CI

Question 1

A therapist designs a cardiovascular training program for a 29-year-old male rehabilitating from a lower extremity injury. The client has no known cardiovascular pathology and has been cleared for exercise by his physician. The client’s maximum heart rate during exercise should be calculated in
beats per minute as
a. 201
b. 170
c. 191
d. 181

Answer 1

C.

Question 2

In coronary artery disease, the following conditions exist, EXCEPT:
a. It may produce ischemia and necrosis of the myocardium
b. Arteries are unable to meet metabolic demands
c. There is inability for vasodilation
d. There is transient reversible oxygen deficiency

Answer 2

d. There is transient reversible oxygen deficiency

ischemia and necrosis of the heart is irreversible

Question 3

Orientation is ________.
a. A state of motor restlessness where patient seems unable to sit still and usually is very
troubled by this symptom
b. Is an irreversible loss of cognitive functioning, or chronic organic brain syndrome, often manifesting as a memory impairment.
c. The understanding of one’s environment, in terms of time, place, and person.
d. The delusional feeling that people are out to get you

Answer 3

c. The understanding of one’s environment, in terms of time, place, and person.

Question 4

In the glomerular capillary, glomerular filtration is highest in the
a. Beginning
b. Middle to the end
c. Middle
d. End
e. Beginning to middle

Answer 4

a. Beginning

60% of glomerular filtration happens in the beginning of the process

Question 5

What valve prevents the left ventricular blood from returning to the left atrium?
a. Tricuspid
b. Mitral
c. Ventricular
d. Aortic

Answer 5

b. Mitral

Question 6

A therapist discusses the importance of proper nutrition with a client diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Which of the following substances would be most restricted in this client’s diet?
a. Cholesterol
b. Triglycerides
c. Potassium
d. Sodium

Answer 6

d. Sodium

• CHF is signified by cardiac decompensation
• Sodium attracts water, which increases the BW inside
• Heart has difficulty pumping blood

Question 7

Syncope is
a. also referred to as cardinal signs.
b. a temporary suspension of consciousness.
c. a shrill, harsh sound, especially the respiratory sound heard during inspiration in laryngeal. obstruction.
d. the period when the greatest amount of pressure is exerted on the walls of the arteries during heartbeat

Answer 7

b. a temporary suspension of consciousness.

c. –> stridor
d. –> BP

Question 8

___________ starts near the end of the R wave and ends just after the T wave on the ECG.
a. Early diastole
b. Late diastole
c. Ventricular systole
d. Atrial systole

Answer 8

c. Ventricular systole

Question 9

In ECG, this wave pattern represents the delay before repolarization of the ventricles and may
indicate acute myocardial infarction.
a. STP
b. P wave
c. QRS
d. ST segment
e. T wave

Answer 9

d. ST segment

Question 10

Id is
a. the perception of sensory stimulus in the absence of any sensory stimulus.
b. a part of the mind hypothesized by Freud to contain inherent aggressive and sexual drives.
c. a mental state of sadness, low self-esteem, and self-reproach.
d. a mood characterized by elation and increased activity.

Answer 10

b. a part of the mind hypothesized by Freud to contain inherent aggressive and sexual drives.

Id - pleasure
Ego - reality
Superego - conscience

Question 11

Filling of ventricles occurs maximally during _________.
a. First 1/3 of diastole
b. Rapid ejection period
c. Isovolumic contraction period
d. Atrial systole

Answer 11

a. First 1/3 of diastole

75% is transferred during this period

Question 12

In the renal vascular system, the highest oncotic pressure is seen at the: _____________.
a. Efferent arterioles
b. Afferent arterioles
c. Renal artery
d. Segmental artery

Answer 12

a. Efferent arterioles

Efferent arterioles - 43%
Afferent arterioles - 26%
Renal artery - 0%
Segmental artery - 16%

Question 13

If the ventricular cell is stimulated during the spike of the action potential, it would fall during the
a. Relative refractory period
b. Atrioventricular mode
c. Absolute refractory period
d. Resting phase
e. Supernormal phase

Answer 13

c. Absolute refractory period

Question 14

Entry of calcium into the cardiac muscle during the cardiac action potential is an example of
a. primary active transport mechanism.
b. opening of voltage-gated channels.
c. secondary active-transport mechanism.
d. opening of ligand-gated channels.

Answer 14

b. opening of voltage-gated channels.

sudden change in voltage during phase 2 causing voltage-gated channels to open

Question 15

Which of the following is not used for pain medication?
a. Topical anesthetics such as lidocaine and tetracaine
b. Salicylates such as aspirin, choline magnesium trisalicylate, and salsalate
c. Acetaminophen
d. Allopurinol

Answer 15

d. Allopurinol - gout (uric acid inhibition)

Question 16

6. Clients with abnormal conduction patterns often can be treated successfully using antiarrhythmic
   medication. Which of the following side effects of antiarrythmics does not require immediate
   medical attention?
   a. Insomnia
   b. Shortness of breath
   c. Coughing up blood
   d. Dizziness

Answer 16

a. Insomnia

Question 17

Venous return increases
a. Following generalized vasoconstriction
b. In heart failure
c. During inspiration
d. During a Valsalva maneuver

Answer 17

c. During inspiration

R heart pressure decreases –> more blood volume allowed inside

Question 18

A therapist discusses risk factors associated with coronary disease to a patient in a cardiac
rehabilitation program. Which risk factor would be the most relevant for the patient?
a. Weight
b. Elevated serum cholesterol
c. Age
d. Gender
e. Family history

Answer 18

b. Elevated serum cholesterol

Question 19

A physician instructs a client to take nonprescription or over the counter medication as part of his
treatment program. Which of the following statements about over the counter medication is not
accurate?
a. Over the counter medications usually contain low doses of their active ingredient
b. Potentially harmful effects are not possible with over-the-counter medications
c. The Food and Drug Administration classifies drugs as prescription or nonprescription
d. Over the counter medications are available without a prescription and can be purchased
directly by consumers.

Answer 19

b. Potentially harmful effects are not possible with over-the-counter medications

Question 20

Which of the following include functions of veins?
I. Propels blood through the arterial pump by exerting pressure as blood flows
II. Deregulates cardiac input
III. Stores large quantities of blood and making it available when required
IV. Propels blood through venous pump
V. Regulate cardiac output

a. II, III, V
b. I, II and III
c. III, IV and V
d. II, III and IV

Answer 20

c. III, IV and V

Question 21

The following describe clotting abnormalities, EXCEPT:
a. Arterial occlusion and thromboemboli can become lodged in arteries supplying vital
organs.
b. Patients are prone to emboli and bleeding
c. Presence of clots usually rules out movement in the affected limbs
d. It can be caused by restricted mobility and an increase in red blood cells
e. It can originate in the deep arteries of the legs.

Answer 21

e. It can originate in the deep arteries of the legs.

