Final coaching

Question 1

s/sx for respiratory alkalosis

Answer 1

STD c tingling and numbness
- syncope, tetany, dizziness

Question 2

s/sx of respiratory acidosis (early and late)

Answer 2

early: HARDy
- Headache, anxiety, restlessness, dyspnea

late: CCS
- confusion, coma, somnolence

Question 3

s/sx for metabolic alkalosis

Answer 3

WTMD
- ms weakness, early tetany, mental dullness

Question 4

causes for metabolic alkalosis (4)

Answer 4

excessive intake of bicarb, diuretics, steroids; vomiting

Question 5

s/sx for metabolic acidosis

Answer 5

(KNAL)
Kussmaul breathing, nausea/vomiting, cardiac arrhythmia, lethargy/coma

Question 6

causes for metabolic acidosis

Answer 6

DARS
diabetes, alcohol, renal failure, starvation

Question 7

order and percent of disc pressure percent
cough:
laugh:
walking:
side bending:
small jumps:
bending forward:
rotation:
lifting c back straight knees bent:
lifting c back bent knees straight:

Answer 7

CWRSLSLBL
cat was running, sliding, landing so lucy bit lol

cough: 5-35%
walk: 15%
rotation: 20%
side bending: 25%
lifting c back straight knees bent: 73%
small jumps: 40%
laugh: 40-50%
bending forward: 150%
lifting c back bent knees straight: 169%

Question 8

SLR 1

Answer 8

FED/ST
hip flexion
knee ext
foot DF

sciatic, tibial

Question 9

SLR 2

Answer 9

FEDEE/T

hip flexion
knee ext
ankle DF, Ev
toe ext

tibial

Question 10

SLR 3

Answer 10

FEDIS

hip flex
knee ext
ankle DF, inv

sural

Question 11

SLR 4

Answer 11

FEPIC

hip flex
knee ext
ankle PF, inv

CPN

Question 12

SLR 5 (well leg)

Answer 12

PED

hip flex
knee ext
ankle DF

nerve prolapse (done on unaffected leg)

Question 13

primary antibody response

Answer 13

IgM

Question 14

most common antibody receptor, only antibody that crosses the placenta

Answer 14

IgG

Question 15

antibody responsible for allergic reaction

Answer 15

IgE

Question 16

most abundant antibody, found in saliva tears breast milk

Answer 16

IgA

Question 17

antibody that activates B cells

Answer 17

IgD

Question 18

epimysium

Answer 18

muscle

Question 19

perimysium

Answer 19

fascicle

Question 20

endomysium

Answer 20

ms fiber

Question 21

renin

Answer 21

angiotensinogen -> A1

Question 22

ACE

Answer 22

A1 -> A2

Question 23

A2

Answer 23

release aldosterone

Question 24

zona glomerulosa

Answer 24

mineralocorticoid aldosterone release

Question 25

zona fasciculata

Answer 25

glucocorticoid cortisol release

Question 26

zona reticulata

Answer 26

androgen

Question 27

be careful to see my new face book

Answer 27

bone, cartilage, tendon, skin, muscle, nerve, fat, blood

protein: most to least
fluid: least to most

Question 28

stage 2 dermal wound
(intensity, frequency, DC, tx time, area)

Answer 28

0.2-1 W/cm2; 3 MHz; 20% DC; 1-2min per area; around wound’s edges

Question 29

stage 3 & 4 dermal wound
(intensity, frequency, DC, tx time, area)

Answer 29

0.2-1 W/cm2; 1 MHz; 20% DC; 1-2min per area; around wound’s edges

Question 30

madelung’s deformity

Answer 30

ulnar prominence, radius and wrist volarly displaced

Question 31

scaphoid fx

Answer 31

preiser dse

Question 32

lunate fx

Answer 32

kienboch dse

Question 33

patella fx

Answer 33

kohler dse

Question 34

navicular fx.

