Final coaching Flashcards

1
Q

s/sx for respiratory alkalosis

A

STD c tingling and numbness
- syncope, tetany, dizziness

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2
Q

s/sx of respiratory acidosis (early and late)

A

early: HARDy
- Headache, anxiety, restlessness, dyspnea

late: CCS
- confusion, coma, somnolence

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3
Q

s/sx for metabolic alkalosis

A

WTMD
- ms weakness, early tetany, mental dullness

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4
Q

causes for metabolic alkalosis (4)

A

excessive intake of bicarb, diuretics, steroids; vomiting

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5
Q

s/sx for metabolic acidosis

A

(KNAL)
Kussmaul breathing, nausea/vomiting, cardiac arrhythmia, lethargy/coma

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6
Q

causes for metabolic acidosis

A

DARS
diabetes, alcohol, renal failure, starvation

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7
Q

order and percent of disc pressure percent
cough:
laugh:
walking:
side bending:
small jumps:
bending forward:
rotation:
lifting c back straight knees bent:
lifting c back bent knees straight:

A

CWRSLSLBL
cat was running, sliding, landing so lucy bit lol

cough: 5-35%
walk: 15%
rotation: 20%
side bending: 25%
lifting c back straight knees bent: 73%
small jumps: 40%
laugh: 40-50%
bending forward: 150%
lifting c back bent knees straight: 169%

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8
Q

SLR 1

A

FED/ST
hip flexion
knee ext
foot DF

sciatic, tibial

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9
Q

SLR 2

A

FEDEE/T

hip flexion
knee ext
ankle DF, Ev
toe ext

tibial

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10
Q

SLR 3

A

FEDIS

hip flex
knee ext
ankle DF, inv

sural

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11
Q

SLR 4

A

FEPIC

hip flex
knee ext
ankle PF, inv

CPN

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12
Q

SLR 5 (well leg)

A

PED

hip flex
knee ext
ankle DF

nerve prolapse (done on unaffected leg)