Question 22

Oscillations of resting membrane potentials of the GI smooth muscle not associated with muscle
contraction is known as ________.
a. Slow waves
b. Fast waves
c. Spikes
d. Action potentials

Answer 22

a. Slow waves

slow waves = waxing/waning
- outflow of positively charged ions

Question 23

Renal blood flow decreases with age will lead to:
I. Loss of renal mass observed with aging
II. Decrease in cardiac output with age
III. Age-related sclerotic changes in the renal arteries
a. II and III
b. I and III
c. I and II
d. I only

Answer 23

c. I and II

sclerotic changes in renal arteries are attributed to pathology

Question 24

Dyspnea, a symptom of cardiac dysfunction may be described as follows EXCEPT it ____________.
a. Is often caused by hypertension or aortic valve disease resulting in impaired ventricular relaxation
b. Can occur in patients with left ventricular hypertrophy
c. Often occurs with myocardial ischemia and heart failure
d. Is associated with heart failure or myocardial ischemia, and also with hypotension

Answer 24

a. Is often caused by hypertension or aortic valve disease resulting in impaired ventricular relaxation

results in impaired ventricular CONTRACTION

Question 25

A patient was rushed to the hospital and underwent emergency Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting
after complaining of persistent severe uncomfortable chest pain. This can be classified as _______
according to the angina scale:
a. 2+
b. 5+
c. 3+
d. 1+
e. 4+

Answer 25

c. 3+

Question 26

An 80-year-old female without medical illness undergoes annual check-up. Liver function tests such
as AST and ALT is expected to be __________.
a. Twice above the normal range
b. Below the normal range
c. Above the normal range
d. Within normal limits

Answer 26

d. Within normal limits

Question 27

Which of the following drug is classified as anti-coagulant?
a. Propranolol
b. Losartan
c. Warfarin
d. Digitalis

Answer 27

c. Warfarin

Question 28

The pulmonary artery leaves the heart via the ________.
a. Right auricle
b. Left ventricle
c. Right ventricle
d. Left auricle

Answer 28

c. Right ventricle

Question 30

Paranoia
a. A state of motor restlessness where patient seems unable to sit still and usually is very
troubled by this symptom.
b. Is an irreversible loss of cognitive functioning or chronic organic brain syndrome, often
manifesting as a memory impairment.
c. The delusional feeling that people are out to get you
d. The understanding of one’s environment, in terms of time, place, and person.

Answer 30

c. The delusional feeling that people are out to get you

Question 31

What promotes water reabsorption from the collecting ducts of the kidneys?
a. Glucagon
b. Follicle stimulating hormone
c. Arginine vasopressin
d. Prolactin

Answer 31

c. Arginine vasopressin

Vasopressin / ADH –> H2O Reabsorption

Question 32

The “dub” in Korotkoff’s heart sound is
a. The mitral and tricuspid valves closing at diastole
b. Associated with atrial contraction
c. The aortic and pulmonic valves closing
d. Indicative of right ventricular heart failure
e. Associated with ventricular filling

Answer 32

c. The aortic and pulmonic valves closing

Question 33

Delirium is
a. The misperception of a sensory stimulus
b. The feeling that insects are crawling on one’s skin
c. A false belief neither based on reality nor culturally derived and not altered by reasonable
evidence to the contrary
d. A reversible, acute organic brain syndrome

Answer 33

d. A reversible, acute organic brain syndrome

Question 34

A fall in the glomerular filtration rate is seen situations, EXCEPT
a. fall in blood pressure.
b. efferent arteriolar contraction.
c. increase in plasma protein concentration.
d. obstruction of the tubules.
e. tetanic venous contraction.

Answer 34

b. efferent arteriolar contraction.

this would increase GFR

Question 35

Fires when perfused with oxygen-poor blood.
a. Carotid sinus
b. Axon reflex
c. Carotid body
d. Dendrite reflex

Answer 35

c. Carotid body

carotid body – sensory receptor (chemoreceptor); detects levels of oygen

carotid sinus – baroreceptor, stretch

Question 36

Your patient with Parkinson’s disease was prescribed levodopa. The side effects of the drug are the
following EXCEPT
a. arrhythmias
b. gastrointestinal distress
c. orthostatic hypotension
d. impaired visual accommodation

Answer 36

d. impaired visual accommodation

Question 37

In behavior therapy, this is a process where learning occurs when an individual engages in specific
behaviors in order to receive certain consequences. Examples of this include positive reinforcement,
extinction and punishment.
a. Operant conditioning
b. Role playing
c. Flooding
d. Modeling

Answer 37

a. Operant conditioning

Question 38

A 29-year old male with a history of schizophrenia, disorganized type, is referred for ambulation after
a femoral fracture. Patient recently had an exacerbation of the condition. PT will expect this behavior
from patient ______.
a. Feelings of low self-esteem
b. Poor ability to perform tasks that need abstract problem solving
c. Sleep disturbance and flashbacks
d. Increased fear of crowd

Answer 38

b. Poor ability to perform tasks that need abstract problem solving

Question 39

A PT observes an electrocardiogram of a patient on beta-blockers. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes could be facilitated by beta-blockers?
a. premature ventricular contractions
b. sinus bradycardia
c. ST segment sagging
d. sinus tachycardia

Answer 39

b. sinus bradycardia

Question 40

A patient with left sided CHF class II, is referred for physical therapy. During exercises, the patient can
be expected to exhibit _________________.
a. Anorexia, nausea with abdominal pain and distension
b. Dyspnea with fatigue and muscular weakness
c. Severe, uncomfortable chest pain with shortness of breath
d. Weight gain with dependent edema

Answer 40

b. Dyspnea with fatigue and muscular weakness

Question 41

Pain in the calf aggravate by walking and elevation of the lower extremity is MOST LIKELY caused by
___________________.
a. Arterial insufficiency
b. Sciatica
c. Venous insufficiency
d. Lymphedema

Answer 41

a. Arterial insufficiency

Question 42

Sudden muscle cramps brought on by exertion and relieved by rest describes this condition.
a. Embolic occlusion
b. Thrombophlebitis
c. Lymphedema
d. Claudication

Answer 42

d. Claudication

Question 43

A PT is treating a 39-year-old female diagnosed with thoracic outlet syndrome. During exercise, the
patient begins to complain of light headedness and dizziness. PT immediately takes patient to a chair
and monitors her vital signs. Her respiration rate is 11 breaths per minute, pulse rate 50 beats per
minute and BP 120/85 mmHg. Which of the following statements is MOST accurate?
a. Pulse rate and respiration rate are below normal levels
b. The patient’s vital signs are within normal levels
c. Pulse rate and BP are above normal levels
d. BP and respiration rate are above normal levels

Answer 43

a. Pulse rate and respiration rate are below normal levels

Question 43

Your patient is a 65-year-old female diagnosed with venous problem. The following therapeutic
procedures are usually indicated to prevent progression of condition EXCEPT: _____________.
a. Patient with problems in the lower extremities should be encouraged to walk, run, rise on toes
b. Electric stimulation is not recommended
c. Gentle massage can be given to move the stagnant blood and relieve the pressure
d. Intermittent pneumatic compression treatments are commonly given, often followed by
exercises

Answer 43

b. Electric stimulation is not recommended

can be used to augment BF, also to promote granulation, decrease inflammation for wound healing

Question 44

A 70-year-old patient with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia comes to therapy confused
and has shortness of breath and generalized weakness. You will suspect that the patient
________________.
a. Is experiencing unstable angina
b. Is showing signs of early Alzheimer’s disease
c. Failed to take prescribed hypertension medication
d. Is showing early signs of myocardial infarction

Answer 44

d. Is showing early signs of myocardial infarction

Question 45

A PT employee of a rehabilitation center of a hospital evaluates a patient showing several signs and
symptoms of anemia. Which of these questions would be the MOST useful to gather additional
information in relation to anemia?
a. Does it hurt to take a deep breath?
b. Are you susceptible to bruising?
c. Do you frequently experience dizziness, headaches or blurred vision?
d. Do you experience heart palpations or shortness of breath at rest or with mild exertion?