Answer 34

kohler dse

Question 35

talus fx

Answer 35

mouchet dse

Question 36

vertebral epiphysis fx

Answer 36

scheuermann

Question 37

calcaneal apophysis fx

Answer 37

sever’s dse

Question 38

accessory tarsal navicular OR os tibiale externum

Answer 38

haglund dse

Question 39

2nd MTT fx

Answer 39

freiberg

Question 40

proximal tibial epiphysis

Answer 40

blount dse

Question 41

tibial tuberosity

Answer 41

osgood schlatter

Question 42

secondary patellar center

Answer 42

sinding-larsen-johansson dse

Question 43

distal epiphysis of ulna or distal lunate

Answer 43

burns dse

Question 44

capitulum of humerus

Answer 44

panner

Question 45

bennett’s fx

Answer 45

1st MC

Question 46

boxer’s fx

Answer 46

5th MC

Question 47

baseball finger

Answer 47

DIP dorsal avulsion fx of base of distal phalanx

Question 48

bunk bed fx

Answer 48

intraarticular fx. of 1st MTT fx in children

Question 49

chance fx

Answer 49

lap type seat belt fx.
vert body compression

Question 50

colle’s fx.

Answer 50

radius fx. dorsal displacement

Question 50

clay shovelers

Answer 50

cervical vertebrae spinous process fx.

Question 50

duverney fx

Answer 50

iliac wing fx

Question 51

essex lopresti

Answer 51

comminuted fx of radial head with dislocation of distal RU jt

Question 52

galeazzi fx

Answer 52

radial fx. c radial head d/L

Question 53

jefferson fx

Answer 53

C1 burst fx.

Question 54

jones fx

Answer 54

5th MTT fx

Question 55

maisonnueve fx.

Answer 55

prox 1/3 of fibula + torn syndesmosis

Question 56

malgaigne fx.

Answer 56

double vertical fx ant& post pelvic ring

Question 57

march fx

Answer 57

2nd MTT

Question 58

monteggia fx

Answer 58

ulnar fx.

Question 59

pilon fx

Answer 59

tibial plafond fx

Question 60

rolando fx

Answer 60

1st MC comminuted fx.

Question 61

runner’s fx

Answer 61

distal fibula fx.

Question 62

segond fx

Answer 62

avulsion fx, of lat tibial condyle at gerdy’s tubercle (ITB insertion)

Question 63

ski boot fx

Answer 63

distal third of tibia and fibula

Question 64

smith fx

Answer 64

fracture of distal radius c volar displacement

Question 65

steida fx

Answer 65

medial femoral condyle fx at MCL

Question 66

teardrop fracture

Answer 66

comminuted vertebral body fx c ant displacement

Question 67

cotton fx

Answer 67

trimalleolar fx

Question 67

torus fx

Answer 67

compression fx of long bone in or near metaphysis

Question 68

MOI and mx of trimalleolar fx

Answer 68

MOI: abduction/ER force; adduction force
mx: ORIF

Question 69

4 autonomic/parasympathetic ganglia (location- CN)

Answer 69

ciliary ganglion - CN3
(hay fever) pterygopalatine/sphenopalatine - CN7
submandibular ganglion - CN7
otic ganglion - 9

Question 70

norepinephrine site of production

Answer 70

loecus coereleus

Question 71

dopamine site of production/release

Answer 71

substantia nigra pars compacta

Question 72

serotonin site of production/release

Answer 72

raphe nucleus

Question 73

acetylcholine site of production/release

Answer 73

nucleus basalis of Meynert

Question 74

MS variant with isolated optic N affectation

Answer 74

Devic’s

Question 75

denial of blindness

Answer 75

anton’s syndrome

Question 76

benign GBS (triad: ataxia, opthalmoplegia, areflexia)

Answer 76

miller-fisher

Question 77

type of PD involving severe autonomic failure

Answer 77

shy-drager syndrome (AKA multiple system atrophy MSA)