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13
Q

primary antibody response

A

IgM

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14
Q

most common antibody receptor, only antibody that crosses the placenta

A

IgG

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15
Q

antibody responsible for allergic reaction

A

IgE

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16
Q

most abundant antibody, found in saliva tears breast milk

A

IgA

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17
Q

antibody that activates B cells

A

IgD

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18
Q

epimysium

A

muscle

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19
Q

perimysium

A

fascicle

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20
Q

endomysium

A

ms fiber

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21
Q

renin

A

angiotensinogen -> A1

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22
Q

ACE

A

A1 -> A2

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23
Q

A2

A

release aldosterone

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24
Q

zona glomerulosa

A

mineralocorticoid aldosterone release

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25
zona fasciculata
glucocorticoid cortisol release
26
zona reticulata
androgen
27
be careful to see my new face book
bone, cartilage, tendon, skin, muscle, nerve, fat, blood protein: most to least fluid: least to most
28
stage 2 dermal wound (intensity, frequency, DC, tx time, area)
0.2-1 W/cm2; 3 MHz; 20% DC; 1-2min per area; around wound's edges
29
stage 3 & 4 dermal wound (intensity, frequency, DC, tx time, area)
0.2-1 W/cm2; 1 MHz; 20% DC; 1-2min per area; around wound's edges
30
madelung's deformity
ulnar prominence, radius and wrist volarly displaced
31
scaphoid fx
preiser dse
32
lunate fx
kienboch dse
33
patella fx
kohler dse
34
navicular fx.
kohler dse
35
talus fx
mouchet dse
36
vertebral epiphysis fx
scheuermann
37
calcaneal apophysis fx
sever's dse
38
accessory tarsal navicular OR os tibiale externum
haglund dse
39
2nd MTT fx
freiberg
40
proximal tibial epiphysis
blount dse
41
tibial tuberosity
osgood schlatter
42
secondary patellar center
sinding-larsen-johansson dse
43
distal epiphysis of ulna or distal lunate
burns dse
44
capitulum of humerus
panner
45
bennett's fx
1st MC
46
boxer's fx
5th MC
47
baseball finger
DIP dorsal avulsion fx of base of distal phalanx
48
bunk bed fx
intraarticular fx. of 1st MTT fx in children
49
chance fx
lap type seat belt fx. vert body compression
50
colle's fx.
radius fx. dorsal displacement
50
clay shovelers
cervical vertebrae spinous process fx.
50
duverney fx
iliac wing fx
51
essex lopresti
comminuted fx of radial head with dislocation of distal RU jt
52
galeazzi fx
radial fx. c radial head d/L
53
jefferson fx
C1 burst fx.
54
jones fx
5th MTT fx
55
maisonnueve fx.
prox 1/3 of fibula + torn syndesmosis
56
malgaigne fx.
double vertical fx ant& post pelvic ring
57
march fx
2nd MTT
58
monteggia fx
ulnar fx.
59
pilon fx
tibial plafond fx
60
rolando fx
1st MC comminuted fx.
61
runner's fx
distal fibula fx.
62
segond fx
avulsion fx, of lat tibial condyle at gerdy's tubercle (ITB insertion)
63
ski boot fx
distal third of tibia and fibula
64
smith fx
fracture of distal radius c volar displacement
65
steida fx
medial femoral condyle fx at MCL
66
teardrop fracture
comminuted vertebral body fx c ant displacement
67
cotton fx
trimalleolar fx
67
torus fx
compression fx of long bone in or near metaphysis
68
MOI and mx of trimalleolar fx
MOI: abduction/ER force; adduction force mx: ORIF
69
4 autonomic/parasympathetic ganglia (location- CN)
ciliary ganglion - CN3 (hay fever) pterygopalatine/sphenopalatine - CN7 submandibular ganglion - CN7 otic ganglion - 9
70
norepinephrine site of production
loecus coereleus
71
dopamine site of production/release
substantia nigra pars compacta
72
serotonin site of production/release
raphe nucleus
73
acetylcholine site of production/release
nucleus basalis of Meynert
74
MS variant with isolated optic N affectation
Devic's
75
denial of blindness
anton's syndrome
76
benign GBS (triad: ataxia, opthalmoplegia, areflexia)
miller-fisher
77
type of PD involving severe autonomic failure
shy-drager syndrome (AKA multiple system atrophy MSA)
78
congenital facial palsy
moebius syndrome
79
limbic system components
HATCH hypothalamus, amygdala, thalamus, cingulate gyrus, hippocampus
80
other term for the hippocampus
ammon's horn (cornu ammonis)
81
dysfunction of the amygdala; hypersexuality
kluver bucy syndrome
82
inability to recognize the form and shape of objects by touch
astereognosis/tactile agnosia
83
painful burning sensations, usually along nerve distribution
causalgia
84
loss of light touch sensibility
thigmanesthesia
85
vascular lesion of the thalamus resulting in sensory disturbances and partial or complete paralysis of one side of the body, associated with severe boring-type pain; sensory stimulus = exaggerated, prolonged, painful response
thalamic syndrome/dejerine-roussy
86
specific part of thalamus for temp regulation
ant hypothalamus and preoptic area
87
paleo cerebellum (3)
PASP ant., spinocerebellum, postural tone
88
neo cerebellum (3)
Large NPoCor largest, posterior, coordination
89
archi cerebellum (4)
BAFOV oldest, flocculonodular, vestibulocerebellum, balance
90
CSF flow
Choroid plexus lateral ventricles foramen of Monroe 3rd ventricle Sylvian/cerebral aqueduct 4th ventricle 2 Luschka, 1 Magendie Subarachnoid space (to S2) Arachnoid villi Dural venous sinuses
91
peak torque of quads (deg)
60 deg of flexion
92
peak activity of quads + common compensation
HS -> FF forward lurch
93
peak activity GMax + common compensation
HS/IC backward lurch
94
peak activity GMed + common compensation
MStance Trendelenburg -> lat lurch or list
95
ACL/PCL orientation, tautest/laxest during?
ACL - PLS; ExIR taut, 30-60flex lax PCL - SAM; 30flex taut; early flex lax
96
peak activity Hams + common compensation
TSwing / decceleration
97
intrinsic foot muscles layers
1: ADM, FDB, Abd Hallucis 2: Lumbricals, quadratus plantae; master knot of henry: FHL & FDL tendons 3: FHB, FDMB, Add Hallucis 4: interossei; TP, P
98
master knot of henry comprised of what tendons?
FHL & FDL tendons
99
weber syndrome lesion, affected (2)
medial basal midbrain CN 3 - I/L CN3 palsy CST - C/L hemiplegia
100
benedikt syndrome lesion, affected (5)
tegmentum of the midbrain CN 3 - I/L CN3 palsy STT - C/L body P/T DCP - C/L prop sup. cerebellar peduncle - C/L ataxia red nucleus - C/L chorea
101
locked-in syndrome lesion, affected (2), spared
B basal pons CST - quadriplegia CBT - face and neck paralysis spared: upward gaze
102
millard-gubler syndrome lesion, affected (3)
lateral pons CN 6 - I/L CN 6 palsy CN 7 - I/L CN 7 palsy CST - C/L hemiplegia
103
wallenberg syndrome lesion, affected (5)
lateral medulla CN 5 - I/L facial pain and temp STT - C/L body P/T nucleus ambiguus - dysphagia, dysphonia vestib nuclei - I/L nystagmus spinocerebellar - I/L ataxia
104
frontal gaze palsy (type of stroke syndrome)
ACA
105
asymptomatic stroke (type of stroke syndrome)
ACA
106
amaurosis fugax (type of stroke syndrome)
ICA or optic nerve lesion
107
grasp reflex (type of stroke syndrome)
ACA
108
sucking reflex (type of stroke syndrome)
ACA
109
disconnection apraxia (type of stroke syndrome)
ACA
110
akinetic mutism/abulia (type of stroke syndrome)
ACA
111
dysphagia (type of stroke syndrome)
MCA
112
C/L HH (type of stroke syndrome)
MCA d/t impaired macula
113
agnosia (type of stroke syndrome)
R MCA
114
aphasia (type of stroke syndrome)
L MCA
115
coma/LOC (type of stroke syndrome)
VBA
116
cerebellar signs (type of stroke syndrome)
VBA
117
quadriplegia (type of stroke syndrome)
VBA
118
visual impairment (type of stroke syndrome)
PCA
119
CN involvement (type of stroke syndrome)
VBA
120
memory impairment (type of stroke syndrome)
PCA
121
thalamic pain syndrome (type of stroke syndrome)
PCA
121
hemiballismus (type of stroke syndrome)
PCA
122
weber syndrome (type of stroke syndrome)
PCA
123
locked in syndrome (type of stroke syndrome)
basilar artery
124
benedikt syndrome (type of stroke syndrome)
paramedian penetrating branches of the basilar artery
125
millard gubler syndrome (type of stroke syndrome)
penetrating branches of basilar artery
126
wallenberg syndrome (type of stroke syndrome)
PICA
127
pathology of small subcortical spaces of grey and white matter
lacunar stroke
127
pure motor lacunar stroke lesion, blood supply
post limb of int capsule; LSA
128
pure sensory lacunar stroke lesion, blood supply
thalamus; PCA
129
MC lacunar stroke
pure motor lacunar stroke
130
sensory motor lacunar stroke lesion
jxn of int capsule and thalamus
131
2nd MC lacunar stroke
sensory motor lacunar stroke
132
dysarthria clumsy hand lacunar stroke lesion, blood supply
ant limb of int capsule recurrent art of Huebner
133
ataxic hemiparesis lacunar stroke lesion, blood supply
PICC pons, int capsule, cerebellum, corona radiata
134
LC aphasia
global aphasia
135
global aphasia lesion (2)
MCA, perisylvian area
136
mixed transcortical aphasia lesion (2)
watershed or unlocalized area
137
common sites of DAI
CPP corpus callosum (MC) parasagittal white matter pons and MB
138
glasgow coma scale scoring per item verbal, motor, eyes (grading)
verbal (5) no - 1 inappropriate sounds - 2 inappropriate speech - 3 confused - 4 oriented x3 - 5 motor - 6 no - 1 decerebrate, ext tone - 2 decorticate, flexor tone - 3 withdraws - 4 localizes - 5 commands - 6 eyes no - 1 pressure/pain - 2 speech - 3 spontaneous - 4
139
the great crippler of young adults
MS
140
MC sites affected by MS (5)
PCCOP periventricular white matter cerebellum CST optic N posterior white column of SC
141
medication for ALS
riluzole (rilutek, exservan, Tiglutik)
142
superior continuation of PLL
tectorial membrane
143
congenital elevation of scapula
sprengel's deformity
144
wheelchair ambulation energy expenditure
10%
145
crutch walking energy expenditure
60%
146
single BKA energy expenditure
10-40%
147
single AKA energy expenditure
65%
148
double BKA energy expenditure
41%
149
double AKA energy expenditure
110%
150
1 AKA 1 BKA energy expenditure
75%
151
prosthetic fitting in children above/below elbow
3-6 months
152
prosthetic fitting in children below/above knee jt
8-10 months
153
prosthetic fitting in children active terminal device
2 yo
154
prosthetic fitting in children elbow unit
2-3 yo
155
prosthetic fitting in children fxnal hand
3 yo
156
prosthetic fitting in children actively controlled knee jt
3-4 yo
157
GMFCS: walks c restriction, limited in AGMS
GMFCS 1
158
GMFCS: walks s AD, limited outdoor and comm amb
GMFCS 2
159
GMFCS: walks c AD, limited, limited outdoor and comm amb
GMFCS 3
160
GMFCS: limited self-mob; use of powered/mobility W/C outdoors & comm
GMFCS 4
161
GMFCS: severely limited self-mob even c AD
GMFCS 5
162
other name for grand mal seizures
tonic-clonic
163
5 minutes or more of continuous or clinical electrographic seizure activity or recurrent seizure activity s recovery in between seizures
status epilepticus
164
other name for petit mal seizures
absence seizures
165
other name for atonic seizures
drop seizures
166
blank stare seizure
petit mal seizure
167
sudden falling down and drop head seizure
drop seizure/atonic
168
repeated jerking muscle seizure
clonic seizure
169
sudden brief jerks or twitches of the arms and legs; no LOC
myoclonic seizure
170
classification of intraventricular hemorrhage with pre/definite CP
Pre-CP: I. subependymal hemorrhage II. bleeding into ventricles s dilation Definite CP: III. bleeding into ventricles c dilation IV. periventricular hemorrhage
171
lentiform nucleus components and blood supply
putamen, globus pallidus recurrent artery of Huebner (AKA cerebral artery of apoplexy)
172
neostriatum/striatum components and blood supply
caudate nucleus, putamen LSA
173
AD, orthosis to use: T6-T12
parapodium THKAFO W/C for ALL fxnal mob
174
AD, orthosis to use, functional prognosis: L1, L2
RGO + HKAFO W/C most fxnal mob; short HA
175
AD, orthosis to use, functional prognosis: L3, L4
KAFO W/C for CA; HA
176
AD, orthosis to use, functional prognosis: L5-S1
AFO + ground reaction AFO limited CA; ind HA
177
AD, orthosis to use, functional prognosis: S2 down
supramalleolar orthosis HA, CA s difficulty
178
important crutch walking shoulder depressors (3)
pecs minor lats dorsi lower traps
179
important crutch walking shoulder adductors (2)
pecs major lats dorsi
180
important crutch walking shoulder FAbER (1)
deltoids
181
important crutch walking elbow ext. (2)
triceps, anconeus
182
important crutch walking wrist ext. (3)
ECRL, ECRB, ECU
183
important crutch walking finger and thumb flexors (4)
FDS, FDP FPL, FPB
184
push handle to floor
36"
185
armrest to floor
30"
186
total length W/C
46"
187
total width W/C
23"
188
W/C reach forward
48"
189
W/C reach down
15"
190
W/C reach side to side
24"
191
T6-T12 deformity
kyphoscoliosis
192
L1, L2, L3 deformity
severe hip d/L
193
L4, L5 deformity (2)
mild hip d/L, calcaneovarus
194
S1 deformity
calcaneocavus
195
S2 deformity
clawing of toes
196
S3, S4 deformity
sphincter control prob
197
surprise muscle
occipitofrontalis
198
frowning muscle
corrugator supercilli
199
eye closing ms
orbicularis oculi
200
eye opening ms
levator palpebrae superioris
201
expression of distaste
procerus
202
compression/dilation of nostrils ms (2)
nasalis - compressor and dilator nares
203
smiling ms
zygomatic major
204
sneering ms
levator anguli oris
205
protrusion of upper lip ms
zygomaticus minor
206
protrusion of lower lip ms
depressor labi inferioris
207
grimace
risorius
208
kissing muscle
orbicularis oris
209
blowing, sucking, whistling ms
buccinator
210
pouting ms
mentalis
211
egad
platysma
212
3 ways of measuring scoliosis severity, landmarks to use
cobb's - MC used - superior and inferior end vertebra risser-ferguson - superior and inferior vertebra; apical vertebra nash-moe - pedicle method
213
dorsal column pathway functions (3) and components and fxns (2)
DC: discriminative touch, epicritic sensation, proprioception fasciculus cuneatus (UE), gracilis (LE)
214
1st, 2nd and 3rd order neurons location
1st: DRG 2nd: substantia gelatinosa 3rd: thalamus
215
apprehension test indication
patellar dislocation; movement is forced d/L of patella
216
sit to stand
reciprocal innervation
217
horizontal plane lateral SCC angle
30deg
218
MAS: Slight increase in muscle tone, manifested by a catch and release or by minimal resistance at the end of the range of motion when the affected part(s) is moved in flexion or extension
1
219
MAS: Slight increase in muscle tone, manifested by a catch, followed by minimal resistance throughout the remainder (less than half) of the ROM (range of movement)
1+
220
damages the epidermis and part of the dermis. Symptoms include blisters, redness, swelling, and pain. The burned area may appear wet and shiny, and the skin may be white or discolored in an irregular pattern
deep partial thickness
221
destroys the epidermis, dermis, and often the underlying subcutaneous tissue. Symptoms include a white or blackened and charred appearance,
full partial thickness
222
The examiner applies axial compression through the fourth and fifth metacarpals
TFCC compression test
223
alternative TFCC compression test
axial load ulnar deviate
224
True of the anatomic snuffbox: I. Bounded medially by the EPL (ext. pollicis longus) II. Contains the radial artery and the superficial radial nerve III. Laterally bound by the EPB (extensor pollicis brevis) and APL (adductor pollicis longus) IV. The floor is made up of the scaphoid and triquetrum bone V. Tenderness within the snuffbox may lead to suspicion of scaphoid fracture A. All of these B. I, II, III C. I, II, III, V D. I, II, V E. I, III, V
D. I, II, V
225
toileting degrees of shoulder abduction
40deg
226
All of the following describes the period of rapid filling of the ventricles, Except A. The semilunar valves are closed, the AV valves are opened B. The turbulent flow of blood into the ventricles produces a third heart sound C. Continuous ventricular filling occurs during the middle one third of diastole D. The ventricles relax, but ventricular volume does not change
D. The ventricles relax, but ventricular volume does not change
227
What fissure/s can be found in the right lung? A. Horizontal Fissure B. Oblique Fissure C. Both a and b D. NOTA
C. Both a and b
228
Which of the following describes the continuous breath sounds? A. most prominent during inspiration B. caused by vibrations of air passing through the narrowed airways C. present in CHF Atelectasis D. caused by the sound of gas bubbling through secretions
B. caused by vibrations of air passing through the narrowed airways
229
This type of end feel occurs sooner or later in the ROM than is usual, or in a joint that normally has a firm or hard end. This may feel boggy with fluid shift A. Springy B. Empty C. Hard D. Soft
D. Soft
230
The patient requires moderate assistance and expends 50-75 % of the effort. What is the patient’s FIM level? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
B. 3
231
This reflex is elicited by flicking the terminal phalanx of the index, middle or ring finger. A positive sign indicates increased irritability of sensory nerves in tetany and pathology in the pyramidal tract A. Rossolimo B. Schaeffer C. Piotrowski D. Hoffman
D. Hoffman Rossolimo - tap/percuss ball of foot - exaggerated flexion - pyramidal lesion Schaeffer - pinch Achilles - foot and toe flexion Piotrowski - tap TA - PF + inv/sup Hoffman index middle ring finger; pyramidal tract pathology
232
What is the normal range of flexion of the distal interphalangeal joints? A. 90 degrees B. 100 degrees C. 150 degrees D. 180 degrees
A. 90 degrees MCP, DIP - 90 PIP - 100
233
This tests the structures around the PIP joint. The proximal interphalangeal joint is held in a neutral position while the DIP is flexed by the examiner. If the DIP joint does not flex, the retinacular ligaments or the PIP capsule are taut. If PIP joint is flexed and DIP is flexed easily, the retinacular ligaments are taut and the capsule is normal. A. Haines-Zancolli Test B. Bunnel Littler Test C. Sweater Finger Sign D. Froment Sign
A. Haines-Zancolli Test
234
Allen, Adson, Halstead rotation
allen - same halstead - opposite adson - both sides
235
The fluids outside and inside the cell is important to maintain the homeostasis. Which of the following is true about extracellular fluids and intracellular fluids? A. The intracellular fluids contain large amount of potassium, magnesium, chloride ions. The extracellular contain sodium, bicarbonate ions and phosphate ions B. The intracellular fluids contain large amount of potassium, magnesium, sodium. The extracellular contain sodium, bicarbonate ions and phosphate ions C. The intracellular fluids contain large amount of potassium, magnesium, phosphate ions. The extracellular contain sodium, bicarbonate ions and chloride ions D. NOTA
C. The intracellular fluids contain large amount of potassium, magnesium, phosphate ions. The extracellular contain sodium, bicarbonate ions and chloride ions
236
Which of the following describes the diffusion? I. Diffusion through the cell membrane is divided into two subtypes, called simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion II. Simple Diffusion means that kinetic movement of molecules or ions through a membrane opening or through intermolecular spaces without any interaction with carrier proteins in the membrane III. Facilitated diffusion requires interaction of a carrier protein. IV. The carrier protein in facilitated diffusion aids passage of the molecules or ions through the membrane by binding chemically with them. A. I,II,III B. I,II,III C. I,II,III,IV D. Only I
C. I,II,III,IV
237
_________ migration of each set of chromosomes is complete. The chromosomes unravel to become less distinct chromatin threads. The nuclear envelope forms from the endoplasmic reticulum. The nucleoli form, and cytokinesis continues to produce two cells. A. Prophase B. Metaphase C. Anaphase D. Telophase
D. Telophase
238
(+) mitotic spindle (-) nuclear envelope
prophase
239
midline
metaphase
240
(-) centromere, centromere separation
anaphase
241
(+) nuclear envelope (-) mitotic spindle
telophase
242
Erythropoietin A. inhibits the production of red blood cells. B. production increases when blood oxygen decreases. C. production is inhibited by testosterone. D. All of these are correct.
B. production increases when blood oxygen decreases.
243
Each muscle fiber contains several hundred to several thousands_________ A. myofilament B. myofibrils C. muscle fiber D. fascicle
B. myofibrils
244
All of the following are true about the skeletal muscle fiber, EXCEPT A. A cross-bridge forms when the myosin binds to the actin. B. muscle fiber is a single cell consisting of a plasma membrane (sarcolemma), cytoplasm (sarcoplasm), several nuclei, and myofibrils C. Sarcomeres are bound by Z disks that hold actin myofilaments. D. NOTA
D. NOTA
245
Sacral pain occurs when _________ is stimulated such as during a bowel movement or when passing a gas and relieved after each of these events A. Stomach B. Rectum C. Esophagus D. Small intestine
B. Rectum
246
All of the following are true about the nephron, EXCEPT I. Proximal tubular membranes are highly permeable to water II. As fluid flows down the descending loop of Henle, water is absorbed into the cortex III. The thin ascending limb is essentially impermeable to water but reabsorbs some sodium chloride IV. The thick part of the ascending loop of Henle is also virtually impermeable to water, but large amounts of sodium, chloride, potassium, and other ions are actively transported from the tubule into the medullary interstitium V. The concentration of fluid in the medullary collecting ducts also depends on ADH A. II,III,IV B. II,III C. Only IV D. Only II E. NOTA
D. Only II
247
Areas of reabsorption (c and s ADH) PCT Thin descending LOH Thin ascending LOH Thick ascending LOH DCT CCT MCT
PCT - concentrated Thin descending LOH - concentrated Thin ascending LOH - diluted Thick ascending LOH - diluted DCT - diluted (ADH: concentrated) CCT - diluted (ADH: concentrated) MCT - diluted (ADH: concentrated)
248
most concentrated c ADH
MCT
249
most concentrated s ADH
thin descending LOH
250
most diluted c ADH
thick ascending LOH
251
most diluted s ADH
MCT
252
The following are contraindications of traction, EXCEPT: A. Vascular conditions B. Patients with subacute state of degenerative joint disease C. Hypermobility D. Local and systemic disease affecting joints, ligaments, bones and muscles such as tumors and infections
B. Patients with subacute state of degenerative joint disease ACUTE state of DJD - CI
253
Which ultrasound treatment parameter is recommended for a stage 3 chronic dermal wound? A. 1 MHz at 1.5 watt.cm2 B. 3 MHz at .2-1 watt/cm2 C. 3 MHz at 1.5 watt/cm D. 1 MHz at .2-1 watt/cm2
D. 1 MHz at .2-1 watt/cm2 Stage 2: 3 MHz at .2-1 watt/cm2; 20% duty cycle; around edges 1-2min per area
254
Ultraviolet radiation within this range that will cause anti-rachitic effect is _______ A. 2400-3000 B. 4600-4970 C. 3000-4000 D. 3600-3900
A. 2400-3000
255
antirachitic purpose
treating ricketts - lack of vit D; osteomalacia in kids
256
MC subluxed vertebral level in RA: A. C1-C2 B. C2-C3 C. C4-C5 D. C5-C6
A. C1-C2
257
True about Volkmann’s ischemic contracture: A. FPL and FDP are spared B. Affects the radial artery C. Involves fracture of the forearm, radius, or ulna D. Commonly seen in weightlifter and clerical jobs
C. Involves fracture of the forearm, radius, or ulna
258
neer stage 3 vs 4
stage 3: >40yo; partial tendon tear; osteophyte formation stage 4: >40yo; multiple tendon tear
259
AdCaps 3-9 months, most painful
freezing
260
AdCaps 1-3 months
pre-adhesive
261
AdCaps 9-15months; most significant LOM
frozen
262
AdCaps 15-24 months
thawing
263
A patient with a crush injury to the foot developed reflex sympathetic dystrophy. Now, two months into the RSD, the clinical presentation you would expect is: A. Edema and osteoporosis with decreased sweating and nail growth B. A cool, dry extremity with the beginning of ankylosis C. Causalgia with vasomotor reflex spasm resulting in warm, dry skin with increased nail growth D. Pain on motion with trophic skin changes and osteoporosis
C. Causalgia with vasomotor reflex spasm resulting in warm, dry skin with increased nail growth
264
A mother complains of sharp pain on radial styloid when carrying her baby. The pain increases with extension of the thumb against resistance. What is the likely diagnosis? A. Osteoarthritis of radial styloid B. De Quervain Tenosynovitis C. Dupuytren’s contracture D. Scaphoid fracture
B. De Quervain Tenosynovitis
265
Dupuytren’s contracture involves flexion contractures of the _______________ digits of the hand, MP, and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints.: A. 2nd and 3rd B. 3rd and 4th C. 4th and 5th D. 1st and 2nd
C. 4th and 5th
266
Upon examination of your patient with quadriceps contusion, you note that he has deep bruising, pain, swelling, and discoloration along the injury site. His active knee ROM is recorded to be 45 degrees. You classify his injury as: A. Mild B. Moderate C. Severe D. Malingering
B. Moderate severe: <45 moderate: 45-90 mild: >90
267
The following treatments are helpful for plantar fasciitis during the initial stages. Which should be done in the subacute and more chronic stages? A. Stretching of the Achilles tendon and plantar fascia B. Icing and deep massage C. Cortisone injection D. Taping
C. Cortisone injection other choices for acute
268
Diagnostic Criteria for Hand Osteoarthritis include the following, EXCEPT? A. All of the choices B. Joint space narrowing in any finger joint C. Age > 40 years old D. Presence of heberden's nodes E. None of these
E. None of these
269
Upon extraction of synovial fluid in the knee of OA patient, what is the characteristic of the synovial fluid if it is gray, cloudy, and opaque? A. Normal B. Hemorrhagic C. Inflammatory D. Non-inflammatory
C. Inflammatory
270
absence of 2nd to 4th MC
lobster claw or ectodactyly
271
absence of wrist and hand
acheiria
272
absence of phalanges
aphalagia
273
The x-ray of a patient diagnosed with Poland syndrome revealed skin union between the digits of the hand. This is called: A. Syndactyly B. Camptodactyly C. Clinodactyly D. Macrodactyly E. Simian Hand
A. Syndactyly
274
Among the elderly, humeral fractures at the surgical neck are common where this nerve is in direct contact. A. Ulnar B. Axillary C. Median D. Radial
B. Axillary
275
On palpation of the foot, tenderness at the articular surface of the talus is a common finding in: A. Deltoid strain B. Bursitis C. Tendonitis D. Osteoarthritis
D. Osteoarthritis talus is a WB joint
276
Rheumatoid arthritis: Limited in ability to perform usual self-care, vocational, and avocational activities A. class I B. class II C. class III D. class IV
D. class IV
277
The following statements are correct concerning the facial nerve: I. The muscles of facial expression including the buccinator is supplied by the facial nerve II. It supplies the stylohyoid, posterior belly of the digastric muscles of the neck and the stapedius muscles of the middle ear III. It emerges as two roots from the anterior surface of the hindbrain between the pons and the medulla oblongata IV. Injury to the facial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen will result in facial palsy, hyperacusis, impaired lacrimation and loss of taste on anterior 2/3 of the tongue. V. Lesion of the facial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen presents with inability to close the eye on the side of the paralysis A. All of these B. I, II and III C. I, II, III and IV D. I, II, III and V E. I, III and V
D. I, II, III and V
278
True about the trigeminal nerve, EXCEPT: A. It is a mixed nerve supplying the muscles of mastication and divides into three major branches, ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular. B. Mediates the reflex arc in the jaw reflex involving the masseter and temporalis muscles C. If the motor root of the trigeminal nerve is injured, paralysis occurs in the tensor tympani, mylohyoid and anterior belly of the digastric. D. Taste impulses from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is mediated by the trigeminal nerve E. None of these
D. Taste impulses from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is mediated by the trigeminal nerve CN 7 fxn
279
The vagus nerve is the great parasympathetic nerve that innervates the thorax and the abdomen. These statements correctly describe this nerve, EXCEPT: I. Stimulation of the vagus nerve may result to vasodilation and bradycardia II. Branches from the vagus nerve supply the intrinsic muscles of the larynx III. Dysphagia, dysphonia and regurgitation of food into the nose on swallowing is a result of bilateral lesion to this nerve IV. In testing for phonation by having the patient say “AH”, deviation of the uvula to the right suggests involvement of the right vagus nerve A. I and IV B. II and IV C. All of these D. None of these E. Only IV
E. Only IV
280
The following are key muscles represented by the C5, C6 myotomes I. Biceps II. ECRL III. ECRB IV. ECU V. FCR A. All of these B. I, II and III C. I, II, III and IV D. I, II, III and V E. II, III, IV and V
B. I, II and III
281
Cavities within the brain filled with cerebrospinal fluid: A. Subarachnoid space B. Ventricles C. Meninges D. Sinuses
B. Ventricles ventricles are lined with ependymal cells
282
pharmacokinetics vs. pharmacodynamics
kinetics - body to drug dynamics - drug to body
283
Which of the following medications block receptors of the sinoatrial node and myocardial cells, thereby decreasing the force of contraction of the heart as well as the heart rate? A. Thiazide diuretics B. Calcium channel blockers C. Alpha-blockers D. Beta-blockers E. ACE-inhibitors
D. Beta-blockers
284
cancer with worst prognosis
lung cancer
285
lowest survival rate cancer
pancreatic cancer
286
CPP of hip
ExAbIR
287
