniscus of the knee is poorly vascularized?
A. Peripheral outer 1/3
B. Periperal outer 2/3
C. Inner 2/3
D. Inner 1/3
C. Inner 2/3
Which is not an ant bursa of the knee?
A. Prepatellar bursa
B. Pes anserine bursa
C. Deep infrapatellar bursa
D. Suprapatellar bursa
B. Pes anserine bursa – medial bursa
What is located at the attachment of the tendons of SGT ms. and the MCL?
A. Baker’s cyst
B. Pes anserine bursa
C. Post. bursa
D. Deep infrapatellar bursa
B. Pes anserine bursa
Wht is the “terrible triad”?
A. MCL, LCL, ACL tear
B. ACL, MCL, medial meniscus injury
C. ACL, PCL, medial meniscus injury
D. ACL, MCL, PCL
B. ACL, MCL, medial meniscus injury
What test helps determine if pt. has an ACL injury?
A. McMurray’s T.
B. Apley grind
C. Lachman T.
D. Quadriceps active T.
C. Lachman = most sensitive for ACL
McMurray’s and Apley’s = medial and lat meniscus
Quadriceps active = PCL disruption
Medical term for “knock-kneed”?
A. Genu varum
B. Genu valgum
C. Genu recurvatum
D. Genu anterium
B. Genu valgum
Which of the ff is true about the PCL?
A. primary fxn is to restrain post. tibial translation
B. Inserts on sup aspect of medial tibia
C. tightens in ext.
D. attaches to medial meniscus
A. primary fxn is to restrain post. tibial translation
Origin: Med Femoral Condyle
Insertion: Post. aspect of tibial plateau
Loosens c extension, tightens c flexion
Which lig can be mistaken for a tear of the post. horn of lat meniscus on an MRI?
A. ACL
B. PCL
C. APLC
D. OPL
C. APLC -> provides attachment for post. lateral meniscus
O-shaped meniscus
A. Medial meniscus
B. Anterior meniscus
C. Lateral meniscus
D. Post. meniscus
C. Lateral meniscus
medial – c-shaped
Which ms is a DF and inverter?
A. TA
B. PT
C. PB
D. Plantaris
A. TA
What is not a compartment of the lower leg?
A. lateral
B. Ant.
C. Superficial post.
D. medial
D. medial
What forms the medial malleolus?
A. Talus and calcaneus
B. Distal tibia
C. Distal fibula
D. Cuneiform bones
B. Distal tibia
What forms the medial malleolus?
A. Distal tibia
B. Distal fibula
C. Talus
D. Navicular
B. Distal fibula
Which lig is the weakest of the ankle ligaments?
A. Deltoid lig
B. CFL
C. ATFL
D. PTFL
C. ATFL
MC ankle sprain cause
Which ligament stabilizes the medial ankle?
A. PTFL
B. Deltoid lig
C. ATFL
D. CFL
B. Deltoid lig
connects tibia to calcaneus, navicular, talus; Supports medial surface of ankle
Function of Lisfranc ligament?
A. Connects distal tibia to talus
B. Connects 2nd MT head to first cuneiform
C. Preserves the MLA
D. Primary ankle stabilizer
B. Connects 2nd MT head to first cuneiform
Normal ROM forankle PF?
A. 20deg
B. 30deg
C. 50deg
D. 90deg
C. 50deg
Nerve that innervates FHL?
A. Medial plantar N.
B. Superficial Peroneal N.
C. Sural N.
D. Tibial N.
D. Tibial N.
What does the ant. drawer test in the ankle?
A. CFL integrity
B. ATFL integrity
C. PTFL integrity
D. Deltoid integrity
B. ATFL integrity
An achilles tendon injury is most likely to occur with what action?
A. Sudden pivoting
B. IR of ankle
C. Abrupt start of a sprint
D. Walking uphill
C. Abrupt start of a sprint
Where is the MC location of an achilles tendon rupture?
A. At the attachment to the calcaneus
B. At aponeurosis of the gastrocs
C. 2-5cm proximal to tendon insertion at calcaneus
D. Near the soleus
C. 2-5cm proximal to tendon insertion at calcaneus
watershed zone = zone of hypovascularity
Which is not a characteristic of plantar fasciitis?
A. Affects females more than males
B. Tenderness over the lateral aspect of the heel
C. Pain is the worse in the morning
D. Heel spurs may may contribute to etiology
B. Plantar fasciitis - tenderness over the medial aspect of the heel
Where are the motor axons found?
A. Mainly in ant (ventral) nerve roots
B. Mainly in post (dorsal) nerve roots
C. DRG
D. Proximal nerve roots
A. Ventral - Motor
Sensory - Dorsal
MVSD
Patellar tendon reflex assesses which nerve root?
A. L1
B. L4
C. L5
D. S1
B. L4
Achilles tendon reflex assesses which nerve root?
A. L4
B. L5
C. S1
D. S3
C. S1
If someone has weak knee ext. and hip flexion, what nerve is most likely injured?
A. Obturator
B. Femoral
C. Sciatic
D. Tibial
B. Femoral