Question 78

congenital facial palsy

Answer 78

moebius syndrome

Question 79

limbic system components

Answer 79

HATCH
hypothalamus, amygdala, thalamus, cingulate gyrus, hippocampus

Question 80

other term for the hippocampus

Answer 80

ammon’s horn (cornu ammonis)

Question 81

dysfunction of the amygdala; hypersexuality

Answer 81

kluver bucy syndrome

Question 82

inability to recognize the form and shape of objects by touch

Answer 82

astereognosis/tactile agnosia

Question 83

painful burning sensations, usually along nerve distribution

Answer 83

causalgia

Question 84

loss of light touch sensibility

Answer 84

thigmanesthesia

Question 85

vascular lesion of the thalamus resulting in sensory disturbances and partial or complete paralysis of one side of the body, associated with severe boring-type pain; sensory stimulus = exaggerated, prolonged, painful response

Answer 85

thalamic syndrome/dejerine-roussy

Question 86

specific part of thalamus for temp regulation

Answer 86

ant hypothalamus and preoptic area

Question 87

paleo cerebellum (3)

Answer 87

PASP
ant., spinocerebellum, postural tone

Question 88

neo cerebellum (3)

Answer 88

Large NPoCor
largest, posterior, coordination

Question 89

archi cerebellum (4)

Answer 89

BAFOV
oldest, flocculonodular, vestibulocerebellum, balance

Question 90

CSF flow

Answer 90

Choroid plexus
lateral ventricles
foramen of Monroe
3rd ventricle
Sylvian/cerebral aqueduct
4th ventricle
2 Luschka, 1 Magendie
Subarachnoid space (to S2)
Arachnoid villi
Dural venous sinuses

Question 91

peak torque of quads (deg)

Answer 91

60 deg of flexion

Question 92

peak activity of quads + common compensation

Answer 92

HS -> FF
forward lurch

Question 93

peak activity GMax + common compensation

Answer 93

HS/IC
backward lurch

Question 94

peak activity GMed + common compensation

Answer 94

MStance
Trendelenburg -> lat lurch or list

Question 95

ACL/PCL orientation, tautest/laxest during?

Answer 95

ACL - PLS; ExIR taut, 30-60flex lax
PCL - SAM; 30flex taut; early flex lax

Question 96

peak activity Hams + common compensation

Answer 96

TSwing / decceleration

Question 97

intrinsic foot muscles layers

Answer 97

1: ADM, FDB, Abd Hallucis
2: Lumbricals, quadratus plantae; master knot of henry: FHL & FDL tendons
3: FHB, FDMB, Add Hallucis
4: interossei; TP, P

Question 98

master knot of henry comprised of what tendons?

Answer 98

FHL & FDL tendons

Question 99

weber syndrome lesion, affected (2)

Answer 99

medial basal midbrain
CN 3 - I/L CN3 palsy
CST - C/L hemiplegia

Question 100

benedikt syndrome lesion, affected (5)

Answer 100

tegmentum of the midbrain
CN 3 - I/L CN3 palsy
STT - C/L body P/T
DCP - C/L prop
sup. cerebellar peduncle - C/L ataxia
red nucleus - C/L chorea

Question 101

locked-in syndrome lesion, affected (2), spared

Answer 101

B basal pons
CST - quadriplegia
CBT - face and neck paralysis
spared: upward gaze

Question 102

millard-gubler syndrome lesion, affected (3)

Answer 102

lateral pons
CN 6 - I/L CN 6 palsy
CN 7 - I/L CN 7 palsy
CST - C/L hemiplegia

Question 103

wallenberg syndrome lesion, affected (5)

Answer 103

lateral medulla
CN 5 - I/L facial pain and temp
STT - C/L body P/T
nucleus ambiguus - dysphagia, dysphonia
vestib nuclei - I/L nystagmus
spinocerebellar - I/L ataxia