The following statements are true about the gluteus maximus, except: A. it works as a force couple with the abdominal muscles to posteriorly tilt the pelvis on the femur and flatten the lumbar spine, decreasing lumbar lordosis B. it works with the three hamstring muscles to extend the hip C. it is the most powerful hip extensor, regardless of knee position D. in the prone position with the knee in flexion, strong action is required of the gluteus maximus to move the hip into extension E. none of these
E. none of these
288
Actions of the gluteus medius include: I. hip flexion II. hip abduction III. hip medial rotation IV. hip extension A. All of these B. I, II, III C. I and III D. II and IV E. Only IV
A. All of these think delts anterior: FlexIR middle: abd posterior: ExER
289
The menisci are attached to the tibia to deepen the joint’s socket, improving the joint’s congruency. Which of these attachments to the menisci is incorrect? A. Deep fibers of the mcl attach to the medial meniscus B. The tendon of the semimembranosus muscle sends fibers to the posterior edge of the medial meniscus C. The meniscofemoral ligament extends form the medial meniscus to the inside of the medial condyle near the posterior cruciate ligament D. The popliteus muscle sends fibers to the posterior edge of the lateral meniscus E. Each meniscus is anchored along its lateral rim to the tibia and joint capsule by a loose coronary ligament
C. The meniscofemoral ligament extends form the medial meniscus to the inside of the medial condyle near the posterior cruciate ligament extends forming the LATERAL meniscus meniscofemoral: wrisberg, humphrey
290
The gastrocnemius and soleus belong to the superficial posterior group of the leg. these two muscles together are also called the triceps surae. The following descriptions are correct, except: A. the soleus has been found to contain a higher proportion of slow twitch muscle fibers than the gastrocnemius B. the soleus is more concerned with stabilization at the ankle and control of postural sway than is the gastrocnemius C. the gastrocnemius and soleus are both involved in activities requiring forceful plantarflexion of the ankle D. when the gastrocnemius-soleus group is paralyzed, the individual cannot rise on tiptoes and gait is severely affected E. none of these
E. none of these
291
Tibiofibular lateral rotation happens in which of the following foot motions? A. supination, weight-bearing B. supination, non-weight bearing C. pronation, weight bearing D. pronation, non-weight bearing
A. supination, weight-bearing SSETT - supination, ext. tibial torsion
292
While you are treating a T4 level SCI male patient, he suddenly had an autonomic dysreflexia.The following are the signs and symptoms of AD, except: A. Pounding headache B. Increased BP C. Increased HR D. Miosis
C. Increased HR
293
A male TBI patient was able to open his eyes upon verbal command, pull the therapist’s hand when the anterior forearm was pinched, and speak inappropriate words when asked about how he was feeling in the past few hours. His GCS score is A. 10 B. 12 C. 13 D. 11
A. 10
294
While evaluating the reflexes of your TBI patient, you noticed that the patient's right eye turns to the right when you suddenly turn his head to the right and turns upward when you suddenly lift his head. What reflex could be impaired in this patient? A. Pupillary light reflex B. Vertical/diagonal oculocephalic reflex C. Doll’s eye reflex D. Fronto-orbital reflex
C. Doll’s eye reflex OR horizonal oculocephalic reflex
295
What happens to the axons after plaque formation in patients with multiple sclerosis? A. The axons become interrupted and undergo anterograde degeneration B. The axons become interrupted and undergo retrograde degeneration C. The axons are not interrupted but undergo anterograde degeneration D. The axons are not interrupted but undergo retrograde degeneration
B. The axons become interrupted and undergo retrograde degeneration
296
PD test
apomorphine test
297
Which of the following signs and symptoms would suggest that the patient is LEAST likely to have amyotrophic lateral sclerosis? A. Spasticity on one extremity B. Clumsiness C. Decrease in balance D. Normal bladder function
D. Normal bladder function Spared in ALS: bladder fxn, cognition, ocular ms, sensory fxn
298
ALS meds
riluzole/rilutek
299
Which of the following is not a characteristic of myasthenic syndrome or LambertEaton myasthenicSyndrome? A. Paraneoplastic syndrome associated with small cell lung cancer B. Involves antibodies to presynaptic Calcium ion channels C. Proximal muscle weakness that improves with further exertion D. Extraocular weakness
D. Extraocular weakness - affected in MG and botulism MG - ACh LEMS - calcium botulism - nerve block
300
Hoehn- Yahr classification: patient experiencing unsteadiness when turning or rising from chair. A. Stage 1 B. Stage 2 C. Stage 3 D. Stage 4
C. Stage 3
301
In which position is a person with a herniated disc in the low back usually most comfortable? A. Standing B. Lying prone with a pillow under the head C. Lying supine with support under the knees D. Sitting
C. Lying supine with support under the knees positioning in prone may cause ms spasm; prone can be uncomfy
302
A patient was diagnosed to have spondylolisthesis with a forward displacement of his upper lumbar vertebra by 40%. He has a: A. Grade I spondylolisthesis B. Grade II spondylolisthesis C. Grade III spondylolisthesis D. Grade IV spondylolisthesis
B. Grade II spondylolisthesis
303
A 42-year-old patient is experiencing TMJ dysfunction. He stated that there is a (+) click upon mouth opening. As a therapist, you might give an expression that the patient is suffering from: A. Disc displacement B. TMJ displacement C. TMJ synovitis D. TMJ capsulitis
A. Disc displacement TMJ displacement - click with closing
304
Which of the following are responsible for mandibular protrusion? I. Masseter II. Lateral pterygoid III. Medial pterygoid IV. Temporalis V. Digastric VI. Infrahyoid muscle A. I and III B. II and IV C. I, II and III D. I, II, III and IV E. V and VI F. All are correct
C. I, II and III
305
Which of the following is/are considered innervated structure/s of the spine? A. All of these B. Transversospinalis C. Inner of annulus D. Intertransverse ligament E. Zygapophyseal joint
E. Zygapophyseal joint ALL, PLL, interspinous ligament, joint capsule, outer of annulus ES, multifidi
306
All of the following statements describe the joints of Von Luschka, EXCEPT: A. Are called uncovertebral joints B. Are called uncinate process C. No synovium; so not considered as true joints D. Not present at birth; develop by end of first decade E. Unique articulation seen in upper cervical vertebrae
E. Unique articulation seen in upper cervical vertebrae C3-C7
307
Patients with a poking chin or forward head posture is a result of them following EXCEPT: (Tidy’s page 225) A. overactivity of the SCMs B. weakness of the deep cervical flexors C. overactivity of the levator scapulae D. overactivity of the deep cervical flexors
D. overactivity of the deep cervical flexors overactivity of deep cervical EXTENSORS
308
All of the following are true regarding stretching of the thoracic and lumbar spine in lumbar aquatic therapy, except: A. Patient is in supine, buoyancy supported B. PT grasps the patient’s abducted arm with fixed hand, while the movement hand is at the lateral aspect of the lower extremity of the side to be stretched C. Stabilization is placed by the patient’s hip, while the pulling the patient in lateral flexion D. The patient’s stretch side arm is adducted to end range to facilitate stretch E. None of these
D. The patient’s stretch side arm is adducted to end range to facilitate stretch ABDUCTED
309
Knee capsular tightness has limited a patient’s ability to attain full flexion. An initial intervention a physical therapist can employ to restore joint motion should emphasize sustained mobilization in the loose packed position using: A. Posterior glide of the tibia and internal rotation of the tibia B. Anterior glide of the tibia and internal rotation of the tibia C. Posterior glide of the tibia and external rotation of the tibia D. Anterior glide of the tibia and external rotation of the tibia
A. Posterior glide of the tibia and internal rotation of the tibia
310
Which modality causes the greatest increase in tissue temperature? A. Infrared B. Ultrasound C. Diathermy D. Hot moist pack
C. Diathermy
311
FOOSH is the MOI. Your patient was referred for an x-ray. There is still pain and swelling. What bone commonly manifests with this type of presentation? A. Distal radius B. Scaphoid C. Trapezium D. Ulna
B. Scaphoid (-) X-ray findings - usually later (+) pain, swelling
312
Which of the following is bicipital tendonitis LEAST frequently involved in? A. Anterior laxity of the humerus B. AC joint sprain C. Rotator cuff pathology D. Posterior laxity of the humerus
D. Posterior laxity of the humerus
313
Is a variation of a typical KAFO, which is designed to help spinal cord injured patients to stand & walk? A. Parapodium B. Scott-Craig orthoses C. Denise-Brown splint D. A-frame orthosis
B. Scott-Craig orthoses
314
Transtibial standard
20-50%
315
transfemoral standard
35-60%
316
This is a pressure tolerant area of the leg in prosthetic fitting: A. Tibial crest B. Medial tibial flare C. Fibular head D. Hamstring tendons
B. Medial tibial flare
317
For a transfemoral amputee who ambulates with circumduction of the prosthesis during swing, one may think of causes and this may include which of the following? A. Prosthesis too short B. Weak hip flexors C. Weak hip abductors D. Inadequate suspension
D. Inadequate suspension
318
The nurse teaches parents how to help their children learn impulse control and cooperative behaviors. This would occur during which of the stages of development defined by Erikson? A. Trust vs mistrust B. Initiative vs guilt C. Industry vs inferiority D. Autonomy vs. Shame and doubt
B. Initiative vs guilt
319
In what stage is anal sphincter control present? A. Autonomy vs shame and doubt B. Initiative vs guilt C. Industry vs inferiority D. Identity vs identity confusion
A. Autonomy vs shame and doubt 2-3 yo; toilet training at 3
320
A therapist is ordered to evaluate and treat a full-term infant. After reviewing the chart, the therapist discovers that at 1 minute after birth the infant exhibited the following symptoms. Acrocyanosis, heart rate of 105 beats per minute, slow respirations, slight response to reflex irritability, and some resistance of the extremities to movement. What was the infant’s APGAR score at 1 minute after birth? A. 3 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7
C. 6 Acrocyanosis: 1 HR 100<: 2 slow respi: 1 slight response: 1 some resistance: 1
321
The nurse knows that an infant's birth weight should be tripled by: A. 9 months B. 1 year C. 18 months D. 2 years
B. 1 year 5 months x 2 birth wt 1 year x 3
322
In terms of gross motor development, what would the nurse expect a 5-month-old infant to do? A. Roll from abdomen to back. B. Roll from back to abdomen. C. Sit erect without support. D. Move from prone to sitting position.
A. Roll from abdomen to back. Prone to supine - 4mo (Por - prone) Supine to prone 5-7 mons (Supine- Seven)
323
Most infants begin to fear strangers at age: A. 2 months B. 4 months C. 6 months D. 12 months
C. 6 months 7 months - sepanx (Seven -Sepanx)
324
A 5-year-old child with a T10 level spina bifida is now ready for ambulation training having good sitting balance. The best orthosis for him is: A. RGO B. Parapodium C. KAFO D. Supramalleolar orthosis
B. Parapodium T6-T12: parapodium + THKAFO L1-L2: RGO + HKAFO L3-L4: KAFO L5-S1: AFO / Ground reax AFO S2 down: supramalleolar orthosis
325
A patient with spina bifida has various manifestations/ orthopedic complications. What is the lowest limit of level with severe hip dislocation? A. T12 B. L1 C. L2 D. L3
D. L3
326
A therapist recommends a wheelchair for a patient rehabilitating from a CVA with the goal of independent mobility. The left upper and lower extremities are flaccid and present with edema. There is normal strength on the right, however, the patient’s trunk is hypotonic. The patient is cognitively intact. The MOST appropriate wheelchair for the patient is: (Giles p. 926) A. Sling seat, sling back, arm board, and elevating leg rests B. Light weight, solid seat, solid back, arm board, and standard footrests C. Solid seat, solid back, elevating leg rests, and anti-tippers D. Lightweight, solid seat, solid back, arm board, and elevating leg rests
D. Lightweight, solid seat, solid back, arm board, and elevating leg rests
327
You have been asked to provide an assistive device to a 90-year-old female who lives alone and is partial weight bearing on the right lower extremity. Her upper extremity strength is 3+/5. Which assistive device would you recommend for this patient? A. Lofstrand crutches B. Walker C. Large base quad cane D. Axillary crutches
B. Walker
328
A patient has a complete SCI at the level of L1. His primary goal is to walk again. The therapist describes it would be MOST appropriate to recommend that this patient use: A. A RGO and walker B. A wheelchair, because ambulation is unrealistic C. Bilateral KAFOs with thoracolumbosacral extension control D. Bilateral AFOs and Loftstrand crutches
A. A RGO and walker
329
To prepare a patient with an incomplete T12 paraplegia for ambulation with crutches, the upper quadrant muscles that would be MOST important to strengthen include the: A. Upper trapezius, rhomboids, and levator scapulae B. Deltoid, triceps, and wrist flexors C. Middle trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and triceps D. Lower trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and triceps
D. Lower trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and triceps
330
What is the appropriate assistive device for a patient provided that he/she carries 80% of his/her body weight? A. Walker B. Cane C. Axillary crutches D. Forearm crutches
B. Cane
331
floor of anatomic snuffbox
scaphoid (1), trapezium
332
The following are intrinsic muscles of the hand, except: I. Abductor pollicis brevis II. Flexor pollicis brevis III. Palmaris brevis IV. Extensor pollicis brevis A. All of these B. I, III C. II, IV D. Only IV E. I, II, III
D. Only IV
333
Manual muscles testing for Sartorius the lower extremity is placed into a position of? I. Lateral rotation of the hip II. Hip abduction III. Hip flexion IV. Knee flexion A. All of these B. None of these C. I, II, III D. II, IV
A. All of these
334
During a postural examination of a patient with a right thoracic scoliotic curve,the therapist should find that the: I. Ribs are pushed anteriorly on the right II. Paraspinal muscles are tight on the right III. Scapula is prominent on the left IV. Spinous processes are rotated to the left A. Only IV B. All are correct C. All are incorrect D. I, II, III E. II, IV
A. Only IV
335
Features of the sympathetic nervous system: I. Fight or flight response II. Short preganglionic fibers III. Norepinephrine as the post-ganglionic neurotransmitters IV. Central nuclei in cranial and spinal portions of the spinal cord A. I, II, III B. All of these C. Only IV D. I, III E. II, IV
A. I, II, III
336
Which of the following describe intrinsic minus position? I. MCP flexion II. Interossei and lumbricals are shortened III. Often found in rheumatoid arthritis IV. IP extension A. I, II, III B. I, III C. II, IV D. All of these E. None of these
E. None of these
337
The most common earliest physical sign of HO a. Erythema and swelling b. Limitation of motion c. Muscle spasm d. Pain
a. Erythema and swelling
338
Avascular necrosis of the knee most commonly affects the a. Patella b. Fibular head c. Tibial tuberosity d. Lateral femoral condyle
c. Tibial tuberosity
339
The joint that is most commonly affected in septic arthritis a. Elbow b. Shoulder c. Knee d. Hip
c. Knee
340
Most common level of ulnar nerve injury a. Neck b. Upper arm c. Wrist d. Elbow
d. Elbow
341
. The most common level of stenosis in the low back is a. L5-S1 b. L4-L5 c. L2-L3 d. L3-L4
b. L4-L5
342
Trigger finger affects most commonly the: a. Second and third digits b. Third and fourth digits c. The little finger d. Thumb
b. Third and fourth digits
343
Most common cause of trigger finger a. Malunited phalangeal fracture b. Slip of long extensor tendons c. Lax collateral ligaments of fingers d. Swelling of sublimis tendon sheath
d. Swelling of sublimis tendon sheath
344
The most common site of stress fracture in athletes is the a. Femoral neck b. Metatarsal c. Navicular d. Tibia
d. Tibia
345
The most common cause of lower extremity amputation is a. Trauma b. Congenital defects c. Infection d. Vascular disease
d. Vascular disease
346
The most common site of intra-cerebral hemorrhage: a. Caudate nucleus b. Putamen c. Fornix d. Anterior limb of internal capsule
b. Putamen
347
After the hip, the next most commonly involved joint in HO in SCI patients is: a. Elbow b. Ankle c. Shoulder d. Knee
d. Knee
348
Rupture of the Achilles tendon most commonly occurs in the narrowest portion of the tendon which is how many inches above its point of attachment? a. 5 b. 3 c. 2 d. 4
c. 2
349
Most common cranial nerve affected in MS a. II b. IV c. III d. VII
a. II
350
The most common deformity of the shoulder in RA a. Flexion, Abduction b. Adduction, Internal Rotation c. Flexion, External Rotation d. Extension, Internal Rotation
b. Adduction, Internal Rotation RA-ADIR
351
The most common site of lacunar infarct a. Parietal lobe b. Basal ganglia c. Temporal lobe d. Internal capsule
d. Internal capsule
352
. The most common congenital skeletal deficiency in the upper limb is a. Absence of distal 2/3 of forearm b. Amelia c. A longitudinal deficiency d. Pocomelia
a. Absence of distal 2/3 of forearm
353
The most common pattern of injury in supracondylar fracture of the humerus is a. Internal rotation b. External rotation c. Flexion d. Hyperextension
d. Hyperextension
354
The most common spinal deformity in myelomeningocele is a. Scoliosis b. Lordosis c. Rigid malformation d. Kyphosis
a. Scoliosis
355
The nerve most commonly involved in Hansen’s Disease a. Common Peroneal Nerve b. Ulnar nerve c. Great Auricular nerve d. Median Nerve
b. Ulnar nerve leprUsy
356
prolonged PR, fluctuating P wave, widened QRS
hyponatremia
357
prolonged QT, flat T wave
hypokalemia hypoTalemia
358
prolonged ST & QT
hypocalcemia
359
shortened QT, peak T wave
hyperkalemia hyperTalemia
360
pincer grasp age
10 months
361
parallel play vs playing near each other age
parallel play: 2yo playing near each other: 18mo
362
following 1 step vs 2 step commands age
1 step: 18 mo 2 step: 2yo
363
The success of ankle joint arthroplasties is dependent on the health of what ankle joint? a. Talonavicular b. Talofibular c. Subtalar d. Talotibial
c. Subtalar
364
Airway resistance may be decreased by: a. Increasing airway diameter and length b. Increasing airway diameter c. Decreasing flow rate d. Decreasing airway length e. Increasing airflow speed
b. Increasing airway diameter
365
When does the first fetal movement typically occur? a. 12 weeks b. 16 weeks c. 20 weeks d. 24 weeks e. 18 weeks
c. 20 weeks 18 weeks - light fetal movement felt by those prev pregnant before
366
Which of the following is considered the best exercise for individuals with Huntington’s disease? a. Tai Chi b. High-intensity interval training (HIIT) c. Yoga d. Aerobic exercise like walking and cycling e. Resistance training
d. Aerobic exercise like walking and cycling
367
.You are treating a patient for low back pain. You have established a good relationship and even joked around with him. However, a few weeks later, the patient has shown only slight improvement and suddenly starts yelling at you unprovoked. What behavior is he exhibiting? a. Projection b. Displacement c. Compensation d. Substitution e. Regression
b. Displacement
368
Which of the following types of cancer primarily occurs in the intracellular space? a. Leukemia b. Lymphoma c. Sarcoma d. Carcinoma e. neuroblastoma
a. Leukemia
369
bacteria most commonly assoc with meningitis
1. streptoccocus pneumoniae 2. haemophilus influenzae 3. nisseria meningitidis
370
.What is the most common complication in a patient with diabetes mellitus (DM)? a. Diabetic neuropathy b. Diabetic retinopathy c. Diabetic nephropathy d. Cardiovascular disease e. Diabetic foot ulcers
d. Cardiovascular disease
371
Where are norepinephrine receptors located in the body? a. Cytoplasm b. Plasma membrane c. Cytosol d. Nucleus e. Mitochondria
b. Plasma membrane
372
A 40-year-old patient presents with increased lumbar lordosis and a forward head posture. Which muscle is most likely shortened? a. Upper trapezius b. Erector spinae c. Hip flexors d. Rectus abdominis
c. Hip flexors
373
Which type of receptor demonstrates after discharge? a. Vision b. Phasic c. Golgi tendon organ d. Olfactory e. Tonic
e. Tonic tonic - adapts slowly to stimulus
374
The substantia gelatinosa is located in which part of the spinal cord? a. Anterior horn b. Posterior horn c. Lateral column d. Dorsal root ganglion e. White matter
b. Posterior horn
375
What structure separates the cerebral cortex and the cerebellum? a. Falx cerebri b. Tentorium cerebelli c. Dura mater d. Pia mater e. Arachnoid mater
b. Tentorium cerebelli
376
Which of the following muscles will be affected in a tunnel of guyon compression neuropathy? I. Adductor pollicis II. 4th and 5th lumbricals III. Flexor digiti minimi IV. Interossei V. 4th and 5th FDP a. All of these b. I, II, III, and IV c. I, II, and III d. I, III, and V e. II, IV, and V
377
force output
FE > SE > isom > SC > FC
378
The components of flexor synergy for shoulder includes: a. Scapular adduction, depression, shoulder adduction and IR b. Scapular adduction, elevation, shoulder Abduction and ER c. Scapular abduction, protraction, shoulder Adduction and IR d. Scapular abduction, retraction and shoulder Abduction
b. Scapular adduction, elevation, shoulder Abduction and ER
379
The following are included under perception, except: I. Right/left discrimination disorder and vertical orientation II. Stereognosis and 2-pt discrimination III. Tactile localization and vibration IV. Hemianopsia and neglect a. All of these b. I, II, and III c. I and III d. Only IV e. None of these
380
If the rhomboids major, rhomboids minor and pectoralis minor are paralyzed, which movement will be hard for the patient to perform? a. Upward rotation b. Protraction c. Downward rotation d. Retraction
c. Downward rotation
381
The volar surfaces of the forearm, wrist and hand, are divided into five flexor zones which when lacerated, can present with symptoms that are consistent with the structures injured in that specific zone. Which of the following would BEST describe the consequences of an injury to Zone II? a. Inability to complete a full fist due to rupture of the flexor digitorum profundus b. Loss of wrist and digital flexion, with damage to the ulnar and median nerves c. Disruption of MCP flexion due to rupture of the lumbricales d. Inability to flex the PIP and DIP due to injury to extrinsic finger flexors
d. Inability to flex the PIP and DIP due to injury to extrinsic finger flexors
382
You were endorsed with a patient who sustained a laceration injury to the hand. The surgeon informed you that it was most challenging to perform the surgery owing to poor vascular supply of this severed zone of the hand. Which of the following best describes this region? a. It is located from the distal FDP insertion to the level of distal palmar crease b. It is located from the distal insertion of the FDS to the level of the distal palmar crease c. It is the area under the transverse carpal tunnel d. It is from the neck of the metacarpals to the distal carpal tunnel e. It is the area proximal to the wrist
b. It is located from the distal insertion of the FDS to the level of the distal palmar crease
383
The neurological basis for sexual dysfunction in men with spinal cord injury (SCI) are as follows: EXCEPT: a. The parasympathetic spinal outflow originating from the S-2 to S-4 spinal segments is primarily responsible for mediating reflexogenic erection b. The T-10 to S-2 spinal segments contain the reflex arc that receives sensory afferents from the genitals c. The neural output from the hypothalamus to the sexual organs courses in the anterolateral columns to terminate in the intermediolateral cell columns of T-10 to L-3 d. In men, the sympathetic output is primarily responsible for regulating ejaculation and psychogenic component of penile erection e. Supraspinal component of the motor pathways descends with the corticospinal tracts to the S-2 to S4 segments of the sacral cord
b. The T-10 to S-2 spinal segments contain the reflex arc that receives sensory afferents from the genitals S2-S4 bulbocavernosus reflex
384
Following are measurable determinants of gait, EXCEPT: a. The knee should remain flexed during all components of stance phase b. The body’s center of gravity lies two inches in front of the second sacral vertebrae and oscillates no more than two inches in a vertical direction c. The pelvis and trunk shift laterally approximately one inch to the weightbearing side d. The width of the base should not be more than two to four inches from heel to heel
a. The knee should remain flexed during all components of stance phase
385
The following muscles arise from the medial epicondyle of the humerus and bounds the medial side of the antecubital fossa: a. Flexor Carpi Radialis, Palmaris Longus and Flexor Carpi Ulnaris b. Flexor Digitorum Sublimis, Flexor Digitorum Profundus and Flexor Pollicis Longus c. None of these d. Pronator Teres, Palmaris Longus, and Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
d. Pronator Teres, Palmaris Longus, and Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
386
Paralysis of the left gluteus maximus is compensated for during the stance phase by: a. Increased ankle plantarflexion of the affected extremity b. Hyperextension of the spine c. External tibial torsion at heel strike d. Maintenance of knee flexion of affected extremity
b. Hyperextension of the spine
387
You are treating a patient on the field who has the following clinical features: demonstrates weakness, fatigue, and loss of motor tone, with blurred vision and elevated body temperature. Which of the following heat disorders is this patient most likely experiencing? a. Heat cramps b. Heat syncope c. Heat exhaustion d. Heat hyperpyrexia
c. Heat exhaustion
388
A 67-year-old male with long-standing cardiac pathology is referred to physical therapy. The medical record indicated the patient is taking Nitrostat. The primary function of nitrates is: a. To strengthen the heart’s pumping force b. To produce a general vasodilation of vascular structures c. To increase the excretion of sodium and water d. To decrease electrical conduction
b. To produce a general vasodilation of vascular structures
389
A physical therapist attempts to prevent alveolar collapse in a patient following thoracic surgery. Which breathing technique would be the most beneficial to achieve the established goal? a. Diaphragmatic breathing b. Pursed-lip breathing c. Incentive respiratory spirometry d. Segmental breathing
c. Incentive respiratory spirometry
390
A physical therapist performs rescue breathing on a patient who collapsed in the physical therapy gym. Which of the following is not accurate when performing rescue breathing on an adult? a. Maintain open airway with head-tilt/chin-lift b. Give one breath every five seconds c. Pinc nose shut d. Continue for 30 seconds; approximately six breaths
d. Continue for 30 seconds; approximately six breaths cont. for 60s
391
A patient positioned in standing completes shoulder medial and lateral rotation exercises using a piece of elastic tubing. Which plane of the body is utilized in this activity? a. Coronal b. Frontal c. Sagittal d. Transverse
d. Transverse vertical axis
392
A patient is referred to physical therapy after sustaining a lower extremity injury. The physical therapist examines the patient and identifies several postural abnormalities including genu varum. Which of the following motions or postures is not often correlated with genu varum? a. Lateral patellar subluxation b. Excessive hip abduction c. Ipsilateral hip lateral rotation d. Medial tibial torsion
a. Lateral patellar subluxation
393
A physical therapist performs a variety of special tests on a patient with a suspected anterior cruciate ligament injury. Which special test is not indicative of a one-plane anterior instability ligamentous test? a. Lachman test b. Drawer test c. Active drawer test d. Loose test
d. Loose test
394
A physical therapist completes a dorsal glide of the humeroradial articulation with a patient in supine. When performing this mobilization technique, the therapist should stabilize the: a. Distal humerus from the lateralside of the patient’s arm b. Distal humerus from the medial side of the patient’s arm c. Proximal humerus from the lateral side of the patient’s arm d. Proximal humerus from the medial side of the patient’s arm
a. Distal humerus from the lateralside of the patient’s arm OKC so stabilize distal
395
A patient placed on bed rest is examined in physical therapy. Which effect would not typically be associated with extended bed rest? a. A decrease in physical work capacity b. An increase in lung volume and vital capacity c. An increase in the heart rate response to activity d. A negative nitrogen and calcium balance
b. An increase in lung volume and vital capacity
396
A patient with a transfemoral amputation and an above knee prosthesis demonstrates forward trunk leaning during the stance phase of gait with a rolling walker. What is the MOST LIKELY cause of this gait deviation? a. Prosthesis is too long b. Walker is set too high c. Weak gluteus maximus d. Unstable knee unit
d. Unstable knee unit
397
A retired administrative assistant with a history of chronic neck pain secondary to whiplash associated disorder (WAD) is referred to physical therapy. The patient denies experiencing any radiating pain to the upper extremities and is neurologically intact on examination. Which intervention should be emphasized in the physical therapy plan of care? a. Wearing a cervical collar b. Thoracic manipulation c. C1-2 self-sustained natural apophyseal glide (SNAG) d. Submaximal deep neck flexor endurance training