Answer 45

d. Do you experience heart palpations or shortness of breath at rest or with mild exertion?

bruising – d/t bleeding

Question 46

A patient was referred to PT with fingertips that are rounded and bulbous. The nail plate is more
convex than normal. These changes were considered by the PT as indicating __________.
a. Trauma to the nail bed
b. Inflammation of the proximal and lateral nail folds
c. Psoriasis
d. Chronic hypoxia from heart disease

Answer 46

d. Chronic hypoxia from heart disease

trauma = white spots
inflammation of prox. and lat. folds = paronychia
psoriasis = oil spot lesions (yellow spots)

Question 47

Many of patients seen in physical therapy are susceptible to excessive heat exposure. Heat exhaustion
occurs when a person is exposed to more heat than the thermoregulatory mechanisms are capable of
controlling. Although it rarely occurs in pure forms, it can be categorized as any of the following
EXCEPT ______________ heat exhaustion
a. Exercise induced (heat syncope)
b. Salt exhaustion
c. Protein depletion
d. Water-depletion

Answer 47

c. Protein depletion

Question 48

A traumatic brain injured patient reports to physical therapy feeling lethargic after being placed on
phenobarbital. The primary purpose of the medication is to
a. prevent seizures
b. reduce spasticity
c. limit arrhythmias
d. decrease agitation

Answer 48

a. prevent seizures

decreases nerve impulses

Question 49

A post MI patient is about to begin phase 3 cardiac rehabilitation program. During the initial exercise
session, the patient’s ECG responses are monitored via radio telemetry. PT noticed three PVCs occurring in a run with no P wave. PTS next strategy is
a. have the patient sit down and rest for a few minutes before resuming exercise
b. stop the exercise and notify the physician immediately
c. continue the exercise session, but monitor closely
d. modify the exercise prescription by decreasing the intensity

Answer 49

b. stop the exercise and notify the physician immediately

Vtach = 3 PVCs; at increased risk in post MI pt.s

Question 50

A 75-year-old frail female is being treated at home for general strengthening and mobility. The patient has a 5 year history of taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as aspirin for joint pain and recently added calcium channel blockers. The possible adverse reactions/side effects include:
a. weight increase, hyperglycemia, hypotension
b. stomach pain, bruising, confusion
c. paresthesia, incoordination, bradycardia
d. increased sweating, fatigue, chest pain

Answer 50

b. stomach pain, bruising, confusion

bruising secondary to COX 1 inhibition

Question 51

To reduce inflammation of the tracheobronchial mucosa in asthma, COPD and sarcoidosis, steroids
are often prescribed. Which of these is not a side effect of steroid therapy?
a. Increased susceptibility to notion
b. decrease in BP
c. tachycardia
d. osteoporosis

Answer 51

b. decrease in BP

NSAIDs cause increase in blood volume => increase in BP

Question 52

Patient is a 55-year-old female status post removal of lymph nodes in the axilla secondary to cancer. You apply mechanical intermittent compression and massage. For best results with massage, this technique is implemented this way
a. massage the distal segment first
b. massage the proximal segment first
c. massage the axillary region first
d. massage applied only every other day

Answer 52

b. massage the proximal segment first

Question 53

The following are characteristics of an arterial ulcer, EXCEPT _______________.
a. Location is usually in the toes, feet lateral malleolus, anterior tibial area
b. Pedal pulses are usually present
c. Has irregular, smooth edges
d. Painful especially if legs are elevated

Answer 53

b. Pedal pulses are usually present

Question 54

A patient in the clinical suddenly had an episode of syncope. PT attempts to rule out orthostatic hypotension as the cause of fainting. The BEST way to do this is by ______________.
a. Checking resting BP and HR in supine and sitting then repeating measurements after the patient stands for 1 minute
b. Palpating the carotid arteries and taking HR using the supine position for BP measurement
c. Checking HR and blood pressure in supine after 5 minute of rest and then repeating in a semiFowler position
d. Checking HR and BP at rest and after 3 and 5 minutes of cycle ergometer exercise

Answer 54

a. Checking resting BP and HR in supine and sitting then repeating measurements after the
patient stands for 1 minute

Question 55

A 65-year-old female, 5 weeks post myocardial infarction is attending a cardiac rehab program. The PT adds a cooling period and patient asks why it is needed. PT’s answer should be _______
a. “it reduces chances of nausea and vertigo.”
b. “it minimizes occurrence of ventricular arrhythmias.”
c. “It allows PT to monitor vital signs after exercise.”
d. “it prevents pooling of the blood in the extremities.”

Answer 55

d. “it prevents pooling of the blood in the extremities.”

Question 56

Your cardiac patient was given a rest period after symptoms of chest pain and sweating after a mild
exercise. She took nitroglycerin sublingually as per instruction of her cardiologist. The onset of action
from nitroglycerin in this case occurs after _________ minute/s.
a. 30
b. 10
c. 1
d. 5

Answer 56

c. 1

Question 57

A PT is treating a 35-year-old female with thoracic outlet syndrome. While exercising, the patient starts
to complain of light headedness and felt dizzy. PT immediately sits the patient and monitored her vital signs. PT measures the patient’s respiration rate as 10 breaths per minute, pulse rate at 45 beats per minute, and blood pressure as 116/84 mmHg. Which of the following statements is MOST accurate?
a. blood pressure and respiration rate are above normal levels
b. pulse rate and respiration rate are below normal levels
c. patient’s vital signs are within normal limits
d. pulse rate and blood pressure are above normal levels

Answer 57

a. blood pressure and respiration rate are above normal levels

Question 58

A 55-year-old who underwent recent modified radical mastectomy fox breast cancer is referred to PT. An important predictor for lymphedema after treatment for breast cancer is ___________.
a. A diet low in sodium
b. Mild strength loss in the affected extremity
c. Use of diuretics
d. Obesity

Answer 58

d. Obesity

Question 59

A patient with stage II primary lymphedema of the left lower extremity is referred to PT for increased limb girth with evident skin folds. An essential component of lymphedema management is manual
lymphatic drainage which includes _____________.
a. decongesting the proximal portion of the limb first and working distally
b. decongesting the distal portions of the limb first and working proximally
c. deep tissue friction massage for several minutes on fibrotic areas
d. decongesting the trunk after the limb segments

Answer 59

a. decongesting the proximal portion of the limb first and working distally

Question 60

A 66-year-old female patient complains of difficulty of walking. During the rest period, the skin in the
lower leg appears discolored. After walking for about 2 minutes, patient complains of pain in the leg. A marked pallor is also evident in the skin over the lower third of the extremity. These symptoms are
synonymous with __________.
a. peripheral neuropathy
b. restless leg syndrome
c. neurogenic claudication
d. vascular claudication

Answer 60

d. vascular claudication

restless leg syndrome - involuntary movement

Question 61

A patient has a 13-year-old history of peripheral vascular disease (PVD) affecting the left lower extremity. During auscultation of the popliteal artery, the PT would expect to find a/an ________.
a. Bruit
b. + Homan’s sign
c. + pulses
d. intense pain and cramping