Question 104

frontal gaze palsy (type of stroke syndrome)

Answer 104

ACA

Question 105

asymptomatic stroke (type of stroke syndrome)

Answer 105

ACA

Question 106

amaurosis fugax (type of stroke syndrome)

Answer 106

ICA or optic nerve lesion

Question 107

grasp reflex (type of stroke syndrome)

Answer 107

ACA

Question 108

sucking reflex (type of stroke syndrome)

Answer 108

ACA

Question 109

disconnection apraxia (type of stroke syndrome)

Answer 109

ACA

Question 110

akinetic mutism/abulia (type of stroke syndrome)

Answer 110

ACA

Question 111

dysphagia (type of stroke syndrome)

Answer 111

MCA

Question 112

C/L HH (type of stroke syndrome)

Answer 112

MCA d/t impaired macula

Question 113

agnosia (type of stroke syndrome)

Answer 113

R MCA

Question 114

aphasia (type of stroke syndrome)

Answer 114

L MCA

Question 115

coma/LOC (type of stroke syndrome)

Answer 115

VBA

Question 116

cerebellar signs (type of stroke syndrome)

Answer 116

VBA

Question 117

quadriplegia (type of stroke syndrome)

Answer 117

VBA

Question 118

visual impairment (type of stroke syndrome)

Answer 118

PCA

Question 119

CN involvement (type of stroke syndrome)

Answer 119

VBA

Question 120

memory impairment (type of stroke syndrome)

Answer 120

PCA

Question 121

thalamic pain syndrome (type of stroke syndrome)

Answer 121

PCA

Question 121

hemiballismus (type of stroke syndrome)

Answer 121

PCA

Question 122

weber syndrome (type of stroke syndrome)

Answer 122

PCA

Question 123

locked in syndrome (type of stroke syndrome)

Answer 123

basilar artery

Question 124

benedikt syndrome (type of stroke syndrome)

Answer 124

paramedian penetrating branches of the basilar artery

Question 125

millard gubler syndrome (type of stroke syndrome)

Answer 125

penetrating branches of basilar artery

Question 126

wallenberg syndrome (type of stroke syndrome)

Answer 126

PICA

Question 127

pathology of small subcortical spaces of grey and white matter

Answer 127

lacunar stroke

Question 127

pure motor lacunar stroke lesion, blood supply

Answer 127

post limb of int capsule; LSA

Question 128

pure sensory lacunar stroke lesion, blood supply

Answer 128

thalamus; PCA

Question 129

MC lacunar stroke

Answer 129

pure motor lacunar stroke

Question 130

sensory motor lacunar stroke lesion

Answer 130

jxn of int capsule and thalamus

Question 131

2nd MC lacunar stroke

Answer 131

sensory motor lacunar stroke

Question 132

dysarthria clumsy hand lacunar stroke lesion, blood supply

Answer 132

ant limb of int capsule
recurrent art of Huebner

Question 133

ataxic hemiparesis lacunar stroke lesion, blood supply

Answer 133

PICC
pons, int capsule, cerebellum, corona radiata

Question 134

LC aphasia

Answer 134

global aphasia

Question 135

global aphasia lesion (2)

Answer 135

MCA, perisylvian area

Question 136

mixed transcortical aphasia lesion (2)

Answer 136

watershed or unlocalized area

Question 137

common sites of DAI

Answer 137

CPP
corpus callosum (MC)
parasagittal white matter
pons and MB

Question 138

glasgow coma scale scoring per item verbal, motor, eyes (grading)

Answer 138

verbal (5)
no - 1
inappropriate sounds - 2
inappropriate speech - 3
confused - 4
oriented x3 - 5

motor - 6
no - 1
decerebrate, ext tone - 2
decorticate, flexor tone - 3
withdraws - 4
localizes - 5
commands - 6

eyes
no - 1
pressure/pain - 2
speech - 3
spontaneous - 4

Question 139

the great crippler of young adults

Answer 139

MS

Question 140

MC sites affected by MS (5)