d. Submaximal deep neck flexor endurance training
398
What is the best position for a patient with disc herniation lateral to the Left L4 nerve root? A. Trunk flexion and lateral bending to the left B. Trunk extension and lateral bending to the right C. Trunk flexion and lateral bending to the right D. Trunk extension and lateral bending to the left
B. Trunk extension and lateral bending to the right I/L trunk bend if medial to nerve root
399
A physical therapist works with an eight-year-old child who walks with an equinus gait pattern. Which of the following interventions would be the MOST appropriate to address the muscle shortening associated with this gait pattern? a. side stepping b. backward stepping c. activities in single leg stance d. toe walking
b. backward stepping
400
A physical therapist treats a patient wearing a shoe that incorporates a rocker bottom. This type of modification would be the MOST beneficial for a patient diagnosed with: A. Hallux rigidus B. Achilles tendonitis C. Plantar fasciitis D. Posterior tibial tendonitis
A. Hallux rigidus
401
A note in the medical record indicates that a patient was recently prescribed Lasix. Which condition is MOST commonly associated with the use of this medication? A. atrial flutter B. deep vein thrombosis C. congestive heart failure D. hyperlipidemia
C. congestive heart failure
402
A physical therapists works on transfer activities with a patient diagnosed with a complete C5 spinal cord injury. Which of the following muscles would the patient be able to utilize during the training session? A. Brachioradialis B. Pronator teres C. Extensor carpi radialis brevis D. Latissimus dorsi
A. Brachioradialis PT - C6-7 ECRB, Lats - C6, C7, C8
403
a physical therapist notices that a patient with a transfemoral amputation consistently takes a longer step with the prosthetic limb than the contralateral limb. the MOST likely cause of the deviation is A. hip flexion contracture B. weak abdominal muscles C. weak residual limb D. fear and insecurity
A. hip flexion contracture
404
A physical therapist treats a patient rehabilitating from a traumatic brain injury by applying approximation to the pelvis to increase bilateral lower extremity weight bearing. The patient exhibits significant hypertonicity and the presence of the positive support reflex. The therapist is MOST likely using the therapeutic ball to A. Avoid a mass extensor pattern in standing B. Encourage active assistive range of motion C. Allow the patient partial weight bearing through the ball D. Limit range of motion at the shoulder
A. Avoid a mass extensor pattern in standing
405
A patient diagnosed with patellofemoral syndrome discusses his past medical history with a physical therapist. The patient reports having anterior ruciate ligament reconstruction surgery on his right knee two years ago, however, the therapist is not able to identify a scar over the anterior surface of the right knee. Assuming the surgeon utilized an autograft for the reconstruction, which of the following would be the MOST likely graft site? A. Semitendinosus and semimembranosus B. Semimembranosus and gracilis C. Semitendinosus and biceps femoris D. Semitendinosus and gracilis
D. Semitendinosus and gracilis GrafT
406
A physical therapist assesses the deep tendon reflexes of a patient as part of the lower quarter screening examination. The therapist determines that the right and left patellar tendon reflex and the left Achilles tendon reflex are 2+, while the right Achilles tendon reflex is absent. The clinical condition that could BEST explain this finding is: A. Peripheral neuropathy B. Cerebral palsy C. Multiple sclerosis D. Intermittent claudication
A. Peripheral neuropathy
406
A physical therapist treats a patient that sustained an acute wound to the anterior surface of the forearm. Which cell component would have been the FIRST to arrive at the injury site immediately following the incident? A. Endothelial cells B. Fibroblasts C. Platelets D. Leukocytes
C. Platelets
407
a physical therapist prepares iontophoresis over the anterior surface of patient's knee. the therapist would like to keep the current density low in order to avoid skin irritation. which of the listed parameters would BEST accomplish the therapist's objective? A. current amplitude of 4 mA; electrode with an area of 4 cm2 B. current amplitude of 3 mA; electrode with an area of 6cm2 C. current amplitude of 4mA; electrode with an area of 12 cm2 D. current amplitude of 3 mA; electrode with an area of 4 cm2
C. current amplitude of 4mA; electrode with an area of 12 cm2
408
A physical therapist attempts to strengthen the lumbricals on a patient with a low metatarsal arch. Which exercise would be the MOST appropriate? A. resisted extension of the metatarsophalangeal joint B. resisted abduction of the metatarsophalangeal joint C. resisted flexion of the metatarsophalangeal joint D. resisted adduction of the metatarsophalangeal joint
C. resisted flexion of the metatarsophalangeal joint lumbricals - MTP flexion, IP ext
409
This effectively raises the COM’s predicted lowest point by approximately 2.0-2.5 cm
Pelvic rotation
410
If your patient cannot support weight on one leg but has good muscular strength and coordination, which crutch-walking gait would you choose?
Swing-through three-point
410
A physical therapist reads in the medical record that x-rays confirmed the presence of a SLAP lesion. Which injury would MOST likely be associated with this type of lesion?
biceps tendon rupture
411
When testing a patient with suspected sacroiliac dysfunction, a cluster of sacroiliac provocative tests is proven to have the highest diagnostic accuracy in detecting sacroiliac dysfunction. These tests are: A. Compression test, Distraction test, Thigh thrust, Sacral thrust, Gillet’s test B. Approximation test, Gapping test, Oostagard test, Sacral apex pressure test, Gaenslen’s test
B. Approximation test, Gapping test, Oostagard test, Sacral apex pressure test, Gaenslen’s test
412
Subjects with pure word deafness _______. A. Cannot understand or repeat spoken language B. Can understand written language but cannot repeat spoken language
B. Can understand written language but cannot repeat spoken language
413
When is the iliopsoas most active during the gait cycle? A. Toe-off B. Pre-swing
A. Toe-off
414
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is a commonly used medication for insomnia for patients with chronic pain. Its mechanism of action is: A. serotonin reuptake inhibition B. antihistamine
B. antihistamine
415
Affectation of both the third convolution and posterior portion of the superior temporal gyrus, in a Middle Cerebral Artery Syndrome will present with: A. broca's B. wernicke's C. global
C. global
416
Rupture of the tendo calcaneus results in inability to do which movement? A. invert the midfoot B. plantarflex the ankle C. evert the midfoot D. dorsiflex the ankle
B. plantarflex the ankle
417
Your home care patient of more than 10 years is a 65/M SCI T6 level complete; wheelchair-dependent. You know that aside from regular ROM exercises, maintenance of conditioning and function, other areas need to be checked as well. You remind him about the need to have which of the following organ systems checked? A. pulmonary and cardiac B. all systems C. bowel and bladder D. integumentary
C. bowel and bladder
418
Spatial attention is a component process needed for mobility. Its role in mobility is _____________. A. Necessary for environmental navigation B. necessary for awareness of both sides of space
B. necessary for awareness of both sides of space
419
What is necessary during the gait cycle for the 1st MTP joint? A. 25-40 PF B. 60-75 DF C. 25-40 DF D. 60-75 PF
B. 60-75 DF
420
This pelvic bone when fractured or dislocated renders the pelvis more unstable and a more complicated injury. What is this pelvic bone? A. iliac B. ischium C. pubis
A. iliac
421
While exercising on the ergometer, an amazing therapist thinks of the cardiovascular effects of exercise on your body which include which one of the following? A. decreased heart rate and hypertension B. increased VO2 max
B. increased VO2 max
422
On examination of a female elderly patient with ankle pain, she complains that her ankle pain had been there for several years, and is described as stiffness and discomfort especially on ambulation. With just this information, what do you consider? A. ankle OA B. posterior tibial tendonitis
423
Most important vitamins that play vital roles in bone formation and remodelling include Vitamins: A. A, C, D B. A, D, E, K
424
The 40-year-old female patient who sustained a tibial condyle fracture of the knee has a dark swelling of the affected knee. You advise the patient to elevate the extremity when lying or sitting. After 1 week, the swelling decreases. What is the most likely cause of the knee swelling? A. hemarthrosis B. synovitis
B. synovitis
425
sensation preserved in S4-S5; more than half the key muscles below the neurological level of injury less than Grade 3/5
ASIA impairment scale C
426
Which of the following is allowable in patients on inpatient cardiac rehabilitation program?
HR inc of 20
427
haracterized by a steady deterioration in disease from onset but with occasional acute attacks. This type of MS is A. PPMS B. SPMS
A. PPMS
428
SCI patient A: Deficits are 0/5 both biceps and the entire UE; 0/5 both LEs; sensory 50% over neck area only. Orthosis? A. Cervicothoracic orthosis B. TLS orthosis C. Halo vest D. None of this
C. Halo vest
429
Orthoses are used in DMD for several reasons. Which one of the following may NOT be what orthoses are used for in Duchenne muscular dystrophy patients? A. stretching of LE ms B. continuous fxnal ambu C. prolonged standing
B. continuous fxnal ambu
430
In a patient with spastic hypertonia, any of the following may be used EXCEPT: A. Diazepam B. Captopril C. Baclofen D. Dantrolene sodium
B. Captopril ACE inhibitor
431
Which of the following would be the end-stage of Cor Pulmonale and Congestive Heart failure in COPD? A. pulmonary HTN B. heart failure C. LV failure
C. LV failure
432
What is the most common indication for joint arthroplasties? A. fractures B. OA C. RA D. AOTA
D. AOTA
433
The type of Idiopathic Scoliosis which will usually NOT spontaneously resolve is __. A. adult onset B. adolescent onset C. infant onset D. juvenile onset
D. juvenile onset
434
The greatest amount of flexion in the cervical spine occurs at the level of A. C2-C3 B. C4-C5 C. C6-C7 D. C7-C8
B. C4-C5
435
Strong opiates may be used for chronic pain patients with _______. A. Cancer pain B. Neurogenic pain C. Cancer, neurogneic, nociceptive pain D. Nociceptive pain
C. Cancer, neurogneic, nociceptive pain
436
On examination of a patient with foot and ankle pain, on history she notes she has had several incidences of ankle sprain. When she walks on rocky ground, the ankle feels unstable and times, gives away. On P.E., you note especially the poor proprioception in the affected leg. What does the patient have? A. lateral ligament sprain B. lengthened lateral ligaments
B. lengthened lateral ligaments
437
The following are classified under the Primary neurodegenerative disorders causing Parkinsonism, EXCEPT A. Multiple systems atrophy B. Progressive supranuclear palsy C. multiple cerebral infarctions D. cortico-basal degeneration
C. multiple cerebral infarctions
438
In Myelomeningocoele, this level of lesion is most often associated with flaccid lower limbs and frog-leg positioning. What level is this? A. high lumbar (L1-L2) B. Sacral C. low lumbar (L3-L5) D. thoracic
D. thoracic
439
Airy, your patient withFascioscapulohumeral dystrophy has affectation of the following muscles: orbicularis oris, zygomaticus, orbicularis oculi. She will have difficulty in the following activities EXCEPT: A. drinking from a straw B. frowning when angry C. closing her eyes D. puckering her lips
B. frowning when angry
440
FEV1 of at least 80% of the predicted value
mild COPD
441
FEV1 between 50% and 80% of the predicted value
moderate
442
FEV1 between 30% and 50% of the predicted value
severe
443
FEV1 of less than 30% of the predicted value
very severe
444
FEV1/FVC < 70%; FEV1 <30% predicted or FEV1 <50% predicted. Plus chronic respiratory failure
very severe COPD
445
Psychosocial benefits of exercise in chronic heart disease patients include most importantly which of the following? A. improved sex live B. return to work C. improved well being
C. improved well being
446
Pre-prosthetic stage of the Rehab management of amputees include the following. Which does NOT belong to the pre-prosthetic stage? A. fitness or cardiovascular assessment B. pre-ambulation training C. psychological assessments
C. psychological assessments
447
Treatment in the early stages of COPD include which of the following? increased ____.
increased/maintain exercise tolerance
448
448
Indifference, cognitive slowness, “pseudo-depression” are manifestations of which neurobehavioral syndrome? A. temporolimbic syndrome B. dorsolateral convexity frontal syndrome
B. dorsolateral convexity frontal syndrome
449
During swing phase, weak hip flexors causes which of the following gait deviations? A. hip hiking B. lumbar hyperextension** (not sure) C. circumduction D. AOTA
D. AOTA
450
Which of the following is NOT an Intrinsic risk factor which predispose to the development of pressure ulcers? A. muscle atrophy B. smoking substance abuse
B. smoking substance abuse
451
Which of the following actions of steroids are used for chronic pulmonary disease? A. increases inflammatory response B. decreases inflammatory response C. bronchodilation
B. decreases inflammatory response
452
Hunter, a post coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) patient, who’s on maintenance phase of a Cardiac Rehab program, a moderate intensity program will have a target heart rate of ______________. A. 60-70% HRmax B. 70-80% HRmax C. 50-60% HRmax D. 80-90% HRmax
A. 60-70% HRmax
453
recommended calcium intake for 14-18 and >70yo
1200 mg/day
454
recommended calcium intake for 19-50 and 51-70yo
1000mg/day
455
A 30-year-old sustained a tri-malleolar fracture of the ankle. The forces involved in this type of fracture include abduction/lateral rotation force and ____________. A. PF B. DF C. adduction
C. adduction
456
HLA-B27 is specific for A. psoriatic arthritis B. reactive arthritis C. AS
C. AS
457
Tarsometatarsal disarticulation is also called ______________.
Lisfranc
458
ankle disarticulation
syme
459
Your female friend is noted to have scapular winging. You make a mental note that the muscles that may be involved are the following EXCEPT: A. pec minor B. trapezius C. SA D. NOTA
D. NOTA
460
Though evidence remains inconclusive, the use of this group of medications is suggested to interfere with fracture healing, thus it is used sparingly in post fracture patients. This is the _________ A. NSAIDs B. corticosteroids
A. NSAIDs
461
Your 69-year-old aunt with severe Deg OA of both knees, is hypertensive and has heart disease. She also has a history of peptic ulcer and has been taking Paracetamol for pain relief but still has pain. Other drugs allowable for her include which one? A. intraarticular steroids B. opioid analgesics C. NSAIDs D. AOTA
D. AOTA
462
Physical therapy/ Vestibular Rehab may not be indicated or not appropriate for: A. BPPV B. UVH C. centrally located lesions D. Meniere's disease
D. Meniere's disease
463
Spasticity declines, movement combinations are mastered during which Brunnstrom Stage of Stroke recovery?
stage 4
464
The following prosthetic causes may result in rotation of forefoot at heel strike of an amputee EXCEPT A. rigid SACH heel cushion B. excessive suspension
B. excessive suspension
465
Patient figured in a traction injury to the anterior division of the brachial plexus. PT expected to see weakness of the elbow flexors, wrist flexors and forearm proration. The PT would also expect to find more weakness in A. wrist extension B. thumb abduction
B. thumb abduction
466
A post stroke patient can maintain standing without any external support and has some sway. If he can remain standing while turning his head or trunks, the functional grade is
Good static and fair dynamic standing balance
467
At what phase of the gait cycle would a PT expect to notice an everted posture of the calcaneus A. from midstance through heel off (toe off) B. from initial contact: (heel strike) through loading response (foot-flat)
B. from initial contact: (heel strike) through loading response (foot-flat) first 15% of gait calcaneus everts
468
A physical therapist identifies a number of substances that influence circulation. Which of the following substances is stimulated by decreased arterial pressure and acts as a vasoconstrictor? A. Angiotensin B. Histamine
A. Angiotensin
469
A patient diagnosed with Meniere’s disease presents with vertigo. Which sign or symptom is inconsistent with this medical condition? A. vertigo B. nystagmus that resolves in 30s C. tinnitus D. head tilt to one side
D. head tilt to one side
470
A physical therapy works with a patient diagnosed with congestive heart failure who presents with dyspnea during ambulation. The patient has an ejection fraction of less than 55 percent. Which of the following interventions would be the MOST appropriate? A. instruction in pursed lip breathing B. Education on energy conservation
B. Education on energy conservation
471
Tiny red or purple hemorrhagic spots appearing in clusters, may be a sign of thrombocytopenia. a. Petechiae b. Ecchymosis c. Jaundice d. Bruise
a. Petechiae
472
Bluish-purple to greenish-yellow bruising or bleeding under the skin often caused by trauma: a. Petechiae b. Ecchymosis c. Jaundice d. Bruise
b. Ecchymosis
473
Pain medication recommended for peptic ulcer a. Ibuprofen b. Ketorolac c. Aspirin d. Diclofenac
b. Ketorolac
474
Which of the following is a leukotriene receptor blocker? a. Alprostadil b. Aspirin c. Montelukast d. Ibuprofen
c. Montelukast
475
Severe headache for almost 2 hours followed by a sudden loss of consciousness a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage b. Viral encephalitis c. Migraine d. Brain tumor
a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
476
Severe headache with photosensitivity, neck stiffness, and abrupt onset of symptoms a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage b. Viral encephalitis c. Migraine d. Brain tumor
b. Viral encephalitis
477
If you are rubbing a salt to stimulate the taste receptors, you increase the sensitivity of sweetness. This principle is known as: a. Simultaneous contract b. Accommodation c. Compensation d. Successive contrast
d. Successive contrast
478
Lesion to the third frontal convolution will result to the following, except: a. Broca’s aphasia b. Non-fluent speech with good comprehension c. Poor repetition, naming, writing and reading comprehension d. All of these e. None of these
c. Poor repetition, naming, writing and reading comprehension global aphasia
479
A 28-year-old man presents with suicidal thoughts for the last 2 weeks. Patient states that voices have been telling him to “kill himself” and “finish it”. He believes that these voices are part of a conspiracy at work to get him to leave his job. According to him, he first noticed his coworkers were starting to plot against him 7 months ago when they started to blame him to work that wasn’t done. He started to hear voices 2 months after that. He has also been feeling very sad since the voices started and now feels depressed most days. Two weeks ago, he started to seriously think about suicide and developed a plan to hang himself but then decided to come seek help. On physical exam, he has restricted affect and is fearful at times. He has suicidal ideation, auditory hallucinations, and appears to be responding to internal stimuli (looks over his shoulder, saying “Stop”). Patient is most likely suffering from: a. Schizophrenia b. Major bipolar disorder c. Minor bipolar disorder d. Schizoaffective disorder
d. Schizoaffective disorder schizophrenia + mood disorder (e.g. BPD or depression)
480
A 21-year-old man presents with 2 months of paranoia and odd behavior. He reports that someone planted a microchip in his brain and his thoughts are being intercepted. He hears their voices for most of the day and believes the voices are CIA officers. His family reports that the odd behavior started 7 months ago, which they thought was due to school stress. On physical exam, he is paranoid, disheveled, malodorous, nervous, and has flat affect. His thoughts are illogical and disorganized with thought blocking. Patient has: a. Schizophrenia b. Major bipolar disorder c. Paranoid disorder d. Schizoaffective disorder
a. Schizophrenia
481
5. A 45-year-old man has always experience co-occurring symptoms of depression – including feeling “down in the dumps,” having poor appetite, feeling hopeless, and suffering from insomnia – during his episodes of active psychosis. These depressive symptoms occurred only during his psychotic episodes. After his psychotic episodes were successfully controlled by medication, no further symptoms of depression were present. The patient has never met full criteria for major depressive disorder at any time. What is the appropriate DSM-5 Diagnosis? a. Schizophrenia b. Schizoaffective disorder c. Persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) d. Schizophrenia and persistent depressive disorder (dysthymia) e. Unspecific schizophrenia spectrum and other psychotic disorder
a. Schizophrenia
482
Refers to frequent and persistent pattern of angry/irritable mood, argumentative behavior, or vindictiveness. a. Intermittent explosive disorder b. Oppositional defiant disorder c. Conduct disorder d. Violent behavior
b. Oppositional defiant disorder
483
. Discrete episodes of failure to resist aggressive impulses that result in serious assaultive acts or destruction of property. a. Intermittent explosive disorder b. Oppositional defiant disorder c. Conduct disorder d. Violent behavior
a. Intermittent explosive disorder
484
A 28-year-old woman presents to her physician with abdominal pain that has persisted intermittently for a decade. The pain has been particularly intense for the past several weeks. She is unable to sleep at night and has “tried everything for the pain but it won’t go away.” She reports nausea and diarrhea. She also has longstanding complaints of chronic headaches, muscle spasms, and dyspareunia (painful sexual intercourse). Her chart shows multiple visits over the years for similar symptoms with only vague physical examination findings and no laboratory findings. She has had several investigative surgeries and procedures without results. She asks if she should have another surgery to find out what is wrong. a. Body dysmorphic disorder b. Conversion disorder c. Illness anxiety disorder d. Somatic symptom disorder e. Malingering
d. Somatic symptom disorder
485
. A 19-year-old woman is hospitalized for dehydration caused by severe, laxativeinduced diarrhea. She is depressed about the recent breakup of a romantic relationship. She admits that she uses laxatives because she has been binge- eating frequently and is worried about gaining weight. Although the woman has BMI 16, she believes that she is overweight. Which of the following most likely diagnosis? a. Anorexia nervosa b. Bulimia nervosa c. Binge-eating disorder d. Major depressive disorder e. Brief psychotic disorder
a. Anorexia nervosa "Although the woman has BMI 16,"
486
First-line treatment for panic disorder: a. SNRIs b. SSRIs c. Alprazolam d. Bezodiazipines
b. SSRIs fluoxetine, sertraline, escitalopram prozac, zoloft, lexapro
487
A high school student complains of fatigue and a sore throat. She has swollen, tender lymph nodes and a fever. Blood test results show an increased white blood cell count with many atypical lymphocytes; the number and appearance of the erythrocytes are normal. This student is likely to have a. Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome b. Pernicious anemia c. Infectious mononucleosis d. Hodgkin disease e. Factor VIII deficiency
c. Infectious mononucleosis
488
A 30-year-old patient has been anemic for several years. The patient now complains of poor vision and hearing loss. It is determined that the patient lost function of some of the cranial nerves. Based on these findings, the patient might be having: a. Acromegaly b. Osteopetrosis c. Osteoporosis d. Osteomalacia e. Rickets
b. Osteopetrosis
489
How do you differentiate heat exhaustion from heat stroke? a. Heat stroke does not present with altered mental status, delirium, seizures b. Body temperature for heat exhaustion goes beyond 104 degrees Fahrenheit c. Exhaustion presents with decreased sympathetic activity resulting to diaphoresis, flushing d. Heat stroke can lead to heat exhaustion of not promptly treated
c. Exhaustion presents with decreased sympathetic activity resulting to diaphoresis, flushing
490
A patient who reports falling on the shoulder during a biking competition came to the emergency room. According to the chart made by the residentin- duty, the patient presented with a “step-off deformity” and the clavicle appears to be completely higher than the tip of the shoulder. Imaging studies show that both the coracoclavicular and acromioclavicular ligaments have been torn. How would you document these findings? a. (+) AC joint dislocation, Type II b. (+) AC joint dislocation, Type III c. (+) AC joint dislocation, Type IV d. (+) AC joint dislocation, Type V
b. (+) AC joint dislocation, Type III 1: AC sprain, CC normal 2: AC torn, CC sprain 3: AC torn, CC torn - 25-100% 4: AC torn, CC torn - skin tenting; posterior displacement of clavicle (Por=posterior) 5: AC torn, CC torn - >100% 6: AC torn, CC torn - inferior displacement of clavicle
491
motor stimulation (frequency, stimulation)
long phase stim, low frequency
492
sensory stimulation (frequency, stimulation)
short phase stim, high frequency (think TENS)
493
cubital tunnel syndrome
ulnar neuropathy
494
A patient in an acute care hospital has a catheter inserted into the internal jugular vein. The catheter travels through the superior vena cava and into the right atrium. The device permits removal of blood samples, administration of medication, and monitoring of central venous pressure. The device is BEST termed A. Arterial line B. Central Venous pressure catheter C. Hickman catheter D. Swan-Ganz Catheter
C. Hickman catheter
495
A physical therapist is treating a patient in an acute care setting with a hematologic disorder. The MOST appropriate profile to monitor on a daily basis in order to ensure patient safety during physical therapy would be: A. Complete blood count B. Hemoglobin C. Arterial blood gas D. Blood glucose
A. Complete blood count
496
A physical therapist uses a self-care assessment to examine change over time in rehabilitation programs. The assessment uses a seven point scale to examine 18 items. The collected information is based on observations of patient performance. This type of assessment MOST closely describes the: A. Functional Status Index B. Physical Self-Maintenance Scale C. Katz Index of Activities of Daily Living D. Functional Independence Measure
D. Functional Independence Measure
497
A physical therapist directs a patient in a stretching maneuver as part of a home exercise program. Based on the depicted image (ankle plantarflexed with knees flexed), which muscle is being stretched? A. rectus femoris B. biceps femoris C. soleus D. gastrocnemius
C. soleus
498
A physical therapist observes a patient during gait training. The patient has normal strength and equal leg length. As the patient passes midstance he slightly vaults and exhibits early toe off. The MOST likely cause of this deviation is: A. Limited dorsiflexion B. Weakness of the dorsiflexors C. Weakness of the hip abductors D. Limited plantarflexion
A. Limited dorsiflexion
499
A patient with limited elbow and forearm range of motion is referred to physical therapy. When mobilizing the humeroradial articulation, the treatment plane is considered to be: A. in the concave radial head, parallel to the long axis of the radius B. In the convex radial head, parallel to the long axis of the radius C. in the convex radial head, perpendicular to the long axis of the radius D. in the concave radial head, perpendicular to the long axis of the radius
D. in the concave radial head, perpendicular to the long axis of the radius radius is concave!!
500
a physical therapist prepares to perform manual vibration as a means of airway clearance with a patient diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. when performing vibration the MOST appropriate form of manual contact over the affected lung segment is A. contact with a cupped hand B. contact with the ulnar border of the hand C. contact with the entire palmar surface of the hand D. contact with the distal phalanx of the middle finger
C. contact with the entire palmar surface of the hand
501
a therapist conducts a goniometric assessment of a client's upper extremities. which of the following values is most indicative of normal passive glenohumeral abduction? A. 80 degrees B. 120 degrees C. 155 degrees D.180 degrees
B. 120 degrees
502
phase 2 cardiac rehab start and end test
start: low level treadmill test end: maximal treadmill test
503
A patient recovering from stroke walks with limited tibial advancement during stance on the more affected lower extremity. The therapist next examines the patient for a compensatory gait deviation. What is the MOST LIKELY deviation? A. Trendelenburg B. Exaggerated flexion synergy C. Exaggerated extension synergy D. Circumduction
D. Circumduction
504
Primary diseases of muscle include all of the following EXCEPT A. Progressive muscular dystrophy B. Infantile spinal muscular atrophy (Werdnig-Hoffman syndrome) C. Myasthenia gravis D. Myotonia congenital
B. Infantile spinal muscular atrophy (Werdnig-Hoffman syndrome)
505
Which is a characteristic of a dysthymic disorder? A. Recurrent, mild moods of hypomania and depression B. Chronic severe depression C. Poor response to psychotherapy D. Absence of psychomotor symptoms
B. Chronic severe depression
506