Answer 61

a. Bruit

bruit - swishing sound

Question 62

Which statement is NOT TRUE about blood pressure?
a. Blood pressure response is higher during weight training than incorporate concentric and eccentric phase compared to isokinetic
b. Blood pressure is directly related to cardiac output and peripheral vascular resistance and therefore is an effective non-invasive performance measure of the pumping mechanism of the heart
c. Blood pressure tends to be lower when the Valsalva maneuver is applied
d. Blood pressure increases during dynamic resistance exercise, such as free weights, machines or isokinetics and continues to increase as an exercise set progresses

Answer 62

c. Blood pressure tends to be lower when the Valsalva maneuver is applied

Question 63

Which statement is NOT TRUE about systolic blood pressure?
a. If systolic pressure does not rise with increasing workload, it may indicate that the functional reserve capacity of the heart has been exceeded
b. Systolic pressure increases with exertion in a linear progression, often at a rate of 10-14 mm Hg per metabolic equivalent
c. Normally, systolic blood pressure in the legs is 10-20 percent higher than the pressure in the arms (brachial artery)
d. Systolic pressure measures the force exerted against the arteries during the ejection cycle, while diastolic pressure measures the force exerted against the arteries during rest

Answer 63

b. Systolic pressure increases with exertion in a linear progression, often at a rate of 10-14 mm Hg per metabolic equivalent

7-10 mmHg per MET

Question 64

A patient with asthma is on medication (albuterol) ventolin from the sympathomimetic group. The
MOST important effect of this drug is _____________.
a. lowers airway resistance by reducing bronchospasm
b. lower bronchial construction and high blood pressure (BP) that accompanies exercise
c. increases heart rate (HR) and BP to enhance a training effect during aerobic activity
d. raises airway resistance and reduces secretion production

Answer 64

a. lowers airway resistance by reducing bronchospasm

Question 65

The PRIMARY absolute cardiac contraindication to exercise testing is
a. untreated life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias
b. unstable angina with recent chest pain
c. advanced atrioventricular block
d. uncompensated congestive heart failure

Answer 65

b. unstable angina with recent chest pain

Question 66

The treatment of lower extremity edema with intermittent pneumatic compression is MOST appropriate in this condition.
a. acute thrombophlebitis
b. core pulmonale
c. post operative inguinal node dissection
d. portal hypertension

Answer 66

c. post operative inguinal node dissection

Question 67

You are evaluating a 63-year-old housewife with peripheral vascular disease. She complains of intermittent claudication and frequently complains of getting tired. The MOST important treatment
goal is to increase __________
a. mobility
b. lower extremity strength
c. collateral circulation
d. range of motion

Answer 67

c. collateral circulation

Question 68

Bluish discoloration of the skin and nailbeds of fingers and toes along with palms. That and cold and mist all point to
a. liver disease
b. hypothyroidism
c. cyanosis
d. carotenemia

Answer 68

c. cyanosis

Question 69

A PT discusses the importance of a proper diet with a patient diagnosed with a congestive heart failure. Which of the following substance would MOST likely be restricted in the patient’s diet?
a. sodium
b. low-density lipoprotein
c. high-density lipoprotein
d. triglycerides

Answer 69

a. sodium

Question 70

The following applies to resisted movement testing EXCEPT:
a. Performed in the shortened, midrange, and stretched position for total evaluation of the contractile unit.
b. Considered to be specific in evaluating the status of the contractile unit.
c. Performed to determine the status of the contractile unit and its segmental innervation from the spinal cord.
d. While it primarily assesses the contractile unit, it causes some joint compression that may lead to inappropriate conclusions.
e. Performing in shortened position prevents excessive compression or distraction of noncontractile structures

Answer 70

e. Performing in shortened position prevents excessive compression or distraction of noncontractile structures

performing in shortened position leads to approximation so it DOESNT prevent excessive compression or distraction

Question 71

Myotonic dystrophy is characterized by the following EXCEPT: ______________
a. Symptoms commonly appear in adulthood, usually in the third and fourth decades
b. General loss of strength and energy are regularly present and slowness of grip release may be evident
c. There is prolonged contraction with posture of the hand
d. A quick tap on the thenar eminence results in contraction that is abnormally short, and the thumb abducts for several seconds.

Answer 71

d. A quick tap on the thenar eminence results in contraction that is abnormally short, and the thumb abducts for several seconds.

percussion myotonia -> thumb adduction, flexion c slow return

Question 72

This type of muscle has a great stabilizing component
a. Isotonic
b. Shunt
c. Concentric
d. Spurt
e. Isometric

Answer 72

b. Shunt

Question 73

What muscle contraction slow body segments and provide shock absorption as in walking?
a. Isokinetic
b. Eccentric
c. Concentric
d. Isometric

Answer 73

b. Eccentric

Question 74

Nerve supply to sternocleidomastoid
a. Vagus
b. Abducens
c. Spinal accessory
d. Dorsal occipital
e. Greater occipital

Answer 74

c. Spinal accessory

• SCM, traps

Question 75

To assess joint play movement a therapist places the joint in the loose packed or resting position. The following statements describe this position. EXCEPT the loose packed position
a. is one of minimal congruency between the articular surface and joint capsule
b. is equivalent to the anatomic resting position for each joint
c. allows the movement of spin, slide and roll in joint
d. is the position in its range of motion where the joint is under least amount of stress

Answer 75

b. is equivalent to the anatomic resting position for each joint

Question 76

If the client completes the range of motion against gravity with minimal-moderate resistance, the
muscle is graded as
a. fair plus
b. good plus
c. fair minus
d. good minus

Answer 76

d. good minus

Normal = strong; full ROM max resist
Good plus = nearly strong, almost full
Good = moderate
Good minus = nearly moderate
fair plus = slight
Fair = No resistance

Question 77

Forearm supination is measured with the moving arm of the goniometer placed on this side of the
hand.
a. Lateral
b. Medial
c. Dorsal
d. Volar
e. Anterolateral

Answer 77

d. Volar

Question 78

These upper extremity positions are introduced one by one in the technique to mobilize the radial nerve EXCEPT
a. forearm supination.
b. wrist flexion.
c. shoulder internal rotation.
d. elbow extension

Answer 78

a. forearm supination.

ULTT 3 -> SH abd, IR; elbow ext; FA pron; wrist flex

Question 79

When testing for hip abduction muscle strength, which possible substitutions can cause an
inaccurate muscle grade?
I. Hip external rotation and flexion
II. Lateral flexion of the trunk
III. Hip extension
IV. Hip internal rotation

a. III and IV
b. I only
c. II, III and IV
d. I and II
e. II only

Answer 79

b. I only

TFL - hip hiking sub

Question 80

Among the elderly, humeral fractures at the surgical neck are common where this nerve is in direct
contact.
a. Ulnar
b. Axillary
c. Median
d. Radial

Answer 80

b. Axillary

Question 81

A post CVA patient can maintain standing position without external support and show limited postural sway. He can also remain standing while turning his head or trunk. What is his functional grade? _______ standing balance.
a. Fair static and dynamic
b. Good static and dynamic
c. Good static and fair dynamic
d. Fair static and good dynamic

Answer 81

c. Good static and fair dynamic

Normal static: steady balance s handheld support
Normal dynamic: max. challenge and can shift up

Good static: c minimal postural sway
Good dynamic: can pick up object from floor (moderate challenge)

Fair static: occasional min assistance
Fair dynamic: can maintain while turning head or trunk (min. challenge)

Poor static: requires hand-held support; mod-max assist
Poor dynamic: unable to accept challenge or move s loss of balance

Question 81

This muscle can be palpated by placing the fingers over the temporal fossa. This muscle contracts
as the subject bites down.
a. Zygomaticus Major
b. Masseter
c. Buccinator
d. Temporalis
e. Medial Pterygoid

Answer 81

d. Temporalis

closes mouth - masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid

Question 82

Which of the following is NOT true of the Temporomandibular joint?
a. When the mouth is closed, the convex condyle rides forwards on to the articular eminence.
b. The joint can be felt and its movement appreciated by the palpating finger.
c. As the mouth is opened, the head of the mandible moves forwards and the angle moves backwards.
d. The center of this movement is near the midpoint of the ramus and not at the joint.