Answer 140

PCCOP
periventricular white matter
cerebellum
CST
optic N
posterior white column of SC

Question 141

medication for ALS

Answer 141

riluzole (rilutek, exservan, Tiglutik)

Question 142

superior continuation of PLL

Answer 142

tectorial membrane

Question 143

congenital elevation of scapula

Answer 143

sprengel’s deformity

Question 144

wheelchair ambulation energy expenditure

Answer 144

10%

Question 145

crutch walking energy expenditure

Answer 145

60%

Question 146

single BKA energy expenditure

Answer 146

10-40%

Question 147

single AKA energy expenditure

Answer 147

65%

Question 148

double BKA energy expenditure

Answer 148

41%

Question 149

double AKA energy expenditure

Answer 149

110%

Question 150

1 AKA 1 BKA energy expenditure

Answer 150

75%

Question 151

prosthetic fitting in children
above/below elbow

Answer 151

3-6 months

Question 152

prosthetic fitting in children
below/above knee jt

Answer 152

8-10 months

Question 153

prosthetic fitting in children
active terminal device

Answer 153

2 yo

Question 154

prosthetic fitting in children
elbow unit

Answer 154

2-3 yo

Question 155

prosthetic fitting in children
fxnal hand

Answer 155

3 yo

Question 156

prosthetic fitting in children
actively controlled knee jt

Answer 156

3-4 yo

Question 157

GMFCS: walks c restriction, limited in AGMS

Answer 157

GMFCS 1

Question 158

GMFCS: walks s AD, limited outdoor and comm amb

Answer 158

GMFCS 2

Question 159

GMFCS: walks c AD, limited, limited outdoor and comm amb

Answer 159

GMFCS 3

Question 160

GMFCS: limited self-mob; use of powered/mobility W/C outdoors & comm

Answer 160

GMFCS 4

Question 161

GMFCS: severely limited self-mob even c AD

Answer 161

GMFCS 5

Question 162

other name for grand mal seizures

Answer 162

tonic-clonic

Question 163

5 minutes or more of continuous or clinical electrographic seizure activity or recurrent seizure activity s recovery in between seizures

Answer 163

status epilepticus

Question 164

other name for petit mal seizures

Answer 164

absence seizures

Question 165

other name for atonic seizures

Answer 165

drop seizures

Question 166

blank stare seizure

Answer 166

petit mal seizure

Question 167

sudden falling down and drop head seizure

Answer 167

drop seizure/atonic

Question 168

repeated jerking muscle seizure

Answer 168

clonic seizure

Question 169

sudden brief jerks or twitches of the arms and legs; no LOC

Answer 169

myoclonic seizure

Question 170

classification of intraventricular hemorrhage with pre/definite CP

Answer 170

Pre-CP:
I. subependymal hemorrhage
II. bleeding into ventricles s dilation

Definite CP:
III. bleeding into ventricles c dilation
IV. periventricular hemorrhage

Question 171

lentiform nucleus components and blood supply

Answer 171

putamen, globus pallidus
recurrent artery of Huebner (AKA cerebral artery of apoplexy)

Question 172

neostriatum/striatum components and blood supply

Answer 172

caudate nucleus, putamen
LSA

Question 173

AD, orthosis to use: T6-T12

Answer 173

parapodium THKAFO
W/C for ALL fxnal mob

Question 174

AD, orthosis to use, functional prognosis: L1, L2

Answer 174

RGO + HKAFO
W/C most fxnal mob; short HA

Question 175

AD, orthosis to use, functional prognosis: L3, L4

Answer 175

KAFO
W/C for CA; HA

Question 176

AD, orthosis to use, functional prognosis: L5-S1

Answer 176

AFO + ground reaction AFO
limited CA; ind HA

Question 177

AD, orthosis to use, functional prognosis: S2 down

Answer 177

supramalleolar orthosis
HA, CA s difficulty

Question 178

important crutch walking shoulder depressors (3)