A therapist is assisting a patient in gaining lateral stability of the knee joint. The therapist is using strengthening exercises to strengthen muscle groups that will increase active restraint on the lateral side of the joint. Which of the following offers the least amount of active lateral restraint? A. Popliteus B. Biceps femoris C. Iliotibial band D. Gastrocnemius
D. Gastrocnemius more post. restraint
507
A patient complains of pain in the ear, what structure does not refer to the ear? A. Anterior digastric trigger point B. Sternocleidomastoid trigger point C. Deep masseter trigger point D. Temporomandibular joint
A. Anterior digastric trigger point incisors of mandible
508
In iontophoresis, vasodilating drugs would be used in A. Both "Rheumatic diseases" and "Peripheral vascular affections" B. Rheumatic diseases C. Peripheral vascular affections D. Neither "Rheumatic diseases" nor "Peripheral vascular affections"
A. Both "Rheumatic diseases" and "Peripheral vascular affections"
509
When comparing the means between two groups of subjects, you discover that there is a significant difference between the variances of your outcome measure in those groups. What does this result tell you? A. You are more likely to have committed a type I statistical error. B. You are more likely to have committed a type II statistical error. C. You need to run some additional post hoc tests. D. You should use a nonparametric statistical test to analyze your data.
D. You should use a nonparametric statistical test to analyze your data heterogeneity of data
510
The nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs impede COX-2 activity. COX-2 produces inflammatory prostaglandins via biosynthesis of what substance? A. Serotonin B. Substance P C. Arachidonic acid D. Gamma butyric acid
C. Arachidonic acid
511
What is the most effective form of diagnostic imaging for patients with multiple sclerosis (MS) to help determine level of disease activity? A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) B. Position emission tomography (PET) C. Computed tomography (CT) D. Transcranial sonography
A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
512
A patient presents with pain radiating down the posterior hip and thigh as a result of a herniated disc in the lumbar spine. The therapist decides to apply mechanical traction. If the patient can tolerate it, what is the preferred patient position? A. Supine with one knee flexed B. Prone with pillow under the abdomen C. Supine with both knees flexed D. Prone with no pillow
D. Prone with no pillow
513
The triad described by Korsakoff included all of the following EXCEPT A. Amnesia B. Confabulation C. Peripheral neuropathy D. Ataxia
D. Ataxia - under wernicke's syndrome
514
supracondylar fracture of the humerus would most likely cause a peripheral nerve injury involving A. Median nerve B. Axillary nerve C. Radial nerve D. Musculocutaneous nerve
A. Median nerve
515
A PT receives a referral from an acute care therapist to treat a patient with right hemiparesis in the home. The referral indicates that the patient demonstrates good recovery: both involved limbs are categorized as stage 4 (some movements out-of-synergy). The patient is ambulatory with a small-based quad cane. The activity that would be MOST beneficial for a patient at this stage of recovery is: A. Supine, bending the hip and knee up to the chest with some hip abduction B. Standing, lifting the foot up behind and slowly lowering it C. Standing, small-range knee squats D. Sitting, marching in place with alternate hip and flexion
B. Standing, lifting the foot up behind and slowly lowering it Stage 4 recovery is characterized by some movement combinations that do not follow paths of either flexion or extension obligatory synergies. Knee flexion in standing is an out-of-synergy movement.
516
All of the following cardiopulmonary function variables will increase in children in response to training except A. Heart volume B. Stroke volume C. Respiratory rate D. Tidal volume
C. Respiratory rate
517
Ultrasound causes the greatest rise in temperature in tissues with A. adipose B. protein C. cartilage D. tendon
B. protein muscle
518
A therapist is evaluating a patient with traumatic injury to the left hand. The therapist asks the patient to place the left hand on the examination table with the palm facing upward. The therapist then holds the second, third, and fifth digits in full extension. The patient is then asked to flex the fourth digit. What movement would be expected by a patient with an uninjured hand, and what muscle or muscles is the therapist restricting? A. the fourth finger would flex at the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint only, and the muscle being restricted would be the flexor digitorum superficialis B. The fourth finger would flex at the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint only, and the muscle being restricted would be the flexor digitorum profundus. C. The fourth finger would flex at the DIP joint only, and the muscles being restricted would be the lumbricals D. The fourth finger would flex at the PIP joint only, and the muscles being restricted would be the palmar interosseous
B. The fourth finger would flex at the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint only, and the muscle being restricted would be the flexor digitorum profundus.
519
If you wanted to determine how well the items on a test or survey related to each other, you would be analyzing that instrument's A. Content validity B. Intrarater reliability C. Stability D. Internal consistency
D. Internal consistency
520
Which of the following positions should be avoided in the right upper extremity with a patient who has a diagnosis of right hemiplegia secondary to a stroke? A. Prolonged shoulder adduction, internal rotation, and elbow flexion B. Prolonged finger and thumb flexion C. Prolonged shoulder abduction, internal rotation, and elbow flexion D. Prolonged wrist flexion and finger adduction
A. Prolonged shoulder adduction, internal rotation, and elbow flexion
521
A patient with CHF is on digitalis to improve myocardial contraction. The patient is a new participant in a phase 2 outpatient cardiac rehabilitation program. What should the PT expect the effects of the medication to include? A. Reduced exercise capacity B. Decreased BP C. Increased resting HR D. Depressed ST segment on ECG with QT and T wave changes
D. Depressed ST segment on ECG with QT and T wave changes
522
A physician discusses a patient's plan of care with a physical therapist. The patient is a 29-year-old male that sustained deep partial-thickness burns to the anterior surface of his lower extremities. The physician discusses the possibility of discontinuing use of the topical antibiotic silver sulfadiazine after identifying an irregularity in the patient's laboratory results. Which finding could be MOST related to the use of silver sulfadiazine? A. peripheral edema B. hypokalemia C. altered pH balance D. leukopenia
D. leukopenia
523
Long-wave infrared A. Nonluminous infrared radiation B. Luminous infrared radiation C. None D. Both
A. Nonluminous infrared radiation
524
A physical therapist evaluates a patient with a recent stroke involving the cerebellar arteries. When evaluating the patient, the therapist would MOST likely expect to find the presence of: A. Chorea B. Dysarthria C. Hemiballismus D. Hypertonia
B. Dysarthria
525
A therapist is reviewing x-rays from a patient with a trimalleolar fracture. What are the BEST radiographic views to visualize this bony fracture? A. Oblique and lateral B. Posteroanterior and lateral C. Anteroposterior and lateral D. Lateral and coronal
C. Anteroposterior and lateral
526
patient was referred for physical therapy after removal of a long arm cast extending to the forearm. She lacks full passive elbow extension. What may be causing this problem? A. Active insufficiency of the biceps B. Tightness in posterior humeroulnar joint capsule C. Passive insufficiency of the triceps D. Passive insufficiency of the pronator teres
D. Passive insufficiency of the pronator teres
527
In electromyography, denervated muscle would be indicated by A. Fibrillation voltages (potentials) B. Fasciculation voltages (potentials) C. Neither A nor B D. Both A and B
D. Both A and B
528
A physical therapist reads in the medical chart that a patient is taking digitalis. The patient is MOST likely taking this medication to treat: A. Angina B. atrial fibrillation C. hypertension D. thrombus formation
B. atrial fibrillation
529
All of the following represent normal chronaxie values for skeletal muscle EXCEPT A. 1/1000 second B. 1 sigma C. 1000 milliseconds D. 1 millisecond
C. 1000 milliseconds
530
A developmental defect in which there is disproportionate enlargement of the lesser wings of the sphenoid bones, producing an excessive distance between the orbits and a flattening of the bridge of the nose A. Hypertelorism B. Hypothyroidism C. Achondroplasia D. Hypoglycemia E. Craniocleidodysostosis
A. Hypertelorism
531
When utilizing electrical stimulation, the key element of pulsed current is A. The duration of the current B. A period of electrical silence C. The frequency of the current D. The amplitude of the current
B. A period of electrical silence
532
Which of the following is the most serious or severe form of mental disease? A. Psychotic disorders B. Psychoneurotic disorder C. Psychophysiologic disorders D. Psychosomatic disorders
A. Psychotic disorders
533
A physical therapist assesses several superficial reflexes as part of a neurological examination. Which grading system is MOST appropriate when recording the obtained results? A. Ordinal scale from 0-4+ B. Hypoactive, normal, hyperactive C. Present, absent D. Zero, trace, poor, fair, good, normal
C. Present, absent
534
A physical therapist is performing an examination for an infant that has recently been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect. Which of the following clinical signs would not likely be present? A. Poor weight gain B. Decreased respiratory rate C. Bradycardia D. Lower extremity swelling
C. Bradycardia should be tachycardia
535
A fracture of the second lumbar vertebrae would involve which segment of the spinal cord? A. Twelfth thoracic B. First lumbar C. None of the above D. Second lumbar
C. None of the above SC ends at L1-L2; so at L2 below cauda equina/peripheral nerves may be involved
536
A patient asks the therapist to explain the function of his medication verapamil (a calcium antagonist). Which of the following points should be conveyed in the therapist’s explanation? A. Verapamil causes decreased contractility of the heart and vasodilation of the coronary arteries. B. Verapamil causes decreased contractility of the heart and vasoconstriction of the coronary arteries. C. Verapamil causes increased contractility of the heart and vasodilation of the coronary arteries. D. Verapamil causes increased contractility of the heart and vasoconstriction of the coronary arteries.
A. Verapamil causes decreased contractility of the heart and vasodilation of the coronary arteries.
537
A patient presents with supraspinatus tendinitis. After the initial cryotherapy, the therapist decides to apply ultrasound (US). In what position should the therapist place the shoulder joint in order to effectively treat the supraspinatus tendon? A. Slight abduction and internal rotation B. Adduction and external rotation C. Adduction and internal rotation D. Slight abduction and external rotation
A. Slight abduction and internal rotation
538
Adrenergic receptors A. Are subdivided into four major categories B. Include the alpha and beta receptors C. Include the muscarinic and nicotinic receptors D. When blocked, can cause dry mouth, decreased salivation, blurry vision, and constipation
B. Include the alpha and beta receptors
539
In carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS), the following statements are true EXCEPT: a. There is not a good correlation between results of electrophysiological studies and symptoms the patient report b. Severe symptoms may not be associated with deficits in grip or complains of weakness. c. As the CTS progresses, the symptoms of paresthesia may decrease and be replaced with actual muscle atrophy and weakness d. If the disorder has progressed to the point of thenar muscle atrophy, then nonsurgical treatment may be appropriate or effective
d. If the disorder has progressed to the point of thenar muscle atrophy, then nonsurgical treatment may be appropriate or effective surgical treatment
540
This outcome measure of intervention in Carpal Tunnel Syndrome was reported to be 4 times more responsive to clinical improvement than measures of neuromuscular impairment. a. 2-point discrimination b. Light touch with monofilaments c. Functional Status Scale d. Symptoms Severity Scale e. Manual muscle test
d. Symptoms Severity Scale functional status scale - 2x symptoms severity scale - 4x
541
This procedure tests for anteromedial band of anterior cruciate ligament, medial and lateral tibiomeniscal anterior portion of these capsular ligaments, anterior cruciate ligament, and posterior cruciate ligament. a. External rotation/recurvatum test b. Lachman’s test c. Crossover test d. Apley’s distraction test with internal rotation e. Anterior drawer test
e. Anterior drawer test
542
The following characteristics describe an upper motor neuron disease EXCEPT: _______. I. There are lesions affecting nerves below the level of the brainstem(LMNL) II. Lesions may be found in descending motor tracts within the cerebral motor cortex(motor tracts originate from the cerebral motor cortex and brainstem, and run through the spinal cord) III. Symptoms may include hypertonicity and hyperreflexia IV. Tracts in the lateral white column of the spinal cord are damaged V. The ventral gray column of the spinal cord may be affected.(LMNL) a. I, II, and V b. I, II and IV c. III, IV and V d. II, III and IV
a. I, II, and V
543
Which of the following statements is true concerning vital capacity of client with restrictive lung disease? a. Above normal due to destruction of alveolar septa b. Above normal due to greater radial traction exerted on airway walls c. Below normal due to increased airway resistance d. Below normal due to reduced lung compliance
d. Below normal due to reduced lung compliance
544
Craniosacral therapy is an evaluation and treatment approach that assume the presence of craniosacral motion to be as follows EXCEPT it is ___________: a. A physiological motion because it is unconscious and voluntary b. Unstable and fluctuates in response to exercise, emotion and rest c. An inherent rhythmical motion in human and animals, different from any other rhythm in the body d. Claimed to change in response to trauma, autism or learning disability
a. A physiological motion because it is unconscious and voluntary
545
__________ is characterized by an inability to sustain a body part or parts in one position, often the distal limbs, and the movements are slow and fluid. a. Ballismus b. Spasticity c. Dystonia d. Chorea e. Athetosis
e. Athetosis
546
A 66-year-old with a right gastrocnemius contracture is in the whirlpool. The correct temperature for the submersion is ______degrees F. a. 92 b. 108 c. 104 d. 98
c. 104
547
A PT observes that the gait of patient status post pneumonia is characterized by heel walking. Possible cause of this deviation can be any of the following EXCEPT: a. Tightness of the dorsiflexor muscle b. Weakness of the gastrocnemius muscle c. Decreased strength of the dorsiflexors d. Pes calcaneous deformity
c. Decreased strength of the dorsiflexors
548
8. PT has just completed a study investigating the relationship between ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) and type of testing modality: arm ergometry versus leg ergometry. PT finds a correlation of .52 with the arm testing while the correlation is 0.75 with the leg testing. This means that . a. The common variance of both types of testing is only 20 percent b. Both arm and leg ergometry are highly correlated RPE c. Leg ergometry is highly correlated with RPE while arm ergometry is only moderately correlated d. Both arm and leg ergometry are only moderately correlated with RPE
c. Leg ergometry is highly correlated with RPE while arm ergometry is only moderately correlated
549
If a patient has diagnosis of anterior interosseus syndrome, the activity that will be most difficult to perform is a. resisted wrist extension with the elbow flexed at 90 degrees b. wrist ulnar deviation with the thumb tucked inside a closed fist c. pinching together the tips of the index finger and thumb
c. pinching together the tips of the index finger and thumb
550
33. The ideal temperature of the water in the whirlpool when treating a patient with severe arterial insufficiency is ___. a. 90-92 degrees Celcius b. 90-92 degrees Fahrenheit c. 33.5-35.5 degrees Fahrenheit d. 92-96 degrees Fahrenheit
d. 92-96 degrees Fahrenheit
551
52. A PT is evaluating a 50-year old male patient who underwent a total knee arthroplasty 2 weeks ago. PT noticed that the entire leg has started swelling. There is pitting edema throughout the lower leg and foot with tenderness in the midcalf. Girth measurement showed a 3.7 increase in the size of the midcalf. What is the NEXT step that the PT should take? a. Call physician after treatment to report result of evaluation b. Send patient to the emergency room right away c. Elevate the affected extremity d. Send patient home with instruction to monitor the affected extremity
b. Send patient to the emergency room right away
552
57. A 65-year-old with breast cancer underwent a surgical removal of the mass followed by 12 weeks of chemotherapy and 8 weeks of radiation. PT program is directed towards mobilization of her upper extremity. An important guideline to the PT when treating a patient after radiation is _____. a. avoid stretching exercises that pull on the radiated site b. observe infection control procedures c. avoid all aerobic exercises for at least 2 months d. observe skin care precautions
d. observe skin care precautions
553
66. To reduce inflammation of the tracheobronchial mucosa in asthma, COPD and sarcoidosis, steroids are often prescribed. Which of these is not a side effect of steroid therapy? a. Increased susceptibility to notion b. decrease in BP c. tachycardia d. osteoporosis
b. decrease in BP
554
90. This is a test for epicondylitis where patient is positioned in sitting. The therapist palpates the lateral epicondyle, pronates the patient's forearm, flexes the wrist and extends the elbow. A positive test is indicated by pain in the lateral epicondyle region and may be indicative of lateral epicondylitis. a. Mill's b. Lateral epicondylitis test c. Medial epicondylitis test d. Cozen’s
a. Mill's
555
101. A patient 4 months post total knee replacement is referred for ROM and strengthening exercises. Which strategy would NOT be appropriate for the patient? a. active strengthening using the contract-relax technique (*originally stretching) b. exercise on a stationary bicycle against mild resistance c. joint mobility to increase joint play d. performing straight leg raising, short arc extension and knee flexion exercise using light weights
c. joint mobility to increase joint play
556
104. A PT is conducting a pre-operative training for a patient scheduled for repair of a large rotator cuff tear. Patient is a 56-year-old bank executive and he wants to know how long before he can resume his former recreational activities such as golf and badminton. The MOST appropriate time frame is ____ weeks. a. 24 – 28 b. 6 – 8 c. 12—14 d. 36 – 40
a. 24 – 28 6-8 strength and conditioning 12-14 task specific training 36-40 back to normal
557
115. Your patient with Parkinson's disease was prescribed levodopa. The side effects of the drug are the following EXCEPT a. arrhythmias b. gastrointestinal distress c. orthostatic hypotension d. impaired visual accommodation
d. impaired visual accommodation
558
118. A PT observes an electrocardiogram of a patient on beta-blockers. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes could be facilitated by beta-blockers? a. premature ventricular contractions b. sinus bradycardia c. ST segment sagging d. sinus tachycardia
b. sinus bradycardia
559
121. A patient is on immune suppressants following renal transplantation was referred to the clinic for mobility training using crutches. Initial evaluation revealed paresthesia in both lower extremities with peripheral weakness in both hands and feet. PT suspects that patient is MOST LIKELY experiencing a. leukopenia b. peripheral neuropathy c. myopathy d. quadriparesis
b. peripheral neuropathy
560
123. A PT working in the provincial hospital was asked to cover an interscholastic football league competition. During a game, a player is knocked down on the field. The PT rushed to the scene and determines that the player is unconscious. What should be the NEXT action of the PT? a. Proceed to give mouth to mouth resuscitation check for shock b. Start with the head and determine first if there is any bleeding or fluid coming from the nose, ears, eyes, or mouth c. Check the carotid pulse for a heart beat d. Check breathing and if it is impaired, clear the airway, and if necessary
d. Check breathing and if it is impaired, clear the airway, and if necessary
561
131. Postural drainage is prescribed to a patient with cystic fibrosis. If the superior segment of the lower lobes are the target areas, how will PT proceed? a. patient lies prone, head down, 20 inches foot elevation with pillows under the hips b. patient lies supine, head down 20 inches with pillows under the knees c. patient lies supine with 2 pillows under hips, bed flat d. patient lies supine with pillows under the knees, bed flat
a. patient lies prone, head down, 20 inches foot elevation with pillows under the hips
562
144. The following impairments may result in patients with a lesion in the frontal lobe of the brain EXCEPT a. perseveration, in attention b. homonymous hemianopsia c. contralateral weakness d. personality changes, antisocial behavior
b. homonymous hemianopsia
563
147. Patient figured in a traction injury to the anterior division of the brachial plexus. PT expected to see weakness of the elbow flexors, wrist flexors and forearm proration. The PT would also expect to find more weakness in a. wrist extension b. forearm supination c. thumb abduction d. lateral rotation or the shoulder
c. thumb abduction APL - radial (PIN) APB - median nerve
564
153. An orthopedic surgeon referred a 25-year-old basketball player for instruction to improve strength of his ankle using closed kinematic chain exercises to increase ankle proprioception and reduce risk for ankle sprains. Which of these exercises should be part of your exercise program? a. Ankle eversion-inversion exercises using free weights strapped to his ankle b. Ankle eversion exercises using theraband resistance while the patient is sitting on the floor with his knee extended c. Walking on an inclined plane d. Half squats
c. Walking on an inclined plane
565
179. A 60-year-old golfer was referred to PT for a sacroiliac joint pain. In your evaluation, you plan to include a Gillet's test. Which of these methods describe how test is carried out? a. Patient in supine with correct trunk alignment, pelvis and lower limbs. You stand at edge of table by patient's feet palpating medial malleolus to assess asymmetry. Have patient come to long sitting position and assess the leg length. b. Place thumb of your hand under PSIS of limb to be tested and place your other thumb on center sacrum at same level as thumb under PSIS. Ask patient to extend hip of limb being tested. c. Patient is sidelying at edge of bed while holding bottom leg in maximal hip and knee flexion (knee to chest). Standing behind patient passively extend hip of uppermost limb. d. Patient is standing. Place thumb of your hand under PSIS of limb to be tested and place your other thumb on center of sacrum at same level as thumb under PSIS. Ask patient to flex hip and knee of limb tested like bringing knee to chest
d. Patient is standing. Place thumb of your hand under PSIS of limb to be tested and place your other thumb on center of sacrum at same level as thumb under PSIS. Ask patient to flex hip and knee of limb tested like bringing knee to chest
566
181. In a person with normal balance, the fastest sensory system to provide balance information is the: a. Visual system b. Vestibular system c. Somatosensory system d. All 3 systems are equally fast
c. Somatosensory system
567
186. A stage of sprain injury with symptoms that include moderate pain swelling, minimal instability of the joint, minimal to moderate tearing of the ligament and decreased range of motion (LESTER) a. Grade 3 b. Grade 4 c. Grade 2 d. Grade 1
c. Grade 2
568
A PT is prescribing a wheelchair for his 68-year-old patient who is 5 ft. 7 inches tall. The MOST useful feature to include in the prescription is a. desk armrests b. a 20 in. seat height c. a 17.5 in. seat height d. elevating leg rests
c. a 17.5 in. seat height
569
194. A deep thickness burn is expected to heal if there is no infection in _________ days. a. 21 – 35 b. 36 - 42 c. 2 – 5 d. 7 – 21
a. 21 – 35
570
196. The following are considerations when treating a patient with bronchogenic carcinoma, EXCEPT: a. ecchymosis in patients with low platelet count b. possible fractures from thoracic bone metastasis c. pneumonia may develop because of a completely obstructed bronchus d. change in skin color
d. change in skin color
571
When treating a patient who has ankylosing spondylitis, which of the following muscles require the MOST emphasis in strengthening exercises? A. Pectorals B. Hip flexors C. Abdominals D. Back extensors
D. Back extensors
572
A client with rheumatoid arthritis presents at the physical therapy clinic with severe whiplash from a motor vehicle accident 1 week ago. Initial cervical radiograph results revealed osseous structures appeared intact. The client’s chief complaints are of cervical pain and sudden falls with loss of consciousness. Examination reveals a positive Romber sign and hyperreflexia. The PT’s INITIAL action is to: A. Immediately inform the referring physician and recommend a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan B. Fit this client with a hard cervical collar and contact the referring physician recommending a computed tomography (CT) scan C. Perform a test for transverse ligament laxity D. Immediately inform the referring physician and recommend another series of radiographs
B. Fit this client with a hard cervical collar and contact the referring physician recommending a computed tomography (CT) scan MRI would miss a fracture
573
The physical therapy supervisor believed the therapists in the department lacked initiative and did not have self-discipline in control. His management style therefore is A. Theory X B. Theory Y C. Theory Z D. Theory XYZ
A. Theory X
574
A patient has limited right rotation caused by left thoracic facet joint capsular tightness at T6-7, what arthrokinematic glide would MOST effectively improve right rotation in sitting? A. Superior and anterior glide on the right T7 transverse process. B. Superior and anterior glide on the left T7 transverse process. C. Superior and anterior glide on the left T6 transverse process. D. Superior and anterior glide on the right T6 transverse process.
C. Superior and anterior glide on the left T6 transverse process.
575
A physical therapist is working on transfers with a patient who had a brainstem cerebrovascular accident. The patient has ataxia in all four extremities and a high level of extensor tone in the lower extremities. The patient has fair to good trunk control. Which of the following transfers is BEST for this patient? A. Squat pivot B. Sliding board C. Standing pivot D. Dependent tuck
A. Squat pivot prevents lower extremity ext tone
576
IRR vs UV pigmentation
IRR mottled UV slightly red pigmentation
577
A patient had knee surgery 4 weeks ago. Which of the following neuromuscular electrical stimulation parameters would be MOST appropriate to use for strengthening the patient’s quadriceps muscle? A. 1 to 4 pps, 100 microseconds B. 1 to 4 pps, 350 microseconds C. 40 to 50 pps, 350 microseconds D. 100 pps, 100 microseconds
C. 40 to 50 pps, 350 microseconds 1-4 pps tetany, but no ms contraction 100pps rapid fatigue
578
A supracondylar fracture of the humerus would most likely cause a peripheral nerve injury involving A. Axillary nerve B. Radial nerve C. Median nerve D. Musculocutaneous nerve
C. Median nerve
579
An involucrum is A. Sheath of new bone B. Pyogenic lesion of a joint C. Condition caused by premature closure of an epiphysis D. Tumor metastasis to bone
A. Sheath of new bone
580
An elevated lesion of skin or mucous membrane that penetrates into the underlying tissues. It is less than 1 cm in its greatest diameter A. Macule B. Papule C. Nodule D. Bulla
C. Nodule
580
When considering special tests for orthopedic assessment of a client, the validity of a test is important because the: A. results of the test can be standardized B. results of the test are reproducible C. test measures what it is supposed to measure D. test can be accurately performed by someone else
C. test measures what it is supposed to measure B. and D. are reliability
581
All of the following are manifestations of atopic dermatitis EXCEPT A. Bronchial asthma B. Allergic eczematous C. Allergic rhinitis D. Hay fever
B. Allergic eczematous
582
Wavelength of short ultraviolet radiation is A. 700-1500 mµ B. 1600-12,000 mµ C. 180-290 mµ D. 0.1-3 mm
583
The concept of current dosage in iontophoresis refers to the A. Current density as determined by the size of the delivery electrode B. Current amplitude (intensity) multiplied by treatment time C. Current polarity in relation to the medication's polarity D. Difference between the phase charge and the treatment time
B. Current amplitude (intensity) multiplied by treatment time
584
Which of the following benzodiazepine medications is most properly indicated for outpatient-based treatment of convulsive disorders? A. Xanax B. Klonopin C. Valium D. Dalmane
B. Klonopin
585
ER status epilepticus drug A. Xanax B. Klonopin C. Valium D. Dalmane