Answer 82

a. When the mouth is closed, the convex condyle rides forwards on to the articular eminence.

closed mouth = convex condyle moves forward

Question 83

The following is true in a malunion fracture complication, EXCEPT
a. there was inadequate fracture reduction.
b. if the malunion is slight, it may not have to be corrected because the correction procedure could cause delayed union or nonunion.
c. if malunion is detected after healing is complete, surgical correction is necessary to obtain a more normal position for healing.
d. the fracture has healed incorrectly, leaving the bone de formed, weak, and possibly causing pain.
e. if malunion is detected before healing is complete, surgical correction is necessary to align the bone fragments.

Answer 83

e. if malunion is detected before healing is complete, surgical correction is necessary to align the bone fragments.

malunion before healing is complete = reduction, angulation, manipulation first
If still unaddressed: surgery

Question 84

Dividing the body into front and back, abduction and adduction occurs in this plane.
a. Frontal
b. Transfrontal
c. Horizontal
d. Sagittal
e. Transverse

Answer 84

a. Frontal

Question 85

Dividing the body into right and left, flexion and extension occurs in which plane?
a. Transverse
b. Sagittal
c. Frontal
d. Horizontal

Answer 85

b. Sagittal

Question 86

Upon actively flexing the head, the client complains of electric shock sensations radiating down the
spine into the legs. This sign is termed _________.
a. Spurling’s
b. Lhermitte’s
c. Laseque’s
d. Lasegne’s

Answer 86

b. Lhermitte’s

Question 87

What is the correct position when testing the shoulder abduction muscles grades normal to fair?
a. Prone
b. Sidelying
c. Supine
d. Sitting

Answer 87

d. Sitting

Question 88

When a muscle contracts and produces tension with no change in the angle of the joint, such
contraction is:
a. Eccentric
b. Isokinetic
c. Isometric
d. Isotonic

Answer 88

c. Isometric

Question 89

The following statements apply to condylar fractures of the knee, EXCEPT:
a. Supracondylar fractures may be caused by direct trauma or by a torsion stress placed upon the lower extremity
b. Prolonged, rigid immobilization is usually unnecessary, but months following the injury
c. Usually, there is an anterior displacement of the distal fragment caused by the muscular action of the gastrocnemius muscles as well as a reduction of the femoral length by the action of the hamstring and the quadriceps femoris muscles
d. Femoral condyles are rarely injured, and fractures of the femur may be of the “Y” or “T” type and usually include soft tissue damage
e. Single condylar fracture often occur from severe varus or valgus forces and the fracture line may be vertical and in the sagittal plane or it may be vertical and in the coronal plane.

Answer 89

c. Usually, there is an anterior displacement of the distal fragment caused by the muscular action of the gastrocnemius muscles as well as a reduction of the femoral length by the action of the hamstring and the quadriceps femoris muscles

anterior displacement no longer involve the quads and hamstring

Question 90

What is the correct position when testing the shoulder abduction muscles grades poor to zero?
a. Sitting
b. Prone
c. Sidelying
d. Supine

Answer 90

a. Sitting

supine is an alternate position

Question 91

What fracture does NOT involve the bones of the foot?
a. Jone’s
b. Nutcracker
c. Jefferson’s
d. Shepherd’s

Answer 91

c. Jefferson’s

Jefferson’s - burst fx of ring of atlas/C1

Jone’s - 5th MT
Shepherd’s - lateral tubercle of talus
Nutcracker - calcaneocuboid

Question 92

Delayed union is a fracture complication wherein callus formation is retarded, so the fracture fails to mend within the normal healing time. Factors contributing to this complication include the following EXCEPT: ______________.
a. Defective metabolism, especially protein metabolism
b. Infection of the surrounding tissues (as in open fracture)
c. Vitamin E deficiency
d. Inadequate fracture manipulation

Answer 92

c. Vitamin E deficiency

Vit. D deficiency contributes to impaired bone healing

Question 93

What is the motor nerve to the muscles of mastication?
a. Trigeminal
b. Vagus
c. Facial
d. Oculomotor

Answer 93

a. Trigeminal (mixed)

Sensory: sensation of the face
Motor: ms of mastication

Question 94

What movements are performed against resistance, with constant load and tension?
a. Eccentric
b. Isotonic
c. Isometric
d. Isokinetic

Answer 94

b. Isotonic

Question 95

Which of the following statements describe the temporomandibular joint?
I. As the mouth is opened, the head of the mandible moves forwards and the angle moves backwards.
II. The joint can be felt and its movement appreciated by the palpating finger.
III. As the mouth is closed, the head of the mandible moves forwards and the angle moves backwards.
IV. When the mouth is closed, the convex condyle rides forwards on to the articular eminence.
V. The center of this movement is near the midpoint of the ramus and not at the joint.
a. II, III and IV
b. I, II, and III
c. I, II and V
d. II, III and V

Answer 95

c. I, II and V

Question 96

A therapist positions a client in prone with the knee flexed to 70 degrees prior to completing a manual muscle test of the hamstrings. To isolate the biceps femoris the therapist should:
a. Place the thigh in slight medial rotation and the leg in slight medial rotation on the thigh
b. Position the knee in 120 degrees of flexion
c. Place the thigh in slight lateral rotation and the leg in slight lateral rotation on the thigh
d. Position the knee in 100 degrees of flexion

Answer 96

c. Place the thigh in slight lateral rotation and the leg in slight lateral rotation on the thigh

Question 97

What type of joint is the glenohumeral joint?
a. Trochoid
b. Spheroid
c. Ginglymus
d. Syndesmosis
e. Sellar

Answer 97

b. Spheroid

trochoid - pivot
ginglymous - hinge
syndesmosis - synarthrodial
sellar - saddle

Question 98

The following statements describe elbow joint range of motion, EXCEPT:
a. Flexion and extension originate primary at the humeroulnar and humeroradial joints
b. Involves the movements of elbow flexion and extension, forearm supination and pronation
c. The subject may sit but not stand during the AROM test with the examiner at his side but not directly in front
d. The radial head revolves at its articulation with the capitellum during supination and pronation
e. Supination and pronation occurs at the radioulnar articulations at the elbow and wrist

Answer 98

c. The subject may sit but not stand during the AROM test with the examiner at his side but not directly in front

Question 99

A therapist records the vital signs of individuals at a health and wellness fair. Which age group
should the therapist expect to have the highest resting pulse rate?
a. Children
b. Adults
c. Elderly
d. Infants
e. Women