C. Valium
586
The translatoric gliding mobilization technique attempts to follow A. Parallel joint surfaces B. Oblique joint surfaces C. Parallel treatment plane D. Articular surfaces
C. Parallel treatment plane
587
A physical therapist is examining the integumentary system of a patient with dark skin pigmentation and notices a deepening of the skin color over the left posterior aspect of the calcaneus. Which of the following findings would indicate a Stage I pressure ulcer at that site? A. Increased skin temperature, compared to the surrounding tissue B. Blanching with applied pressure that returns to previous coloring within 30 seconds after the removal of pressure C. Decreased skin temperature, compared to the surrounding tissue D. Blanching with applied pressure that returns to previous coloring 1 hour after the removal of pressure
C. Decreased skin temperature, compared to the surrounding tissue The onset of a Stage I pressure ulcer is characterized by nonblanching erythema and decreased skin temperature over the site of the ulcer. Because blanching is difficult to ascertain in patients with dark skin, use of skin temperature for assessment of pressure ulcers is preferred.
588
Which of the following joint mobilizations would be MOST effective for improving a patient’s ability to progress into terminal stance? A. Posterior glide of the talus on the tibia B. Posterior glide of the calcaneus on the talus C. Plantar glide of the 1st proximal phalanx on the metatarsal D. Dorsal glide of the 1st proximal phalanx on the metatarsal
D. Dorsal glide of the 1st proximal phalanx on the metatarsal
589
osteitis deformans
paget's
590
A physical therapy note states: “A patient ambulates independently with crutches on level surfaces and on stairs. The patient lacks endurance to walk up more than one floor at a time; however, this should increase with practice. The patient says he lives on the fourth floor and there is no elevator. Will work to increase endurance prior to discharge.” In the SOAP format, the “A” of the note is: A. will work to increase endurance B. patient lives on the fourth floor with no elevator C. patient ambulates independently with crutches D. endurance should increase with practice
D. endurance should increase with practice
591
primary degeneration of the pyramidal tracts A. huntington’s chorea B. jacksonian epilepsy C. alzheimer’s disease D. multiple sclerosis E. motor neuron disease
E. motor neuron disease
592
MCP hyperextension and MTP flexion degrees
MCP hyperext: 0-30 MTP flexion: 30-45
593
The following statements are true, EXCEPT: a. Abnormal range for acid-base balance is + or 0.5 from the normal pH of 7.4 b. Paralysis may develop if calcium concentration falls to less than 1/3 of the normal c. Tetanic concentration of muscles may develop if calcium ion concentration falls below 1/2 the normal due to spontaneous generation of nerve impulses in the peripheral nerve d. A 6 to 7 degree temperature increase above normal may lead to increased cellular metabolism that destroys cells
b. Paralysis may develop if calcium concentration falls to less than 1/3 of the normal paralysis if potassium falls
594
Which of the following statements about the Gluteus Maximus is true? a. It is a rotator of the extended thigh though it losses power if the thigh is flexed b. All of these c. None of these d. It is an extensor of the hip but is used only when the joint has to be extended with power
b. All of these
595
Nerve supply to the intrinsic muscle of the larynx are branches from: A. Accessory nerve b. Vagus nerve c. Hypoglossal nerve d. Glossopharyngeal nerve
b. Vagus nerve
596
Resting cell membrane: a. More permeable to K than Na b. More permeable to Na than K c. Not permeable to Na and K d. Equally permeable to Na and K
a. More permeable to K than Na
597
The Radial Nerve innervates the following muscles, EXCEPT: a. Extensor Indicis Propius b. Abductor Pollicis Brevis c. Extensor Digitorum d. Two radial Lumbricals
b. Abductor Pollicis Brevis d. Two radial Lumbricals
598
A sudden increase in the membrane potential in a large nerve will cause the development of the action potential. This is termed as: a. Positive feedback b. None of these c. Threshold for stimulation d. Propagation of the action potential
c. Threshold for stimulation
599
This matrix is composed of intracellular constituents where myofibrils are suspended inside the muscle fiber: a. Sarcoplasm b. Z disk c. Sarcolemma d. A band
a. Sarcoplasm
600
A lesion of the supramarginal gyrus of the dominant parietal lobe resulting in the subject's inability to do what he on she wants to do: a. Kinetic apraxia b. Ideational apraxia c. Ideomotor apraxia d. Gait apraxia
c. Ideomotor apraxia supramarginal gyrus = ideomotor apraxia
601
This ligament supports the head of the talus, and when over-stretched will reduce the amount of longitudinal are resulting in flatfoot deformity: a. Calcaneonavicular ligament b. Deltoid ligament c. Calcaneofibular ligament d. Talofibular ligament
a. Calcaneonavicular ligament PlaCaNA = spring = plantar calcaneonavicular ligament
602
The Ulnar Nerve innervates the following muscles, EXCEPT: a. Adductor Pollicis b. Palmaris Longus c. All Hypothenar d. All interossei
b. Palmaris Longus median N
603
The only tarsal bone with no muscle attachment: a. Cuboid b. Talus c. Navicular d. Calcaneus
b. Talus
604
This muscle draws the mandible forward and toward the midline: a. Pterygoid b. Temporalis c. Masseter d. Orbicularis oris
a. Pterygoid pterygoid - protrusion temporalis - retrusion
605
The vagal system includes the following, EXCEPT: a. VI cranial nerve b. Cranial portion of XI cranial nerve c. IX cranial nerve d. X cranial nerve
a. VI cranial nerve
606
kehr's sign
L shoulder pain d/t spleen rupture
607
The Size Principles of Recruitment is best described as follows: a. The smallest motor neurons are the first recruited and the largest motor neurons are never recruited b. None of these c. The largest motor neurons are the first recruited and the smallest motor neurons are recruited last d. The smallest motor neurons are the first recruited and the largest motor neurons are recruited last
d. The smallest motor neurons are the first recruited and the largest motor neurons are recruited last
608
The following statements are true of the hip joints, EXCEPT: a. There is a slight iliacus activity when standing at ease b. Subjects with bilateral KAFC are supported at the hips by the iliofemoral ligaments when standing c. Collapse at the hip is likely in subjects with bilateral lower extremity paralysis when the center of gravity of HAT moves behind the hip axis d. Backward tilting the pelvis to decrease the lumbar curve could cause an artificial knee to buckle
c. Collapse at the hip is likely in subjects with bilateral lower extremity paralysis when the center of gravity of HAT moves behind the hip axis
609
This terms refers to the use of sensory input from receptors in muscle spindles, tendons and joints to discriminate joint position, and joint movement, including direction, amplitude and speed, and relative tension with tendons: a. All of these b. Kinesthesia c. none of these d. Proprioception
d. Proprioception
610
May result from lesion in the dominant parietal lobe of the corpus callosum in which the subject fails to carry out sequences of acts even if individual movements are correct: a. Ideomotor apraxia b. Kinetic apraxia c. Gait apraxia d. Ideational apraxia
d. Ideational apraxia can do separate tasks but not whole kinetic - inability to perform fine, coordinated, sequenced movement
611
When the first metacarpal rotates on the trapezium to place the thumb against the fingers, this motion is called: a. Adduction b. None of these c. Opposition d. Abduction
c. Opposition
612
This type of joint is formed by the talus and tibia: a. Pivot b. Saddle c. Hinge d. Ball and Socket
c. Hinge
613
Factors responsible to maintain a potential difference across the cell membrane: a. None of these b. Cell can actively move ions across the membrane to maintain a required resting potential c. Cell membrane is relatively permeable to certain ions d. Both of these
b. Cell can actively move ions across the membrane to maintain a required resting potential cell membrane is relatively impermeable to certain ions
614
615
In ulnar nerve paralysis, the following happens, EXCEPT: a. The hypothenar group does not function b. The 4th and 5th digits cannot be extended due to the absence of intrinsic muscles c. Abduction and adduction of all digits are not affected d. The extensor digitorum is capable of extending the IP joints if the MCP joints are stabilized in a flexed position.
c. Abduction and adduction of all digits are not affected palmar and dorsal interossei = abd add
616
This muscle is a powerful adductor of the arm and a medial rotator. The clavicular head flexes the shoulder joint, and from this position the sterna head extends the shoulder joint: a. None of these b. Latissimus Dorsi c. Pectoralis Minor d. Pectoralis Major
d. Pectoralis Major
617
This opening is a triangular-shaped defect in the external oblique aponeurosis that lies above and medial to the public tubercle: a. Cremasteric Ring b. Superficial Inguinal Ring c. Femoral Ring d. External Spermatic Fascia
b. Superficial Inguinal Ring
618
Since terminal knee extension requires sacral rotation of the tibia on the femur, initiation of knee flexion requires the reverse action of medial rotation of the tibia on the femur. This action is performed by: a. Popliteus b. Semitendinosus c. Articularis Genu d. Plantaris
a. Popliteus
619
Following is true of myostatic reflex: a. Capable of increasing tension for postural muscle tone b. Basic neural mechanism for maintaining tone in muscle c. Results from inputs to motor neuron pools form groups I and II D. AOTA
D. AOTA
620
This ligament of the vertebral column is a series of 23 intersegmental ligaments that connect the lamina of two adjacent vertebrae from C-2 to the sacrum: a. Supraspinous ligament b. Intertransverse ligament c. Ligamentum flavum d. Interspinous ligament
c. Ligamentum flavum
621
On the medial side of the foot, just distal to the tip of the medial malleolus, this slight protuberance may be felt: a. Sustentaculum Tali b. First Cuneiform c. Tuberosity of the Navicular d. Medial tubercle of the Talus
a. Sustentaculum Tali
622
Occlusion of the posterolateral thalamic branches in the thalamic syndrome may result in the following, EXCEPT: a. Partial to complete loss of sensation on the same side of the body b. Severe, burning, constant pain in the regions with limited sensation c. Cerebellar ataxia and tremor may be produced in the extremities of the opposite side d. Sensations of touch, pain and temperature are decreased in the affected limbs
a. Partial to complete loss of sensation on the same side of the body
623
In order not to allow side to side play, the sides of the body of the talus are grasped by these bony flanges: a. None of these b. All of these c. Talocalcaneonavicular joint d. Medial and lateral malleolus
d. Medial and lateral malleolus
624
In voltage gating, when there is a strong negative charge on the inside of the cell membrane; the sodium gates remain tightly closed: a. The first statement is true, the second statement is false b. Both statements are false c. Both statements are true d. The second statements is true, the first statements is false
c. Both statements are true
625
Characteristic of isometric contraction: a. All of these b. Performs work c. Change in muscle tension d. Change in muscle length
c. Change in muscle tension no change in distance = no work
626
During mid-stance to terminal stance, the quadriceps perform the following activity: a. Stabilizes the knee to control swing of the opposite leg b. Contract eccentrically c. No required activity d. Undergo a fast lengthening to stabilized the knee joint
c. No required activity
627
security of ankle jt is a result of an immobile act not rigid union of the ff. jt: A. inferior tibiofibular joint B. subtalar joint C. superior tibiofibular joint D. calcaneocuboid jt
A. inferior tibiofibular joint
628
the ff statements describe the factors affecting a cell's rate of diffusion in one direction EXCEPT: A. difference in pressure across a membrane B. in ions, the difference in chemical potential between 2 sides of the membrane C. Permeability and area of the membrane D. difference in concentration of the diffusing substance between 2 sides of the membrane
B. in ions, the difference in chemical potential between 2 sides of the membrane ions = electrical potential
629
which of the ff. events are required for the mechanical linkages bet actin and myosin to produce ms contraction? A. NOTA B. chemical reaction to provide energy of active tension C. Both D. A specific stimulus to trigger the coupling of the 2 filaments
C. Both
630
The ff. statements apply to genu valgum except: A. abnormalities in calcium metabolism may stimulate this problem B. Although usually bilateral, it may occur unilaterally C. Has strong familial tendency and may also be exaggerated by individual traits D. An angular deformity of the leg in which ankles are separated when knees are in contact E. May be associated with recurrent dislocation of the patella because of increased medial force on the patella
E. May be associated with recurrent dislocation of the patella because of increased medial force on the patella
631
In flexing the knees and hips and dorsiflexing the ankles, objects may be lifted from the floor. The ff positions of the pelvis and vertebrae are used: A. post tilt of pelvis c kyphotic position of vert. B. APT c lordotic position of lumbar spine C. Both D. NOTA
C. Both
632
The following statements are true of arthroscopy, EXCEPT: A. particularly useful in dx-ing conditions (i.e., meniscal d/o and cruciate lig injuries) B. most useful in dx-ing conditions of post and middle third of med meniscus C. CI for pt.s c bleeding d/o D. both a diagnostic procedure and tx and involves very little knee trauma E. visual examination of jt interior using a fiberoptic lens instrument attached to a light source
C. CI for pt.s c bleeding d/o
632
The spinal cord tapers at the level of the lower border of the 1st lumbar vertebra called a. Filum terminale b. Coccyx c. Conus medullaris d. Coccygium finale e. Cauda equine
c. Conus medullaris
633
In a pedal meniscus injury, the ff conditions apply, EXCEPT: A. Responsible for condition known as "locked knee" B. Complete extension of the knee joint may be prevented if the torn port of the cartilage between the joint surfaces C. There may be loosening of the cartilage at its central attachment D. Lesion may cause a transverse tear through the cartilage E. Usually caused by sudden internal rotation of the femur upon the fixed tibia, accompanied by abduction and flexion of the knee
C. There may be loosening of the cartilage at its central attachment loosening at peripheral attachment
633
The ff statements can be applied to the scalenes, EXCEPT: A. extends the cervical spine B. produce lateral flexion and rotation to the same side with unilateral contraction C. Increase cervical lordotic posture with bilateral contraction in the absence of longus colli D. elevate the first and second ribs when the cervical spine is stabilized D.
A. extends the cervical spine scalenes: neck flexion
634
skin traction weight limit
if more than 10 lbs = skeletal traction
635
afferent component of ms stretch reflex that provides CNS info about length and rate of change in length of striated muscles A. extrafusal fiber B. muscle spindle C. intrafusal fiber D. NOTA
B. muscle spindle muscle spindle- aff intrafusal fiber - eff
636
pt. cant support full weight on either of his legs, which gait pattern?
4-point 4- or 2-point but 4 point has decreased demand on coordination
637
instability with tear of arcuate complex. Result of adduction stress test is positive at 30deg of flexion. As is the result of the external rotation-recurvatum test, lateral tibial condyle has posterior subluxation in this instability: A. posterolateral instability B. combined anterolateral and anteromedial instability C. None of these D. anterolateral instability E. anteromedial instability
A. posterolateral instability
638
639
“Motor neuron disease” is a rather broad term applied to disorders characterized by the following, EXCEPT: a. Fasciculation are common and are often found generally before diffuse atrophy is evident. b. These are painless disorders except for muscle cramping, and there are no sensory deficits. c. Onset is often symmetric, with wasting of a hand, arm of shoulder girdle. d. Bulbar involvement may occur early or later and leads to fatal respiratory complications. e. Signs of progressive motor neuron loss with or without the paresis and spasticity of corticospinal tract degeneration.
c. Onset is often symmetric, with wasting of a hand, arm of shoulder girdle. asymmetric
640
The following statements are true of the collateral ligaments, EXCEPT: a. Lateral collateral ligament connects the femur and the fibula b. These ligaments may be easily injured when force is applied to the knee while a person’s leg is extended with his foot firmly planted on the ground. c. Medial collateral ligament connects the femur to the tibia. d. Prevent side-to-side movement by tightening during leg extension e. The collateral ligaments can tear when the femur is externally rotated on the tibia
e. The collateral ligaments can tear when the femur is externally rotated on the tibia FIR TER - taut collateral FER TIR - taut cruciate
641
Nonunion may occur with internal fixation. When this happens, the bone fragments may be stimulated with electrical current. Which of the following statements does not apply? a. The electrodes may be implanted either by open incision or percutaneously, using a hand drill b. The electricity applied either through magnetic coils placed on the skin at the fracture site, or through implanted electrodes c. Electrical bone stimulation substitutes for normal piezoelectric effect, in which mechanical stress on a solid object induces electrical activity d. A weak current of 20 microamperes is transmitted, because higher level would cause tissue necrosis and a lower level could fail to stimulate osteogenesis e. In alternating current stimulation of the bone, electronegativity appear to have the same osteoblastic simulating effect
e. In alternating current stimulation of the bone, electronegativity appear to have the same osteoblastic simulating effect osteoblastic effect c direct current
642
25. This test flexes the knee into full extension and passively allows it to extend completely with a sharp and point. It is designed to evaluate a lack of full knee extension, most often secondary to a torn meniscus, or an intracapsular joint swelling. a. Distraction Test b. Apprehension test c. McMurray Test d. “Bounce Home” Test
d. “Bounce Home” Test
643
The following structures pass between the malleoli, EXCEPT: a. Extensor digitorum longus tendon b. Extensor hallucis longus tendon c. Tibialis anterior tendon d. Posterior tibial artery and tibial nerve e. Dorsal pedal artery
d. Posterior tibial artery and tibial nerve
644
The following are true of the femoral triangle, EXCEPT: a. Defined superiorly by the inguinal crease b. Defined posteriorly by the Sartorius muscle ridge c. Defined medially by adductor longus muscle d. With the subject in supine, the soft tissues of the triangle is best examined with the heel of the leg being examined resting upon the opposite knee. e. The floor is formed by portions of the adductor longus, the pectineus and the iliopsoas muscles
b. Defined posteriorly by the Sartorius muscle ridge laterally by sartorius
645
Hemiplegia or hemiparesis is perhaps the most common physical manifestation of the disease of the brain. The following conditions describe hemiplegia, EXCEPT: a. Subjects may suffer severe hemisensory losses and hemianopsia b. Bilateral mild hemiparesis may pass unnoticed unless Babinski sign is present on both side c. Due in largest part to the vulnerability of the cortex and its radiations the lesions of vascular disease d. Ipsilateral weakness can result even when there is no immediate impingement of the motor cortex and its descending radiations e. Babinski sign is commonly present but the tendon reflexes may be absent, equal to those of the other side or exaggerated
d. Ipsilateral weakness can result even when there is no immediate impingement of the motor cortex and its descending radiations
646
The following statements apply to osteomyelitis, EXCEPT: a. This infection may occur when phylogenic bacteria invade the patient’s injured bone or soft tissue surroundings the bone b. The intramedullary abscess generally forms at the tip of a long bone where it exerts pressure inside the bone c. Accompanied by lowered ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate), leukocytosis, and presence of causative organism in wound or blood culture d. Occasionally, the new bone will surround the sequestrum completely in an attempt to heal the area, detaching the sequestrum completely and requires surgical removal
c. Accompanied by lowered ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate), leukocytosis, and presence of causative organism in wound or blood culture inflammation = higher ESR
647
Signs of meningeal irritation include the following, EXCEPT: a. Kernig sign is elicited when stretching of the lumbar roots consequent to extension of the leg on the thigh produces painful limitation of this movement b. The best sign is a demonstration of stiffness of the neck on flexion, usually accompanied by fever c. In severe meningitis, there may even be a rigid hyper-extension of the neck and back, but generally, it does not limit lateral rotation of the neck d. Probably based on a heightened sensitivity of irritated sensory roots to stretching e. Brudzinski sign is absent when flexion of the knees follows as attempt to flex the neck
e. Brudzinski sign is absent when flexion of the knees follows as attempt to flex the neck is present/positive
648
In-hospital postoperative care in acute knee instability repair include the following, EXCEPT: a. Cast change usually on the 5th postoperative day b. Cast immobilization of the knee at about 60 degrees of flexion c. Toe-touch weight bearing crutch walking as tolerated d. Non-weight bearing crutch walking e. Ankle ROM, quadriceps, femoris muscle setting exercises progressing to straight-leg raising exercises
c. Toe-touch weight bearing crutch walking as tolerated 10wks post op before TTWB is performed
649
The axilla is a quadrilateral pyramidal structure through which vessels and nerves pass to the upper extremity. The following statements apply to the axilla, EXCEPT: a. The apex permit the entry of the brachial plexus and axillary artery b. The medial wall is bound by ribs two to six and the overlaying serratus anterior c. The anterior and posterior wall can be palpated when the arm is abducted and extended d. The anterior wall is formed by the pectoralis major and the posterior by the latissimus dorsi e. The lateral wall is defined by the bicipital groove of the humerus
c. The anterior and posterior wall can be palpated when the arm is abducted and extended abducted only
650
In the knee, excessive normal forces resulting in overuse syndrome can be caused by the following, EXCEPT: a. High repetition, high load b. Low repetition, high load c. Activity level is greater than the possible physiological repair d. Poor conditioning e. Small biomechanical dysfunction that become magnified with high-performance activities
a. High repetition, high load high rep, low load low rep, high load
651
Which crutch-walking technique would you choose for patients with leg muscle weakness or spasticity, poor muscular coordination or balance, degenerative leg joint disease, or bilateral prosthesis? a. Swing-through three-point gait b. Four-point gait c. Three-point-and-one-gait (partial-weight-bearing) d. Three-point-gait (non-weight-bearing) e. Two-point gait
b. Four-point gait
652
The following statements characterize Moro reflex, EXCEPT: a. Absence of the response in the neonate definitely indicates brain disease b. It is normally present from birth until age 3-4 months c. Loss of the reflex previously present is one of the early signs Kernicterus d. Is indicative of a significant cerebral disorder if present beyond six months
a. Absence of the response in the neonate definitely indicates brain disease not necessarily brain dse; may be AHC problem, upper motor neuron lesion
653
Injury to the tibial collateral, middle one-third medial capsular, and posterior oblique ligaments may be determined by the following test: a. Adduction stress test at 45 degrees of flexion and the internal rotation posterior drawer sign b. Abduction stress test at 15 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign c. Abduction stress test at 30 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign d. Abduction stress test at 30 degrees of flexion and the internal rotation anterior drawer sign e. Adduction stress test at 45 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign
c. Abduction stress test at 30 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign
654
In the venous system: a. Blood vessels have smaller diameters than their corresponding arteries b. Mean pressures are higher than in the arterial system c. Blood vessels have greater compliance d. All of these are true e. None of these are true
c. Blood vessels have greater compliance
655
The patellar tendon of the quadriceps femoris attaches distally on this large roughened area which is anterior on the tibia and below the tibial condyles. This palpable structure is: a. None of these b. Crest of the tibia c. Tuberosity of the tibia d. TIbiofemoral joint line
b. Crest of the tibia
656
Characteristics of Fascioscapulohumeral dystrophy of Landouzy and Dejerine are as follows, EXCEPT: a. Lordosis is exaggerated b. It progress quickly, resulting in disability years after onset c. Atrophy of the face become severe d. Atrophy and weakness of the shoulder-girdle muscles are prominent e. Usually appears in the second decade of life and in either sex
b. It progress quickly, resulting in disability years after onset progresses slowly
656
This instability occurs with a tear of the posterior cruciate ligament and both the medial and lateral capsular ligaments. The results of the anterior test, in which both condyles are subluxed anteriorly an equal amount with no rotation is positive. a. Anterior instability b. None of these c. Posterior Instability d. Lateral Instability e. Medial Instability
a. Anterior instability
657
Which statement does not apply to the posterolateral drawer sign? a. When the tibia is in external rotation, the sign is positive b. The test is performed in the usual drawer fashion with the knee in 70 to 80 degrees of flexion c. The tibia is internally or externally rotated as well as being positive in neutral position d. Confirms a posterolateral rotator instability of the knee e. The sign is negative if the tibia is in internal rotation because of the intact posterior cruciate ligament
c. The tibia is internally or externally rotated as well as being positive in neutral position (+) tibia ER (-) tibia IR
658
117.The following may be observed upon examination of the patient’s lumbar spine, EXCEPT: a. Soft, doughy lipomata appearing as lumps in the area of the low back may be a sign of spina bifida b. Any reddened dislocation may indicate infection, and skin markings may denote underlying neurologic or bone pathology. c. Pedunculated tumors indicate the presence of neurofibromatosis and are often accompanied by café-u-lait spots which may impinge upon the spinal cord and nerve roots d. An unusual patch of hair on the back may be evidence of some body defect in the spine such as a congenital bony bar e. Gibbus deformity may bone present secondary to a herniated disc
e. Gibbus deformity may bone present secondary to a herniated disc
659
118.Which of the following is true of the Hamstring? a. All of these b. None of these c. They extend the hip and/or flex the knee d. Rotates the knee joint when the joint is fully extended
c. They extend the hip and/or flex the knee cannot rotate in full ext.
660
119.This method of bandaging is used to accommodate either increasing or decreasing body part circumstances: a. Spiral turn b. Figure-eight turn c. Circular turn d. Spiral-reverse turn e. Recurrent turn
d. Spiral-reverse turn inc circulation - spiral turn stump - recurrent turn
661
The forces at the pelvis in bilateral stance is an example of: a. Second Class Lever b. Fourth Class Lever c. First Class Lever d. Third Class Lever
a. Second Class Lever
662
126.The following statements describe the patella, EXCEPT: a. Originally only a sesamoid bone in the quadriceps tendon b. The depth of the patella femoral groove and height of the lateral femoral condyle buttress the patella against lateral dislocation c. The medial patellofemoral ligaments helps prevent its medial displacement d. The chief active stabilizer is the vastus medialis oblique (VMO) muscle e. Passive stabilization is provided by the bony contours of the femoral sulcus and the configuration of the patella as well as by thickenings of the capsule
c. The medial patellofemoral ligaments helps prevent its medial displacement
663
The cortex is not smooth but is thrown into folds and furrows that markedly increase the total surface area without demanding greater brain volume. Each fold or grounded elevation is known as: a. Sulcus b. Hemisphere c. Gyrus d. Lobe
c. Gyrus
664
Following are example of Force Couple, EXCEPT: a. Abduction at the glenohumeral joint from the deltoid and supraspinatus contracting together b. None of these c. Abduction and upward rotation of the scapula from the combined forces of the trapezius, serratus anterior d. All of these
b. None of these EXCEPT.
665
133.Which crutch-walking technique would you choose for patients with spina bifida, paraplegia or myelomeningocele? a. Two-point gait b. Four-point gait c. Swing-through three-point gait d. Three-point-gait (non-weight-bearing) e. Three-point-and-one-gait (partial-weight-bearing)