Answer 99

d. Infants

Question 100

The following statements describe balanced suspension traction, EXCEPT: _________.
a. The weight that suspends the affected extremity is greater than the weight of the countertraction being applied
b. This assembly allows more range of motion than other forms of traction without affecting the line of traction pull
c. Most commonly used to support leg injuries such as femoral fractures with displacement, and nonaligned bone fragments.
d. This assembly promotes neurovascular integrity by decreasing prolonged pressure on the back of the patient’s leg

Answer 100

a. The weight that suspends the affected extremity is greater than the weight of the countertraction being applied

weight suspended/weight of countertraction = weight of extremity

Question 101

The infrahyoids are the
I. Sternohyoid
II. Sternothyroid
III. Stylohyoid

a. II and III
b. I and III
c. I, II and III
d. I and II

Answer 101

d. I and II

Infrahyoid (TOSS)
- Thyrohyoid, omohyoid, sternohyoid, sternothyroid

Suprahyoid (DMSG)
- digastric, mylohyoid, stylohyoid, geniohyoid

Question 102

When a muscle contracts to eliminate some undesired movement that would otherwise be produced by the prime mover, it is said to be a/an
a. prime mover.
b. co-ordinator.
c. synergist.
d. fixators.
e. antagonist

Answer 102

c. synergist

Question 103

During MMT of the right gastrocnemius muscle, what grade would you assign this muscle if your
client were able to stand on his right leg and get up on his toes and complete 20 heel raises?
a. 3+
b. 4
c. 5
d. 3

Answer 103

b. 4

5 = 25

Question 104

What is the correct position when testing the hip abduction muscles grades normal to fair?
a. Sidelying
b. Supine
c. Sitting
d. Prone

Answer 104

a. Sidelying

Question 105

This is to test brachial plexus injury, brachial plexus neuritis or Meningitis.
a. Westphal
b. Keri
c. Lhermittes
d. Bіkеlе

Answer 105

d. Bіkеlе

Bikele sign (active ULTT 4)

Question 106

The silver fork deformity results from an unreduced or inadequately reduced
a. fracture of the lower ulna
b. fracture of one or more carpals
c. fracture of the first metacarpal
d. Colle’s fracture

Answer 106

d. Colle’s fracture

Colle’s - radial fracture c dorsal displacement ; MOI: FOOSH

Question 107

A golfer, while swinging to drive the ball, felt an immediate sharp pain in the right lower back. The day after patient reported stiffness with easing of pain after a shower. With these
information, the source of pain is MOST LIKELY:
a. Nerve root compression
b. Facet joint impingement
c. A stress fracture
d. Diminished blood supply to the spinal cord

Answer 107

b. Facet joint impingement

Question 108

A patient with pain in the left lateral face and head is found to have limited active and passive mouth opening range of motion. However, passive lateral deviation is full to both sides. The probable cause for the limitation in mouth opening range of motion is .
a. An anteriorly displaced disc without reduction in the left
temporomandibular joint
b. Decreased flexibility in the muscles of mastication on the left
c. Capsular restriction of the left temporomandibular joint
d. Decreased flexibility in the muscles of mastication on the left

Answer 108

b. Decreased flexibility in the muscles of mastication on the left

no LOM in passive movement = muscular issue

Question 109

In order to determine if an exercise session should be terminated, the patient assesses the
level of exertion using the BORG Rating of Perceived Exertion Scale. The patient rates the level
of exertion as 11 on the 6-19 scale. A rating of 11 corresponds to which of the following:
a. Very, very light
b. Very light
c. Somewhat hard
d. Fairly light

Answer 109

d. Fairly light

Question 110

A major reason cervical traction is done intermittently is
a. machine will not overheat
b. to increase blood flow to that area
c. greater poundage can be tolerated
d. all of these

Answer 110

c. greater poundage can be tolerated

Question 111

In a wellness center, a PT was assigned to do a study that examines body composition as a
function of aerobic exercise and diet. The method of data collection that would provide the MOST accurate of body composition is .
a. Skin fold measurements
b. Hydrostatic weighing
c. Bioelectrical impedance
d. Anthropometric measurement

Answer 111

b. Hydrostatic weighing

Question 112

Body composition is defined as the relative percentage of body weight that is comprised of fat and fat free tissue. Aside from skin fold measurement and hydrostatic weighing, the other methods are the following EXCEPT:
a. Bioelectrical impedance analysis
b. Body Mass Index
c. Plethysmography
d. Fat content analysis

Answer 112

d. Fat content analysis

fat content analysis = analyzes contents of fat, not amount of fat in the body

Question 113

A 32-year-old male diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis reports progressive stiffening of the spine and associated pain for more than five years. The patient’s MOST typical standing posture demonstrates .
a. Lateral curvature of the spine with fixed rotation of the vertebrae
b. Posterior thoracic rib hump
c. Excessive lumbar curve flattened thoracic curve
d. Flattened lumbar curve, exaggerated thoracic curve

Answer 113

d. Flattened lumbar curve, exaggerated thoracic curve

Question 114

The MOST effective energy utilization takes place in __________ contraction.
a. eccentric
b. isometric
c. concentric
d. isokinetic

Answer 114

a. eccentric

Question 115

A patient recently admitted to an acute care hospital is referred to physical therapy. The PT
documents the following clinical signs: pallor, cyanosis, and cool skin. These clinical signs are MOST consistent with ________________.
a. Hypertension
b. Anemia
c. Diaphoresis
d. Cor pulmonale

Answer 115

b. Anemia

Question 116

Which of the statements about developmental motor control is NOT TRUE?
a. isotonic control develops before isometric control
b. gross motor control develops prior to fine motor control
c. eccentric movement develops prior to concentric movement
d. trunk control develops prior to distal extremity control

Answer 116

a. isotonic control develops before isometric control

Question 117

A PT is evaluating a 76-year-old female with chronic forward head posturing in standing and sitting. To decrease the forward beading, the PT
should stretch the _____________.
a. longus capitis and longus colli muscles
b. rectus capitis posterior minor and rectus capitis posterior major muscles
c. rectus capitis anterior muscles
d. middle trapezius and rhomboid muscles

Answer 117

b. rectus capitis posterior minor and rectus capitis posterior major muscles

Question 118

A 60-year-old male patient was referred to PT for an exercise testing after experiencing shortness of breath twice 2 weeks prior to consultation. After monitoring the vital signs, the data collected are interpreted. The BEST indicator that patient had exerted maximal effort is
__________.
a. Decrease in diastolic BP of mmHg when compared to the resting value
b. Rating of 12 on a perceived exertion scale
c. Failure of the heart rate to increase with further increase in intensity
d. Rise in systolic diastolic BP of 50 mmHg when compared to the resting value

Answer 118

c. Failure of the heart rate to increase with further increase in intensity

Question 119

For each degree in Fahrenheit use in body temperature, pulse rate will increase about beats.
a. 14
b. 4
c. 6
d. 10

Answer 119

d. 10

Question 120

A PT will evaluate the shoulder of a patient with hepatitis B. PT finds no open wound abrasions. Patient has good hygiene. The prescription includes passive range of motion because of adhesive capsulitis. Which of these precautions is absolutely necessary to prevent infection for
PT?
a. PT should wear gloves
b. none of these
c. PT should wear a mask
d. PT should wear a gown

Answer 120

b. none of these

Question 121

What does it take to be an effective leader? All of the following are examples EXCEPT:
a. Provide little control or feedback
b. Resolve conflict early
c. Provide subordinates an opportunity for growth
d. Encourage creativity and innovation

Answer 121

a. Provide little control or feedback

Question 122

A patient exhibits weak quadriceps (4/5) and complains of difficulty in descending stairs. Among the techniques below, the BEST exercise to regain strength in the quadriceps is
a. isokinetic exercise at 36 degrees/second
b. partial sit-ups later progressing to lunges
c. progressive resistance exercises. 70 percent IRM, 3 sets of 10
d. maximum isometric exercise, at 45 and 90 degrees of knee extension

Answer 122

b. partial sit-ups later progressing to lunges

Question 123

In the functional balance grades, what rate will you give a patient who is able to maintain balance while weight shifting? (JD)
a. fair
b. poor
c. normal
d. good

Answer 123

d. good

Question 124

A patient with multiple sclerosis is a subject in a research study testing the efficacy of a new medication. The patient reports that the medication she is taking makes her feel much better and allows her to move more easily. At the end of the study, it is revealed that she was part of the control groups. Her responses are MOST LIKELY due to
a. sampling bias
b. pretest - treatment interference
c. placebo effect
d. Hawthorne effect

Answer 124

c. placebo effect

Question 125

Patient comes to therapy because of poor motor control of the Lower extremities PT determines that to work efficiently toward bringing the patient back to prior level of ambulation, he must follow this sequence of control
a. stability, controlled stability, mobility skill
b. mobility, stability, controlled mobility, skill
c. mobility, controlled mobility, stability, skill
d. skill, controlled stability, controlled mobility

Answer 125

b. mobility, stability, controlled mobility, skill

Question 126

This is a test for thoracic outlet syndrome where patient is positioned in sitting or supine. The
therapist moves the patient’s arm overhead in the frontal plane while monitoring the patient’s
radial pulse. A positive test is indicated by an absent or diminished radial pulse and may be
indicative of compression in the costoclavicular space.
a. Roos
b. Allen
c. Adson maneuver
d. Wright test

Answer 126

d. Wright test

Question 127

A 52-year-old male weighing 175 lbs. complained of left neck pain radiating to his left thumb. His Spurling’s sign was positive in the left with depressed left biceps jerk. His X-rays showed a spondylosis with narrowing of his C5-C6 interspace. The program would MOST LIKELY include
____________.
a. Continuous traction, sitting, with neck at neutral with 20 lbs weight
b. Intermittent cervical traction, supine with neck in 20 degrees of flexion and poundage gradually increasing to 30 lbs
c. Continuous traction lying down with a single pulley in the headboard holding a weight of 10 lbs which may be increased to 30
d. Intermittent cervical traction while sitting with neck flexed at 45 degrees and poundage gradually increasing to 10 newtons

Answer 127

b. Intermittent cervical traction, supine with neck in 20 degrees of flexion and poundage gradually increasing to 30 lbs

C1-C2 0-5deg
C2-C5 10-20deg
C5-C8 25-30deg

Question 128

A grade of Fair of lumbar extensors means that the patient is able to do this:
a. Clear the upper chest off the table
b. Clear the umbilicus off the table
c. Clear the costal rib off the table
d. Clear the xiphoid process off the table

Answer 128

b. Clear the umbilicus off the table

Question 129

In measuring wrist flexion with a goniometer, the bony landmark used to align the instrument are
a. Lateral condyle of the humerus and the ulna
b. Styloid process of the ulna and
the fifth proximal IP joint
c. Lateral midline of the ulna and
the fifth metacarpal
d. Lateral midline of the radius and first metacarpal

Answer 129

c. Lateral midline of the ulna and
the fifth metacarpal

Fulcrum: lateral aspect of the wrist, over triquetrum

Question 130

A 50-year-old paraplegic was referred for evaluation and management after one week of bed inactivity. The MMT yielded: upper extremity muscles were grossly graded 3+/5, both hip
flexors and extensor graded 3/5, both quadriceps is 2+/5 and both ankle dorsiflexors are 2-/5.
Initial goals of treatment should be ______.
a. Increase muscle strength
b. All of these
c. Increase postural tolerance
d. Independence in ADL

Answer 130

a. Increase muscle strength

Question 131

Proper positioning of the upper extremity in supine would best be described as shoulder _______.
a. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow fully extended.
b. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degrees.
c. In neutral, elbow flexed to 90 degrees.
d. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 45 degrees.

Answer 131

b. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degrees.

Question 132

The annular ligament at the elbow facilitates which of the following motions?
a. Extension of the elbow
b. Pronation of the forearm and flexion of the elbow
c. Supination of the forearm and flexion of the elbow
d. Pronation and supination of the forearm

Answer 132

d. Pronation and supination of the forearm

Question 133

The following statements describe the acromioclavicular joint EXCEPT
a. no loss of scapular rotation was apparent with acromioclavicular joint fixation.
b. range of motion of the scapula is equal to the sum of sternoclavicular and
acromioclavicular ranges of motion.
c. the joint has two axes and two degrees of freedom. It contributes 20 degrees of scapular elevation and about 20 degrees of upward rotation during full arm elevation.
d. the glenoid fossa is aligned with the humeral head during shoulder flexion or abductionthrough small anterior and posterior movements of the acromion

Answer 133

c. the joint has two axes and two degrees of freedom. It contributes 20 degrees of scapular elevation and about 20 degrees of upward rotation during full arm elevation.

the joint has 3 axes and 3 degrees of freeedom

Question 134

The following statements describe the triquetrium EXCEPT:
a. Lies just distal to the ulnar styloid process, in the proximal row
b. It lies under the pisiform
c. Palpated by radially deviating the hand
d. Third highest of all the carpal bones in incidence of fracture
e. Formed within the flexor ulnaris tendon

Answer 134

e. Formed within the flexor ulnaris tendon

the pisiform is formed within the FCU tendon

Question 135

The following applies to radio-ulnar articulation, EXCEPT the:
a. proximal joint lies within the capsule of the elbow joint.
b. axis of motion is represented proximally by a line through the center of head of the ulna and distally through the center of the head of the radius.
c. radius rotate in relation to the ulna due to the connection between them.
d. one degree of freedom allows pronation and supination only.