c. Swing-through three-point gait
666
137.This crease lies at the base of the fingers and marks the location of the proximal pulley. a. Distal palmar crease b. Hypothenar crease c. Proximal interphalangeal crease d. Thenar crease e. Proximal palmar crease
e. Proximal palmar crease
667
138.This instability occurs with a disruption of all of the lateral compartment capsular ligaments. The iliotibial band may be torn. The posterior cruciate ligament remains intact. The result of the adduction test is positive with the knee at 30 degrees of flexion. a. Combined anterolateral and posterolateral rotatory instability b. Combines posterolateral and anterolateral rotator instability c. None of these d. Combines anterolateral and anteromedial rotatory instability e. Anterior instability
a. Combined anterolateral and posterolateral rotatory instability b. Combines posterolateral and anterolateral rotator instability same answer pero rule of boards
668
140.Which of the following statements is true when testing for rigid or supple flat feet? a. While standing on feet and seated, if medial longitudinal arch absent in some positions, subject has flat feet. If present and absent only when he stands, flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports. b. While standing on toes and seated, if medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If arch is absent and present only when he stands, flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports. c. While standing on toes, if medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If present and absent only when he stands, his flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports. d. While standing on toes and seated, if the medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If present and absent only when he stands, his flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports e. While standing on toes and seated, if medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If arch is present and absent only when he stands, flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports
d. While standing on toes and seated, if the medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If present and absent only when he stands, his flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports
669
142.During the Stance Phase of Gait, subject may exhibit the following, EXCEPT: a. Subjects with weakness of L5 distribution may have an abductor lurch b. Subject with S1 distribution weakness may have an abductor lurch c. Subject with muscle weakness of S1 and S2 distribution may have a flat foot with no forceful toe-off d. Subject with a L2-L4 distribution weakness may walk with a back knee gait to lock their knees in extension
b. Subject with S1 distribution weakness may have an abductor lurch no toe off
670
147.In polyradiculoneuropathy, the following statements are true, EXCEPT: a. In acute post infection polyradiculoneuropathies the early weakness may be more evident in the girdle musculature b. Hands and feet may become quite sensitive and painful to squeezing, slapping and temperature changes c. Sweating is lost when parasympathetic denervation is complete d. Signs may be somewhat asymmetric
c. Sweating is lost when parasympathetic denervation is complete sympa sweating
671
148.The following are characteristics of the lateral collateral ligament of the ankle joint, EXCEPT: a. The anterior talofibular ligament has a high incidence of sprain because it is the first to undergo stress when the ankle is inverted and plantar flexed b. The posterior talofibular ligament is the strongest of the lateral collateral ligaments, and its primary function is prevent forward slippage of the fibula onto the talus c. The calcaneofibular ligament stretches plantarward to its insertion into the lateral wall of the calcaneus d. The peroneous longus and brevis tendons are the primary foot evertors and they assist in plantar flexion e. In severe ankle sprain, the calcaneofibular ligament may be torn, but only after the anterior talofibular ligament has also been torn
d. The peroneous longus and brevis tendons are the primary foot evertors and they assist in plantar flexion di naman sila part ng LCL of the ankle.
672
156.A fracture with cord transaction at the C6 level will produce the following, EXCEPT: a. The subject is parasympathetic, ileus appears and the urinary bladder distends b. Breathing is diaphragmatic c. There is complete sensory loss below the C6 or C7 dermatome d. An immediate flaccid paralysis of the trunk and extremities sparing some shoulder movement and flexion at the elbows e. At a later stage, reflexes in this zone will be reduced or absent, whereas those mediated through intact cord segment below will be hyperreflexic
a. The subject is parasympathetic, ileus appears and the urinary bladder distends
673
169.The following statements apply to the femoral nerve, EXCEPT: a. Proximal lesions will result in weakness of thigh extension but most prominently loss of knee flexion b. Sensory distribution include the anteromedial thigh and the anteromedial leg to the foot c. Most common syndrome involving this nerve is a painful mononeuritis which occurs in diabetics d. The quadriceps muscle atrophies quickly, the knee jerk is lost early e. Arises from L1 to L4 spinal roots, and innervates the iliopsoas, Sartorius and quadriceps femoris muscle.
a. Proximal lesions will result in weakness of thigh extension but most prominently loss of knee flexion hip flexion, knee ext.
674
171.The following statements are true of the ulnar styloid process, EXCEPT: a. It articulates with the proximal carpal row to take part in wrist articulation b. It does not extend as far distally and it is more prominent and thicker than its radial counterpart c. The external carpi ulnaris tendon runs through its groove d. In the anatomic position, it is both medially and posteriorly located in the wrist e. It is most easily palpated when the hand is radially deviated and the tendon is contracted
a. It articulates with the proximal carpal row to take part in wrist articulation radials + proximal carpals =wrist
675
177.Accurate diagnosis forms the cornerstone for any discussion of ligamentous knee problems. The pertinent tests for anteromedial rotatory instability are the: a. Adduction stress test at 45 degrees of flexion and the internal rotation posterior drawer sign b. Adduction stress test at 45 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign c. Abduction stress test at 30 degrees of flexion and the internal rotation posterior drawer sign d. Abduction stress test at 30 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign e. None of these
d. Abduction stress test at 30 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign
676
178.The following statements apply to the median nerve, EXCEPT: a. Sensory loss involves the palmar surface of the hand and fingers b. These is conspicuous atrophy of the thenar eminence with flattening of the pal c. Partial injuries are often painful and paresthetic and causalgia may occur d. Interrupt at the elbow produces weakness of wrist flexion with median deviation e. Carries fibers from the C6, C7, C8 & T1 roots
d. Interrupt at the elbow produces weakness of wrist flexion with median deviation ulnar dev ang weakness
677
179.The following characterizes straight anterior knee instability, EXCEPT: a. Injury is sustained while twisting, decelerating of changing direction b. May involve external rotation of the tibia with knee flexed c. May involve forward rotation of the tibia with knee extended or slightly flexed d. Subject usually hears a pop at the time of injury but still able to continue the activity e. Gross swelling develops within 12 hours
d. Subject usually hears a pop at the time of injury but still able to continue the activity CANNOT continue activity
678
191.The following positions describe the examination the reflexes, EXCEPT: a. With the subject standing, the hands are placed on hips with arms akimbo, tests for the triceps reflex b. With the subject kneeling, the triceps surae stretch reflex is tested with one hand positioned on the ball of the foot stretching the muscle slightly and tapping quickly and gently c. With the subject’s feet flat on the floor, hold one hand on the distal thigh and strike the tendon just below patella to test for quadriceps stretch reflex d. IN the ankle joint, clonus is elicited by briskly but gently dorsiflexing the ankle increasing pressure against the sole e. Striking the examiner’s thumb on the biceps tendon with the elbow flexed at varied degrees for best response is assumed for biceps stretch reflex
d. IN the ankle joint, clonus is elicited by briskly but gently dorsiflexing the ankle increasing pressure against the sole maintained pressure!!
679
195.The following statements are true in Reduction Click, EXCEPT: a. The test is done by flexing the knee while it is rotated both internally and externally, then rotating and flexing the leg until the meniscus slips back and a characteristic “click” is hear b. This is similar to the McMurray test in that it can also unlock the knee joint and produce the reduction click c. Applicable to those patients having a locked knee due to a torn, dislocated, or “heaped up” meniscus d. The test will unlock the knee caused by a torn meniscus and permit full extension e. The object of the procedure is to reduce the displaced or torn portion of the meniscus by clicking it back into place
a. The test is done by flexing the knee while it is rotated both internally and externally, then rotating and flexing the leg until the meniscus slips back and a characteristic “click” is hear flex then extend
680
200.The following describes the medial meniscus, EXCEPT: a. Situated on top of the tibia on the medial plateau b. Its anterior end attaches to the nonarticular portion of the top of the tibia, in feat of the anterior cruciate ligament c. Normally there is no specific sulcus between the margin of the meniscus and the joint capsule anywhere along the medial joint line d. Has a firm attachment to the top of the tibia and a less firm one to the femur through the coronary ligament e. The anterior attachment seems to slip under the anterior cruciate ligament, attaching to the bone beneath.
e. The anterior attachment seems to slip under the anterior cruciate ligament, attaching to the bone beneath.
681
What motions should not be stretched early in rehabilitation after an open rotator cuff repair? A. Horizontal abduction, extension, and internal rotation B. Horizontal abduction, flexion, and internal rotation C. Horizontal abduction, extension, and external rotation D. Horizontal adduction, extension, and internal rotation
D. Horizontal adduction, extension, and internal rotation
682
A 22-year-old male rehabilitating from a motor vehicle accident is referred to physical therapy for galt training. The patient sustained multiple injuries including a fractured tibia and a traction Injury to the brachial plexus. The patient is partial weight bearing and has good upper extremity strength. The MOST appropriate assistive device is: A. Axillary crutches B. Walker with platform attachment C. Loftstrand crutches D. Cane
C. Loftstrand crutches
683
In a child who has sustained a submersion injury, the physical therapist needs to be aware of neurologic and _______ system changes before initiating treatment. A. Integumentary B. Orthopedic C. Cardiopulmonary D. Renal
C. Cardiopulmonary
684
Which of the following factors are pathogenetic of the edema resulting from congestive heart failure? A. Increased blood supply to various organs and tissues B. Increased excretion of sodium by the kidneys C. Decreased cardiac output D. Decreased blood volume and elevated venous pressure
C. Decreased cardiac output
685
A patient with chronic pulmonary dysfunction is placed on a corticosteroid medication to reduce mucosal edema and inflammation. The MOST common cardiovascular side effect of corticosteroids is: A. Palpitations B. Increased blood pressure C. Arrhythmias D. Tachycardia
B. Increased blood pressure
686
Which hip-repair surgical procedure is indicated for pain in early stages of degenerative joint disease before motion has been lost? a. Double-cup arthroplasty b. Femoral Prosthesis c. Muscle Release d. Arthrodesis e. Displacement Osteotomy
e. Displacement Osteotomy
687
The goal of postural regulation is to stabilize the head with respect to the vertical. The following statements describe this stabilization concept, EXCEPT: a. None of these b. Predetermined response appears to be formed through experience with self-initiated goal-directed activity c. Motor input is used primarily for “knowledge of response” to make appropriate adjustments in subsequent anticipatory postural actions d. Geocentric frame of reference enable anticipation or prediction of center of force displacements that are induced by voluntary motion e. Corrections of head position occur in advance of a voluntary change in body position
c. Motor input is used primarily for “knowledge of response” to make appropriate adjustments in subsequent anticipatory postural actions sensory input = knowledge of response
688
The following statements characterize flexion in the lumbar spine, EXCEPT: a. Flexion in the low back produces kyphosis b. Involves relaxation of the anterior longitudinal ligament and stretching of the supraspinal and interspinal ligaments the ligamentum flavum and the posterior longitudinal c. To test, the subject bends as far forward as he can with knees straight, and try to touch the toes d. There is no reversal of the normal lordosis during flexion, the low back merely flattens out e. Limited by the size of the vertebral bodies
a. Flexion in the low back produces kyphosis straightens out
689
Subjects who have menisectiomies follow the following program, EXCEPT: a. Flexion-to-extension exercises are used when there is a partial ROM with very little swelling or discomfort in or about the knee b. Resistance is kept low but is raised as the subject becomes able to handle the resistance with good exercise technique c. Subjects with arthroscopic menisectomies are started on a much more vigorous exercise program much earlier d. Hamstring stretching exercises and flexion exercises are begun about 10 days after surgery e. Subjects are allowed to begin straight-leg-raise exercises at day one and progress to about eight sets of 10 repetitions in a very short period of time
a. Flexion-to-extension exercises are used when there is a partial ROM with very little swelling or discomfort in or about the knee when there is full ROM
690
This test makes it possible to determine whether or not the radial and ulnar arteries are supplying the hand to their full capacities: a. Bunnel-Littler Test b. Tinel Test c. None of these d. Allen test e. Retinacular test
d. Allen test
691
In lateral epicondylitis, repetitive stress may result in injury to the following muscles: a. All of these b. Proximal attachments of the extensor radialis brevis c. Extensor Carpi Radialis Longus d. Extensor Digitorum
b. Proximal attachments of the extensor radialis brevis
691
In getting a laminectomy patient out of bed, the following procedures are observed, EXCEPT: a. Raise herself to a standing position by pushing against the bed with her palm, reminding to keep the back straight and to look straight ahead b. The incision site need not be splinted c. Help lower herself slowly into a chair, keeping the back straight; make sure the knees are elevated to hip level or slightly higher to avoid stress on the lumbar spine d. Raise the head of the bed to low Fowler’s position. e. Raise herself into sitting position by pushing against the mattress with her upper hand as she swings her legs over the side of the head
c. Help lower herself slowly into a chair, keeping the back straight; make sure the knees are elevated to hip level or slightly higher to avoid stress on the lumbar spine
692
The following statements apply to the ulnar nerve, EXCEPT: a. Innervates the hypothenar, all interossei, two medial lumbricals, the adductor pollicis and part of the flexor pollicis brevis via its deep palmar branch in the hand b. Innervates the flexor carpi ulnaris and the flexor digitorum profundus to the 4th and 5th digits in the forearm c. Carries fibers from the C8 and T1 roots. d. In early or minimal lesions of the ulnar nerve, there is atrophy of the first dorsal interosseus and sensory loss distally in the fifth digit e. Paralysis causes the grip to be fairly weak but finger abduction and adduction will be nearly lost
e. Paralysis causes the grip to be fairly weak but finger abduction and adduction will be nearly lost
693
There is a greater frequency of tears of the medial semilunar cartilage, a common athletic injury. This is due to: a. The medial meniscus which is fixed to the tibia front and back by its two horns as well as around its periphery b. The posterior cruciate ligament which is attached to the tibia so far back as to allow some of its fibers to arise from the back of the bone below the upper surface. c. Tightness of the medial coronary ligament of the knee that prevents back-and-forth movements of the medial d. None of the above
c. Tightness of the medial coronary ligament of the knee that prevents back-and-forth movements of the medial
694
The following muscles arise from the medial epicondyle of the humerus and bounds the medial side of the antecubital fossa: a. Flexor Carpi Radialis, Palmaris Longus and Flexor Carpi Ulnaris b. Flexor Digitorum Sublimis, Flexor Digitorum Profundus and Flexor Pollicis Longus c. None of these d. Pronator Teres, Palmaris Longus, and Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
a. Flexor Carpi Radialis, Palmaris Longus and Flexor Carpi Ulnaris arise from the medial epicondyle of the humerus and bounds the medial side of the antecubital fossa
695
Home exercise program following open reduction internal fixation include the following, EXCEPT: a. Basic ROM and strengthening exercises to prevent contracture and reduce atrophy while non ambulatory b. Subject’s full weight bearing status may be achieved at 3 months post surgery c. Subjects perform isometric exercises, ROM exercises, and upper extremity exercise until fatigued d. Even as pain increases or weakness develops, full active ROM must be performed e. Resistive exercises are encouraged with the lower extremities because of the subject’s non-weight bearing status
e. Resistive exercises are encouraged with the lower extremities because of the subject’s non-weight bearing status DO NOT give resistive
696
The following statements are true of the primary dorsiflexor of the foot, EXCEPT: a. The extensor digitorum longus tendon is perceptible on the dorsum of the foot, crossing in front of the ankle mortise and fanning out to insert, by slips into the dorsal surfaces of the middle and distal phalanges of the four lateral toes b. The tendon of the extensor hallucis longus is perceptible to its insertion at the proximal end of the distal phalanx of the great toe c. The primary dorsiflexor of the foot lie in the anterior tibial compartment and share a common innervations, the deep peroneal nerve d. The muscle belly of the extensor digitorum brevis can be palpated where it bulges out from the sinus tarsi and therefore can be isolated for muscle testing e. The tendon of the tibialis anterior can be seen where it crosses the anteromedial portion of the ankle joint
d. The muscle belly of the extensor digitorum brevis can be palpated where it bulges out from the sinus tarsi and therefore can be isolated for muscle testing
697
This tendon can be isolated by holding the subject’s fingers in extension and flexing the finger in question at the IP joint. If the finger can be flexed at the specified joint, the tendon is intact: a. Interossei b. Flexor digitorum profundus c. Lumbricals d. Flexor digitorum superficialis e. None of these
d. Flexor digitorum superficialis
698
The stability and integrity of the transverse arch is maintained by: a. Hypothenar and thenar muscles b. Extrinsic muscles of the hands c. Interossei and lumbricals d. tendons e. ligaments
a. Hypothenar and thenar muscles
699
During isovolumentric contraction phase: a. The aortic and tricuspid valves are closed b. The aortic valve is open while the pulmonic valve is closed c. The mitral valve is open but the tricuspid valve is closed d. The mitral valve is open while the aortic valve is closed e. The mitral and aortic valves are closed
e. The mitral and aortic valves are closed
700
The following statements are true of the Swing Phase of gait, EXCEPT: a. The ankle dorsiflexor are active during the entire swing phase to clear the ground by holding the ankle neutral b. The knee reaches its maximum degree of flexion approximately 65 degrees between toe-off and midswing c. Steppage gait occurs when the ankle dorsiflexor do not work properly d. If the subject has poor quadriceps strength, he may rotate the pelvis posteriorly in an exaggerated motion to provide forward thrust for the leg e. If the hamstrings are weak, heel strike may be excessively harsh and the knee may hyperextend
d. If the subject has poor quadriceps strength, he may rotate the pelvis posteriorly in an exaggerated motion to provide APT!!
701
115.Thrombus formation in the legs, particularly in patients following surgery may be prevented in the following manner, EXCEPT: a. Gentle mobilization and modified exercises after thrombi have resolved b. Increase movement and activity to negate sequelae of restricted mobility and recumbency on oxygen transport c. Specially designed stockings in conjunction with pneumatic compression devices to stimulate the normal action of the muscle pump in the leg d. Stockings that are applied with uniform pressure along the leg, and removed frequently for 10 minute periods and reapplied. e. Compression stockings to prevent peripheral blood pooling and augment venous return
b. Increase movement and activity to negate sequelae of restricted mobility and recumbency on oxygen transport may DVT na so CI ang movement muna
702
117.This muscle is active in foot inversion if accompanied by dorsiflexion: a. Extensor hallucis longus b. Tibialis anterior c. Tibialis posterior d. Extensor digitorum longus
b. Tibialis anterior
703
124.Which of the following statements is true in forefoot adduction correction test? a. If forefoot can be fully corrected to less than neutral, foot will probably not correct itself, and cast correction is necessary b. If forefoot can only be partially corrected to neutral or less, foot will still correct itself and cast correction is not necessary c. If you can manually correct adduction and abduct forefoot greater than the neutral position, no treatment is necessary as foot will partially correct itself. d. If forefoot can be fully corrected to neutral or greater, foot will probably not correct itself, and cast correction is not necessary e. If you can manually correct adduction and abduct forefoot beyond neutral position, no treatment is necessary as foot will partially correct itself.
a. If forefoot can be fully corrected to less than neutral, foot will probably not correct itself, and cast correction is necessary if can be corrected beyond neutral no need for cast
704
126.Characteristic of patellofemoral pain syndrome include the following, EXCEPT: a. Can be used by malalignment of the lower extremity b. Most frequently recommended treatment is exercise c. Surgical treatment is rarely indicated d. Pain results in decreased force by knee extensors e. Consists of anterior knee pain excluding intra-articular pathology, peripatellar tendinitis and bursitis.
a. Can be used by malalignment of the lower extremity overloading rather than malalignment
705
132.The following statements apply to lower lumbar root compression, EXCEPT: a. Atrophy of the gastrocnemius may be seen b. Severe foot drop is unlikely, but toe drop is common with atrophy of the anterior compartment c. Percussion by fist or hammer over the lower lumbar segments may aggravate pain in the thigh or leg d. Ankle jerk reflex is commonly diminished or absent in S1 root impingement but may be normal in L5 root syndromes e. Test of straight-leg-raising frequently shows marked limitation in range of thigh flexion on the good side
e. Test of straight-leg-raising frequently shows marked limitation in range of thigh flexion on the good side involved side
706
137.The following relationships are true of the low back, EXCEPT: a. Lumbar lordosis I unrelated of hip and trunk flexibilities b. Longer abdominal muscles and shorter erector spinae muscles are associated with an increased lumbar curve c. Individuals with exaggerated lumbar curvature while standing tend to have short hamstrings, rotating the pelvis posteriorly, resulting in concurrent reduction of lumbar lordosis d. There is no correlation among hip extension ROM, standing pelvic tilt, standing lumbar lordosis and abdominal muscle performance variables e. The length of the hamstring muscles are negatively related to the lumbar curve
c. Individuals with exaggerated lumbar curvature while standing tend to have short hamstrings, rotating the pelvis posteriorly, resulting in concurrent reduction of lumbar lordosis flatback
707
139.Within the depression between the medial malleolus’ posterior aspect and the Achilles tendon lie several soft tissue structures, EXCEPT: a. Flexor hallucis longus tendon b. Flexor digitorum longus tendon c. Posterior tibial artery and tibial nerve d. Tibialis posterior tendon e. Tibialis anterior tendon
e. Tibialis anterior tendon
708
Some of the eight basic techniques which can be used to safety perform most lifting tasks include the following, EXCEPT: a. Golfer’s lift b. Diagonal lift c. Tripod lift d. Full squat lift e. Deep squat lift
d. Full squat lift
709
141.The following are effects of cardiac transplantation on cardiovascular and pulmonary variables, EXCEPT: a. The peak heart rate achieved during maximal exercise is markedly lower in cardiac transplant patients than in age-matched subjects thereby limiting the usefulness of exercise prescriptions based on target heart rate b. Peak systolic blood pressure of cardiac transplant recipient is less than that of individuals without, but diastolic blood pressure is not much different c. Resting stroke volume of patients following cardiac transplantation is less than that of individuals without, but diastolic blood pressure is not much different d. At rest, cardiac recipients exhibit lower heart rates than do individuals without cardiac transplants due to the loss of vagal tone associated with the surgical procedure e. Oxygen consumption at anaerobic threshold is markedly lower than that of individuals without cardiac transplants, partially due to skeletal muscle weakness
d. At rest, cardiac recipients exhibit lower heart rates than do individuals without cardiac transplants due to the loss of vagal tone associated with the surgical procedure loss of vagal tone = inc HR
710
144.In this knee instability, the mechanism of injury is a forceable blow against the front of the tibia with the leg externally rotated and planted in a varus position: a. Anterior lateral rotatory instability b. Combined rotatory instability c. Anterior medial rotator instability d. posterior lateral rotatory instability e. straight lateral instability
d. posterior lateral rotatory instability varus = lat instab
711
145.The following are true of the types of breathing exercises, EXCEPT: a. Use of a flutter valve, the forced-expiration technique and autogenic drainage are beneficial in patients with cystic fibrosis, although efficacy has not been determined. b. Following coronary artery bypass of gall-bladder surgery, breathing exercises offer no advantage over early patient mobilization c. Incentive spirometry is no more advantageous or cost-effective than instruction in deep breathing and coughing d. Diaphragmatic breathing and lateral costal and segmental costal and segmental costal expansion exercises are used most often post-operatively e. Inspiratory muscle training and resistive diaphragmatic breathing exercises are not beneficial in weaning the patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
e. Inspiratory muscle training and resistive diaphragmatic breathing exercises are not beneficial in weaning the patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
712
151.The following conditions can result from excessive and repetitive end-range motions, excessive force, and stretching leading to chronic soft tissue inflammation, muscle spasm and postural imbalance, EXCEPT: a. Repetitive sprain injuries b. None of these c. Cumulative trauma disorders d. Repetitive strain injuries e. Repetitive motion injuries
a. Repetitive sprain injuries strain not sprain
713
155.The following describe patellar misalignment, EXCEPT: a. May be either permanent or recurrent b. Release of the tight lateral restraining structures that cause excessive pressure and patellar subluxation (lateral release) may correct the problem c. Eventual outcome of many cases of chronic patellar medial alignment is patellofemoral arthrosis d. Vastus medialis advancement with tightening of lax medial restrains (medial reefing) may treat the problem e. Correction of the varus angle of the patellar tendon (distal realignment) may help resolve the problem
e. Correction of the varus angle of the patellar tendon (distal realignment) may help resolve the problem
714
159.In anterolateral rotator instability of the knee, healing requires: a. Six to eight weeks of cast immobilization with the knee flexed 90 degrees and leg maximally externally rotated b. Four to five weeks of cylinder cast immobilization of the knee at about 60 degrees of flexion c. None of these d. A long leg cast over a bulky compressive dressing with the knee positioned 60-70 degrees of flexion and the tibia is internally rotated on the femur for five to eight weeks e. Cast immobilization with the knee flexed at 60-70 degrees and the tibia internally rotated to prevent the postero-lateral subluxation of the tibia for six to eight weeks.
a. Six to eight weeks of cast immobilization with the knee flexed 90 degrees and leg maximally externally rotated