Answer 135

b. axis of motion is represented proximally by a line through the center of head of the ulna and distally through the center of the head of the radius.

proximally through the center of the head of the radius and distally through the center of the head of the ulna

Question 136

Which of the following statements correctly describe abduction of the arm at the shoulder?
I. The rotator cuff muscles depress the head of the humerus during shoulder
abduction to prevent impingement of the humerus on the acromion
II. Internal rotation of the humerus accompanies complete abduction
III. Abduction is produced by means of the deltoid and supraspinatus musclesworking together.
IV. External rotation of the humerus accompanies complete abduction.
V. Abduction is more powerful in the position of external rotation than in theposition of internal rotation

a. I, II, III and IV
b. I, II, and IV
c. I, III, IV, and V
d. I, IV, and V

Answer 136

c. I, III, IV, and V

Question 137

What is the function of the acromioclavicular joint?
I. Vital joint to force transmission in the upper extremity
II. Permits the scapula to glide forward and backward on the clavicle in
congruence with the direction of the humeral head
III. Allow scapula to move sideways on the chest when the arm is raised

a. I
b. I and II
c. I and III
d. II

Answer 137

b. I and II

Question 138

What long muscles flex the second to fifth digits of the IP joints?
I. Flexor digitorum superficialis
II. Palmaris longus
III. Lumbricals and interossei
IV. Flexor digitorum profundus
V. Flexor pollicis longus

a. I and IV
b. III, IV, and V
c. II and III
d. I, II, and IV

Answer 138

a. I and IV

technically I, IV, and V are correct but choose the closest/most accurate answer

Question 139

9. Which progressive resistive exercise functions to strengthen the infraspinatus and teres minor?
   a. extension of the shoulder with dumbbell weights
   b. external rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing
   c. internal rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing
   d. flexion of the shoulder with dumbbell weights

Answer 139

b. external rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing

Question 140

Which of the following is a beneficial effect of Cryotherapy?
a. Decrease muscle spasticity
b. Increase collagenase activity in synovium
c. Analgesia
d. Produce sedation

Answer 140

c. Analgesia

Question 141

Which muscle does NOT flex the hand at the wrist joint?
a. Flexor carpi ulnaris
b. Pronator teres
c. Palmaris longus
d. Flexor carpi radialis

Answer 141

b. Pronator teres

Question 142

A therapist checks the water temperature of the hot pack machine after several clients report theheat being very strong. Which of the following temperatures is acceptable?
a. 190 degrees Fahrenheit
b. 130 degrees Fahrenheit
c. 88 degrees Celsius
d. 71 degrees Celsius

Answer 142

d. 71 degrees Celsius

Question 143

During wrist flexion at what joint(s) does the motion occur?
a. Midcarpal joint only
b. Majority at the radiocarpal joint with some motion at the midcarpal joint
c. Majority at the midcarpal joint with some motion at the radiocarpal joint
d. Radiocarpal joint only

Answer 143

b. Majority at the radiocarpal joint with some motion at the midcarpal joint

FREM (flexion radiocarpal, extension midcarpal)

Question 144

Which of the following statements do NOT apply to elbow flexion range of motion?
a. It has hard end-feel on contact of muscles between arm and forearm.
b. The contact of the muscles between the forearm and arm can stop the motion
c. The subjects with little soft-tissue have a hard end-feel
d. The normal variation is between 120 to 160 degrees

Answer 144

a. It has hard end-feel on contact of muscles between arm and forearm.

generally soft but may have hard end feel in pts with little soft tissue

Question 145

A patient has difficulty maintaining balance while walking. Upon observation of his gait, it showed to be ataxic. Cerebellar dysfunction was ruled out. To diagnose the condition, this cervical nerve must be tested to diagnose the condition?
a. 10
b. 6
c. 12
d. 8

Answer 145

d. 8

might mean cranial not cervical nerve
CN 8 = vestibulocochlear

Question 146

Which of the following structures provide stability of the acromioclavicular joint?
I. Shape of the joint
II. Acromioclavicular ligament
III. Strong joint capsule
IV. Conoid and trapezoid

a. I and II
b. I and III
c. IV only
d. II and IV

Answer 146

d. II and IV

Question 147

Which of the following statements does NOT describe the Median Nerve?
a. It enters the palm with the long tendons and supplies the three thenar muscles, and all lumbrical
b. It gives off branch only until it reaches the elbow region
c. As it passes the cubital fossa, it gives off a deep branch, the Anterior Interosseous Nerved. It is formed from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus

Answer 147

a. It enters the palm with the long tendons and supplies the three thenar muscles, and all lumbrical

supplies the three thenar muscles and the lateral lumbricals. the medial lumbricals are supplied by the ulnar N.

LMUM (lateral median, ulnar medial)

Question 148

The following statements are true of the shoulder joint EXCEPT
a. the ligaments are few and only provide stability in limited joint ranges of motion
b. an implication of the shoulder’s structural modification to increase mobility is that it relieson muscles to provide adequate stability.
c. the articular surfaces of the humeral head and the glenoid fossa of the scapula lack
congruity.
d. the scapula, which forms the mobile base of the shoulder joint, has minimal passive
suspension from the skeleton via the acromioclavicular joint and coracoclavicular ligament.
e. the joint capsule is thin and lax, allowing up to 5 cm of traction between articular surfaces.

Answer 148

e. the joint capsule is thin and lax, allowing up to 5 cm of traction between articular surfaces.

only allows up to 2-3cm of traction

Question 149

C5, C6 and the lateral cord receive contributions from the
a. middle trunk.
b. upper trunk.
c. medial cord.
d. lower trunk.
e. anterior cord.

Answer 149

a. middle trunk.

should probably be the lateral cord receives contributions from C5, C6, and ___

Question 150

Plantar-flexion contractures can interfere with the performance of functional tasks through
I. increases in plantar flexor moment when the ankle is in dorsiflexed positions
II. increased peak hip extension in late stance phase
III. increased ankle dorsiflexion during the swing phase
IV. knee hyperextension during the stance phase
V. soft tissues passively limiting dorsiflexion to the muscle moment developed about the ankle during the stance phase

a. I, II and III
b. I, III and IV
c. I, IV and V
d. I and III only
e. II, IV and V

Answer 150

c. I, IV and V

plantarflexion decreases hip extension moment in stance phase so II is wrong

Question 151

The feet slap the ground in this high stepping ataxic gait pattern.
a. Tabetic
b. Antalgic
c. Double step
d. Steppage

Answer 151

a. Tabetic

steppage is high stepping gait
tabetic is ataxic + high stepping

Question 152

The Median Nerve innervates the following structures, EXCEPT:
a. The skin of the palm
b. Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
c. Flexor Carpi Radialis
d. All interossei, Opponens Pollicis

Answer 152

d. All interossei, Opponens Pollicis

median N -> FDS, FCR, Opponens pollicis, some part of the skin of the palm

ulnar N - interossei (UNI)

Question 153

A therapist is measuring shoulder external rotation. Proper positioning of the upper extremity insupine would best be described as shoulder _______.
a. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow fully extended.
b. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degrees.
c. In neutral, elbow flexed to 90 degrees.
d. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 45 degrees.

Answer 153

b. Abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degrees.

Question 154

Throughout its course, the median nerve accompanies what artery as it enters the upper arm onthemedial side of the humerus?
a. Median
b. Brachial
c. Ulnar
d. Radial

Answer 154

b. Brachial

Question 155

The ability to hold the arms extended above the head is impaired in weakness of the shoulder girdlefrom any cause. The following statements are true when testing for shoulder and arm strength EXCEPT: ______________.
a. A painful atrophic shoulder joint will limit movement and seriously interfere in the diagnosis of a neurologic lesion.
b. When weakness of the deltoid interferes with scapular winging testing, another method is to push against the wall with outstretched arms, first one side and then the other.
c. Impairment in function of the trapezius, serratus anticus or other muscles stabilizing the shoulder girdle may compromise the ability of the deltoid to hold the arms abducted at 900against the examiner’s downward pressure.
d. When the serratus anticus is weak, the upper angle of the scapula will wing out and be displaced medialward and up.

Answer 155

d. When the serratus anticus is weak, the upper angle of the scapula will wing out and be displaced medialward and up

lateralward