715
176.Metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joint extension is primarily the action of: a. Interossei and lumbricals b. Extensor digitorum communis c. Extensor digitorum, lumbricals and interossei d. Extensor carpi ulnaris and extensor carpi radialis
b. Extensor digitorum communis
716
178.The following statements are true of the hinged type of total knee prosthesis, EXCEPT: a. Rotation places a great stress on the prosthesis/bone interfaces which will eventually loosen b. Indicated for completely destroyed knee joint c. Includes a hinge, which functions on one axis, and the hinged pieces are continually articulated d. Patient must have functioning ligaments in the knee e. Long, thin intermedullary portions hold the prosthesis in place, without the aid of methyl mathacrylate
d. Patient must have functioning ligaments in the knee
717
179.The following statements characterize percussion in chest PT, EXCEPT: a. For patients with rib and sterna fracture, controlled mechanical ventilation may even stabilize the fracture site by minimizing negative intrathoracic pressure b. Used during both the inspiratory and expiratory phases or respiration c. Pneumathorax and hemothorax that develop as a result of the initial injury is considered a contraindicated to percussion d. Not indicated for the spontaneously breathing with rib fractures who is responding to breathing exercises and assistive coughing techniques e. Fast percussion (240 cycles/min) demonstrated the greatest sputum production, although slow percussion (6-12 cycles/min) was more effective than no percussion f. None of the above
c. Pneumathorax and hemothorax that develop as a result of the initial injury is considered a contraindicated to percussion not CI if it's not the main prob; but if it is, CI
718
183.The following statements allow soft tissue palpation of certain structures, EXCEPT a. The flexor carpi radialis may be palpated radial to the Palmaris longus proximally toward its origin at the medial epicondyle when making a tight fist and then to radially deviate and flex the wrist b. The wrist flexors may be palpated as a unit and individually as you move from their origin at the medial epicondyle and supracondylar line down the forearm and toward the wrist c. The ulnar nerve may be palpated as it is rolled gently under the index and middle fingers in the sulcus between the medial epicondyle and the olecranon process d. The medial collateral ligament, a basic stabilizer of the humeroulnar articulation, rises from the medial epicondyle and extends to the medial margin of the ulna’s trochlear notch may be palpated directly e. To facilitate palpation of the triceps, the subject may lean on the table where it will stand out on the posterior aspect of the arm
d. The medial collateral ligament, a basic stabilizer of the humeroulnar articulation, rises from the medial epicondyle and extends to the medial margin of the ulna’s trochlear notch may be palpated directly CANT BE directly palpated
719
186.Which of the following statements is true of the Na+/ K+ATPase pump? a. All of these b. It is an example of an ionic channel c. It pumps sodium out and potassium in d. It is an example of facilitated diffusion e. It is an example of facilitated osmosis
720
The following are causes of cardiac muscle dysfunction, EXCEPT: a. Pulmonary embolus b. Hypotension c. Renal insufficiency d. Spinal cord injury e. Cardiomyopathy
b. Hypotension HYPERTENSION
721
fissuring/fragmentation chondromalacia patella degree
2nd
722
198.The following statements apply to the radial nerve, EXCEPT: a. Extension of the distal phalanges, which appears to be absent in wrist drop, will be found to be possible if ulnar and median nerves are intact b. Classically paralyzed by ischemia from pressure in the drunken and comatose and also in lead poisoning c. Abduction and adduction of fingers are not weakened d. Partly mediates flexion and supination at the elbow through innervations of the bronchioradialis muscle e. A “finger drop” may result when a penetrating injury of the dorsal forearm spares branches that mediate dorsiflexion of the wrist but sever the posterior interosseus branch that mediates extension of the thumb and fingers
c. Abduction and adduction of fingers are not weakened apparently weakened
723
pelvic rotation pelvic list
pelvic list decreases vert. rise pelvic rot increases vert rise rot up list down
724
When developing a treatment program, the caregiver A. Base the treatment goals on the outcome and function B. Establishes the functional diagnosis and outcome goals C. Prepares a written home program for the client and family member D. Evaluates the patient’s response to treatment determines progress towards functional outcomes E. Gathers data and information for documentation
A. Base the treatment goals on the outcome and function
725
Immediate postoperative care following cardiac transplantation include the following EXCEPT: A. Oral diet is begun as soon as patient can tolerate it B. Most patients are weaned from mechanical ventilator assistance within 24 to 36 hours C. Typically, heart rate is maintained at about 80 beats per minute for the first 72 hours and then tapered off D. First endomyocardial biopsy is performed 7 to 10 days after transplantation E. Endotracheal and orogastric tubes are removed within 24 to 36 hours
C. Typically, heart rate is maintained at about 80 beats per minute for the first 72 hours and then tapered off
726
In evaluating the client, the caregiver: A. Initiate planning for extended treatment as necessary. B. Determines the client’s current conditions his functional abilities and limitations C. Prepare and document the treatment plan and program D. Documents client’s condition and functional outcome abilities E. Determines and selects the appropriate treatment techniques and equipment
B. Determines the client’s current conditions his functional abilities and limitations
727
Abdominal muscle exercise during pregnancy and at least 8 weeks post birth should be chosen with care because of the following reasons, EXCEPT: A. There is a noted increase in rectus abdominis muscle separation width, length, and angles of insertion B. Decrements in abdominal muscle function can parallel in time the structural adaptations as pregnancy progressed C. The ability to stabilize the pelvis against resistance can be decreased as pregnancy progresses and remain compromised postbirth D. Continued functional deficits may be found in parallel with incomplete resolution of structural adaptations post birth E. No reversal in rectus abdominis muscle separation may be found by 4 weeks postbirth
E. No reversal in rectus abdominis muscle separation may be found by 4 weeks postbirth
728
The following are true of palmar prehension pattern, EXCEPT: A. Large objects may be held by widening the grip. B. This grasp is used to pick up small objects. C. The thumb opposes one or more of the other digits. D. In a glass jar, the entire palmar surface of the hand grasps around it, and the thumb closes in over the glass.
D. In a glass jar, the entire palmar surface of the hand grasps around it, and the thumb closes in over the glass.
729
Junction formed by the terminal branches of the basilar artery and the two internal carotid arteries: A. Anterior communicating arteries B. Posterior communicating arteries C. None of these D. Circle of Willis
B. Posterior communicating arteries
730
This vertically-directed device acts as the privet round which the rotation occurs and which brings this lateral rotation of the tibia (or medial rotation of the femur) to a halt. A. Lateral collateral ligament B. Posterior cruciate ligament C. Medial ligament D. Anterior cruciate ligament E. Semilunar cartilages
D. Anterior cruciate ligament
731
The following statement characterize De Quervain’s disease, EXCEPT: A. Combinations of hand twisting and forceful gripping can cause the disease B. Repetitive friction accounts for the absorb thickening of the fibrous sheath and resultant contraction of the tendons C. Attributed to excessive friction between two thumb tendons and their common sheath D. Affects the tendons on the side of the wrist and at the base of the thumb E. The tendons affected are connected to the muscles on the back of the forearm that contract to pull the thumb back and away from the hand.
B. Repetitive friction accounts for the absorb thickening of the fibrous sheath and resultant contraction of the tendons
732
Plantar-flexion contractures can interfere with the performance of functional tasks through the following, EXCEPT: A. Decrease the plantar flexor moment when the ankle is in dorsiflexed positions. B. There is knee hyperextension during the stance phase C. There is decreased ankle dorsiflexion during the swing phase D. There is decreased peak hip extension in late stance phase
A. Decrease the plantar flexor moment when the ankle is in dorsiflexed positions.
733
In as much as the knee extensor mechanism is involved, the following statements apply, EXCEPT: A. The exercise is increased according to subject’s tolerance B. Straight-leg exercises are progressed slowly C. Resistance is seldom added to the exercise D. By the time of discharge (about seven days), the subject should be doing 2-3 sets of 5 leg raises E. Repetitions should be aggressively increased until about 8 sets of 10 sets raises daily are performed over the next three weeks after discharge
C. Resistance is seldom added to the exercise
734
A solute with a high portion coefficient is A. Moves through the cell membrane with difficulty B. Where saturation can occur C. More soluble in fat than in water D. Directed against a chemical gradient E. More soluble in water than in fat.
C. More soluble in fat than in water
735
Gait patterns between young (20-40 y.o.) and old (60-80 y.o.) people differ in their gait performance as follows, EXCEPT: A. Stride time is shorter for the young than the old B. Ankle dorsiflexion is slightly increased in older, while ankle plantar flexion was decreased in older people. C. Peak hip flexion exhibit a slightly increase in the older persons. D. Peak knee extension is significantly less in the older persons. E. Stride length is significantly greater in the younger persons.
A. Stride time is shorter for the young than the old
736
The following are actions of the upper fibers of the Trapezius: A. Steady the scapula at the very beginning of the movement of raising the arm above the head B. Pull the medial end of the scapula downwards C. Cooperative with the horizontal fibers to rotate the glenoid, cavity upwards D. Shrugs the shoulders, maintain shoulder level but in fatigue allow the shoulders to droop E. Retract the scapula
D. Shrugs the shoulders, maintain shoulder level but in fatigue allow the shoulders to droop
737
HYPOTHALAMIC RELEASING AND INHIBITING HORMONES: * Corticotropin releasing hormone= stimulates release of ACTH * Thyrotropin releasing hormones= stimulates release of TSH * Gonadotropin releasing hormone= stimulates release of LH and FSH * Prolactin inhibiting hormone (dopamine)= inhibits release of prolactin * Growth hormone inhibiting hormone= inhibits release of growth hormone transection of pituitary stalk (infundibulum) will break the connection of hypothalamus to pituitary gland and hypothalamus is unable to do it's function. Therefore, it will become the opposite: DECREASED TSH, FSH, LH, ACTH INCREASED PROLACTIN.
738
If exercise tightness of the hip ligaments, muscles, or fasciae prevents complete extension of the hip joints, an individual commonly compensates for this limitation by: A. Lengthening the vastus group B. Accentuating the anterior tilt of the pelvis and lumbar lordosis C. Increasing the posterior tilt of the pelvis D. Lumbar kyphosis
C. Increasing the posterior tilt of the pelvis
739
If your patient can’t support his full weight on his legs but does have a reasonably good muscular coordination and arm strength, which crutch walking gait would you choose? A. Two-point gait B. Swing-through three-point gait C. Four-point gait D. Three-point-and-one gait (partial-weight-bearing) E. Three-point-gait (non weight bearing)
A. Two-point gait
740
Which of the following statements is true of individuals without cardiopulmonary abnormalities? A. The increases in ventilation (VE) and CO are inversely proportional to the increase in metabolic rate, allowing venous blood gas and pH levels to remain close to baseline values during exercise B. The decrease in ventilation (VE) and CO are closely matched to the decrease in metabolic rate allowing venous blood gas and pH levels to remain close to baseline values during exercise C. The decrease in ventilation (VE) and CO are closely matched to the increase in metabolic rate, allowing venous blood gas and pH levels to remain close to baseline values during exercise D. The increases in ventilation (VE), and CO are closely matched to the increase in metabolic rate, allowing arterial blood gas and pH levels to remain close to baseline values during exercise E. The increase in ventilation (VE) and CO are closely matched to the decrease in respiratory rate, allowing arterial blood gas and pH levels to lower than baseline values during exercise
D. The increases in ventilation (VE), and CO are closely matched to the increase in metabolic rate, allowing arterial blood gas and pH levels to remain close to baseline values during exercise directly proportional ang ventilation and CO with metabolic rate
741
BI-AXIAL (4)
condyloid, ellipsoid, saddle, hinge biax CESH
742
Denervation hypersensitivity A. Is due to a decrease in the sensitivity of receptors B. Is due to an increased in the number of receptors C. Is due to an increase in the amount of neurotransmitters released D. Results from avulsion of the nerve E. Is due to an increased sensitivity to neurotransmitter
B. Is due to an increased in the number of receptors
743
The Ulnar Nerve innervates the following structures, EXCEPT: A. All interossei B. Medial half of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus C. Adductor Pollicis D. Palmaris Longus E. All Hypothenar
D. Palmaris Longus median
744
Suggested dimension (in feet) for an extremity whirlpool in Hydrotherapy area is: A. 8 x 8 B. 5 x 7 C. 10 x 8 D. 8 x 10 E. 7 x 8
E. 7 x 8
745
A patient points to the lateral aspect of the thigh as his source of pain. This may indicate that underlying problem may be due to A. Trochanteric bursitis B. Rheumatoid arthritis C. Gluteal bursitis D. Sacroiliac stenosis E. Lumbar spinitis
A. Trochanteric bursitis
746
Postoperative rehabilitation of acute-posterolateral instability of the knee consist of the following, EXCEPT: A. The long-leg brace dial lock is adjusted to allow full flexion but to limit extension to about 60 degrees B. After the cast is removed, a knee-ankle-foot-orthosis with a dial lock is applied C. Active extension is controlled because the arcuate complex has been advanced D. Orthosis is worn at all times and the dial lock is adjusted to allow extension of an additional 15 degrees each week E. The subject begins partial weight bearing when the lock prevents only the final 15 degrees of extension
A. The long-leg brace dial lock is adjusted to allow full flexion but to limit extension to about 60 degrees
747
The following characterizes straight posterior knee instability, EXCEPT: A. May be caused by hyperextension, when some other force is directed against the extended knee B. May be caused by hyperextension, when a weight falls on the extended joint C. Structures involved are the anterior cruciate ligament and the miniscotibial portions of the capsule D. Rupture is caused by a force directed against the flexed knee that strikes the anterior aspect of the tibial head and drives it rearward E. Primary structures involved are the posterior cruciate ligament and the posterior part of the capsule
C. Structures involved are the anterior cruciate ligament and the miniscotibial portions of the capsule
748
Assistive devices are often used and prescribed to facilitate the process of gait training. The following statements are true, EXCEPT: A. When a person using an assistive device has compromised cardio respiratory function, the increased demand may not be within the limits of his or her reserve capacity B. Ambulating while using an assistive device is known to create a metabolic demand different from that for unassisted ambulation C. The decreased metabolic demand with the use of assistive devices is at least in part due to the slower speed D. Assistive devices are used as transitional aids towards the goal of independent ambulation E. These devices may be used as permanent functional aids the can be used for home or community ambulation.
C. The decreased metabolic demand with the use of assistive devices is at least in part due to the slower speed increased metabolic demand
749
In this lifting technique the individual establishes a wide, solid base of support with one foot positioned in front of the other. The body is slightly over the load with the knees bent in half squatting position. No bending at the waist takes place. In beginning the lift, the head moves first, followed by the straightening of the legs. A. Golfer’s lift B. power lift C. Deep squat lift D. Tripod lift E. Partial squat lift with support
B. power lift
750
Depolarization is initiated when this moves inside the cell. A. Potassium B. Sodium C. Magnesium D. Chloride E. Permanganate
B. Sodium
751
The combined action of these muscles is vertebral extension, are continuous from the sacrum to the occiput: A. None of these B. Transversopinal C. Erector Spinae or Sacrospinalis D. Quadratus Lumborum
C. Erector Spinae or Sacrospinalis
752
Splints that incorporate some elastic component such as springs of rubber bands that exerts a force on the joint but allow for some change of joint position. A. Dynamic B. Dynamic-progressive C. Static-progressive D. Static
A. Dynamic
753
This joint is primarily responsible for inversion/eversion and abduction/adduction of the foot. A. Talonavicular B. Talocrural C. Subtalar D. Transverse tarsal E. Calcaneocuboid
D. Transverse tarsal TRANSVERSE TARSAL / CHOPART'S JT/ MIDTARSAL JT / SURGEON JT =Multiaxial (inv-ever; abd-add) =TALONA, CC pa TALOCRURAL=hinge joint (DF-PF) SUBTALAR/TALOCALCANEAL= pronation-supination; inversion-eversion
754
The following statements describe repair of acute instability, EXCEPT: A. Advancement of the posterior oblique ligament is a reconstructive procedure that is almost always used B. Peripheral tears of the medial meniscus is salvaged buy suturing the structure to the capsular ligaments C. Repair of an acute case by direct suture is usually avoided D. Ligament stapling is avoided because it tends to “strangle” E. The need to drill holes in bone to reattach ligaments is seldom necessary inasmuch as the periosteum is usually intact and will hold sutures well
E. The need to drill holes in bone to reattach ligaments is seldom necessary inasmuch as the periosteum is usually intact and will hold sutures well
755
Excursion and increase in tension of the lumbosacral roots may be accomplished by the following demonstrations, EXCEPT: A. Straight leg with medial rotation of the hip B. Dorsiflexing the ankle at the end of straight leg raising C. Flexing the trunk during straight leg raising D. Lateral rotation of the hip on straight leg raising E. Straight leg raising
D. Lateral rotation of the hip on straight leg raising
756
The Continuing Professional Education (CPE) Council for PT and OT exercise powers and functions that include the following, EXCEPT: A. Accept, evaluate and approve applications for exemptions from CPE requirements. B. To present periodic assessment and upgrade criteria for accreditation of CPE providers and CPE programs to the Commission for approval. C. Periodically monitors the implementation of programs, activities or sources. D. Accept, evaluate and approve applications for accreditation of CPE providers E. Accept, evaluate and approve applications for accreditation of CPE programs, and determine the number of CPE credit units.
B. To present periodic assessment and upgrade criteria for accreditation of CPE providers and CPE programs to the Commission for approval.
757
In carpal tunnel syndrome, alteration in the size of the structures under the transverse carpal tunnel ligament such as occurs with inflammation, edema or fascial scarring can affect the perineural vasculature. This inflammation process can result in the following conditions, EXCEPT: A. Tingling in one or more digits in the median nerve distribution when the patients actively maintain maximal wrist flexion for one minute B. Fibroblastic proliferation secondary to chronic edema my result in interneural fibrosis of the median nerve C. Self perpetuating cycle of hypoxia D. Leakage of edema from damaged capillary endothelium
A. Tingling in one or more digits in the median nerve distribution when the patients actively maintain maximal wrist flexion for one minute phalen's is done passively
758
The following statements are true of the cruciate ligaments of the knee, EXCEPT: A. External rotation of the leg reduces forward movement of the tibia on the femur even if the anterior cruciate ligament is torn B. If the amount of forward movement of the tibia on the femur in internal rotation is equal to than in the neutral position, both the anterior cruciate ligament and the posterolateral portion of the joint capsule may be torn C. If the tibia is pushed posteriorly and it moves backward on the femur, posterior draw sign in positive D. If forward movement with the leg in the neutral position both posterior cruciate ligaments and the posteromedial portion of the joint capsule may be damaged E. The anterior cruciate may be torn if anterior draw sign positive
D. If forward movement with the leg in the neutral position both posterior cruciate ligaments and the posteromedial portion of the joint capsule may be damaged
759
Which of the following statements are TRUE: I. All of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus is supplied by the median nerve. II. The median nerve supplies all of the Flexor Pollicis Longus. III. Adjoining half of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus is supplied by the median nerve IV. The ulnar nerve supplies the lateral half of the Profundus. V. Medial half of Profundus is supplied by the ulnar nerve. A. II, III and IV B. I, II and V C. II, III and V D. I and III only E. III and IV only
C. II, III and V
760
Parkinson syndrome is a sign and symptom indicating this dysfunction A. Extrapyramidal B. Spinal cord C. Pyramidal D. Basal ganglia E. Cerebellar
A. Extrapyramidal syndrome is extrapyramidal BG is for PD
761
Patients with anemia fatigue easily and treatments are modified accordingly. PT management include the following, EXCEPT: A. If exercise is indicated, pacing and training that distribute the intensity of the workload can be used to promote physiological recovery B. Mobilization in conjunction with gravitational stimulus to elicit hemodynamic responses to gravity C. Progressive training by alternating high-intensity exercise and low intensity exercise or rest D. Progressive training through low intensity but not by high intensity exercise E. Exercise stimuli such as walking and transferring to optimize ventilation, perfusion and to promote mucociliary transport
D. Progressive training through low intensity but not by high intensity exercise
762
The following statements describe carpal tunnel syndrome, EXCEPT: A. Numbness or pain that can radiate distally B. Weakness of the hand. C. The pathophysiology remains unknown although mechanical and vascular factors can play a major role D. Often seen as the cause of progressive numbness or paresthesia of the fingers in the median nerve distribution E. Nocturnal burning pain or hypesthesia
A. Numbness or pain that can radiate distally proximally
763
Which of the following statements describe the Thyroid Gland? I. It produces thyroxin, a very important iodine compound. II. It regulates the relative amounts of calcium in the blood and bones. III. Absence of the thyroid gland results in a mentally defective dwarf known as a cretin. IV. Its anemic blood supply is derived from the two superior thyroid arteries only. V. It derives its profuse blood supply from the two superior thyroid arteries and two inferior thyroid arteries. A. II, IV and V B. II, III and IV C. I, II and III D. II, III and V E. I, III and V
E. I, III and V
764
Intervertebral joint palpation provides the clinician valuable information about joint behavior to apply a force to a joint and to evaluate the joint’s response to that force. In the process, he/she must appreciate the following, EXCEPT: A. The amount of movements produced at the joint and presence activity evoked during the movement B. The pain produced by the movement C. The speed and direction at which it is applied D. The way in which the joint moves or resists movement in response to the given force E. The amount of force applied to the muscle inserting into the joint
B. The pain produced by the movement
765
The segment of nephron which is permeable to water is the: A. Thin descending limb of the loop of Henle B. Thin ascending limb of the loop of Henle C. Distal convoluted tubules D. Proximal tubule E. Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
D. Proximal tubule 65%
766
In Thomas test, shortened two-joint muscles are diagnosed when A. The leg is able to maintain contact with the table but the knee cannot flex past 70 degrees. B. The thigh rises off the table and the knee is unable to flex past 70 degrees d C. The posterior thigh of the first leg can lay flat on the table with approximately 80 degrees of knee flexion. D. The knee flexion ability is good but the thigh rises up off the table. E. None of these
D. The knee flexion ability is good but the thigh rises up off the table. Patient lies supine, performs knee to chest. (+) straight leg rises (+) increased lordosis even when the leg is pushed down (if leg abducts, it is called J-SIGN/J-STROKE indicating tight ITB)
767
The following joint receptors provide the subcortical nuclei and cortex with constant information about position and movement, EXCEPT: A. Golgi mazzoni corpuscles B. Type III Golgi type endings C. Ruffini corpuscles D. Merkel’s disks
D. Merkel’s disks
768
The entire flexor pronator can be surgically removed from its common origin and transferred proximally onto the humerus to substitute for a weak or absent: A. Triceps B. Brachioradialis C. Coracobrachialis D. Biceps muscle E. Brachialis
D. Biceps muscle
769
During muscle contraction, they slide towards each other. A. Actin B. A-band C. H-zone D. Myosin E. Z-discs
A. Actin
770
During ambulation, the leg is brought into the trailing position by the following, EXCEPT: A. Extension of the hip B. Tightening of the rectus abdominis C. Anterior tilting of the pelvis D. Extension of the lumbar spine
B. Tightening of the rectus abdominis
771
Electrical stimulation affects sensory and motor nerves in the following manner, EXCEPT: A. Varying the waveform has not meaningful influence on their responses. B. Sensory excitation always precede motor excitation irrespective of waveform C. Motor nerve thresholds are higher than sensory D. Motor excitation can precede sensory excitation depending on site of stimulation E. Both respond in a seemingly identical way to transcutaneous stimulation.
E. Both respond in a seemingly identical way to transcutaneous stimulation. sensory stim ang TENS
772
These neurons carry motor impulses from the brain to the motor neurons in the spinal cord: A. Interneuron B. First-order Neuron C. Upper Motor Neuron D. Lower Motor Neuron
C. Upper Motor Neuron
773
glucose and amino acids transport
faci diffusion
774
The following statements characterize the hip abductors (HA), EXCEPT: A. The HA muscles must produce a torque large enough to match the torque produced by the body weight to achieve frontal plane stability. B. The main function of the muscles is to provide sagittal place stability for the hip during the single-limb support phase of walking. C. Reducing the need for excessive forces from the HA muscles should minimize the forces produced across he hip D. The sum of the HA muscle derived force plus the force of body weight may reach 3 to 3.5 times body weight during mid stance E. The force produced by the HA muscles is the largest contributor to the prosthetic hip reaction force
B. The main function of the muscles is to provide sagittal place stability for the hip during the single-limb support phase of walking. FRONTAL plane stab
775
In patients with movement dysfunction, feedback on a patient’s movement performance is an integral approach to rehabilitation, and may be provided in the following manner, EXCEPT: A. As the patient attempts to perform a movement, feedback may be provided initially B. Via augmented visual feedback C. Center of pressure information during balance activities D. Verbally, through the tactile cues transmitted by the therapist’s hands
A. As the patient attempts to perform a movement, feedback may be provided initially not initially
776
Which of the following statement describe the heart? I. During development, the heart undergoes rotation so that its right side is carried backwards and its left side forwards. II. It is about the size of a clenched fist and occupies central position in the thoracic cavity. III. It lies behind the body of the sternum and in front of the middle four thoracic vertebra (T. 5,6,7 and 8) IV. The left ventricle forms the posterior surface and occupies most of the superior border. V. The right ventricle occupies most of the anterior surface and forms all but the extremities of the inferior border. A. II, III and V B. II and V only C. I, II and IV D. I and IV only E. II, III and IV
E. II, III and IV
777
This uncovering of the reactive site in the actin filament will result in A. Flexion of myosin cross bridge B. Release of calcium from SR site C. Attraction and lengthening of myosin cross bridge D. Deformation of troponin E. Sliding of actin and myosin
C. Attraction and lengthening of myosin cross bridge
778