Answer 178

pecs minor
lats dorsi
lower traps

Question 179

important crutch walking shoulder adductors (2)

Answer 179

pecs major
lats dorsi

Question 180

important crutch walking shoulder FAbER (1)

Answer 180

deltoids

Question 181

important crutch walking elbow ext. (2)

Answer 181

triceps, anconeus

Question 182

important crutch walking wrist ext. (3)

Answer 182

ECRL, ECRB, ECU

Question 183

important crutch walking finger and thumb flexors (4)

Answer 183

FDS, FDP
FPL, FPB

Question 184

push handle to floor

Answer 184

36”

Question 185

armrest to floor

Answer 185

30”

Question 186

total length W/C

Answer 186

46”

Question 187

total width W/C

Answer 187

23”

Question 188

W/C reach forward

Answer 188

48”

Question 189

W/C reach down

Answer 189

15”

Question 190

W/C reach side to side

Answer 190

24”

Question 191

T6-T12 deformity

Answer 191

kyphoscoliosis

Question 192

L1, L2, L3 deformity

Answer 192

severe hip d/L

Question 193

L4, L5 deformity (2)

Answer 193

mild hip d/L, calcaneovarus

Question 194

S1 deformity

Answer 194

calcaneocavus

Question 195

S2 deformity

Answer 195

clawing of toes

Question 196

S3, S4 deformity

Answer 196

sphincter control prob

Question 197

surprise muscle

Answer 197

occipitofrontalis

Question 198

frowning muscle

Answer 198

corrugator supercilli

Question 199

eye closing ms

Answer 199

orbicularis oculi

Question 200

eye opening ms

Answer 200

levator palpebrae superioris

Question 201

expression of distaste

Answer 201

procerus

Question 202

compression/dilation of nostrils ms (2)

Answer 202

nasalis - compressor and dilator nares

Question 203

smiling ms

Answer 203

zygomatic major

Question 204

sneering ms

Answer 204

levator anguli oris

Question 205

protrusion of upper lip ms

Answer 205

zygomaticus minor

Question 206

protrusion of lower lip ms

Answer 206

depressor labi inferioris

Question 207

grimace

Answer 207

risorius

Question 208

kissing muscle

Answer 208

orbicularis oris

Question 209

blowing, sucking, whistling ms

Answer 209

buccinator

Question 210

pouting ms

Answer 210

mentalis

Question 211

egad

Answer 211

platysma

Question 212

3 ways of measuring scoliosis severity, landmarks to use

Answer 212

cobb’s - MC used
- superior and inferior end vertebra

risser-ferguson
- superior and inferior vertebra; apical vertebra

nash-moe
- pedicle method

Question 213

dorsal column pathway functions (3) and components and fxns (2)

Answer 213

DC: discriminative touch, epicritic sensation, proprioception
fasciculus cuneatus (UE), gracilis (LE)

Question 214

1st, 2nd and 3rd order neurons location

Answer 214

1st: DRG
2nd: substantia gelatinosa
3rd: thalamus

Question 215

apprehension test indication

Answer 215

patellar dislocation; movement is forced d/L of patella

Question 216

sit to stand

Answer 216

reciprocal innervation

Question 217

horizontal plane lateral SCC angle

Answer 217

30deg

Question 218

MAS: Slight increase in muscle tone, manifested by a catch and release or by minimal resistance at the end of the range of motion when the affected part(s) is moved in flexion or extension

Answer 218

1

Question 219

MAS: Slight increase in muscle tone, manifested by a catch, followed by minimal resistance throughout the remainder (less than half) of the ROM (range of movement)

Answer 219

1+

Question 220

damages the epidermis and part of the dermis. Symptoms include blisters, redness, swelling, and pain. The burned area may appear wet and shiny, and the skin may be white or discolored in an irregular pattern

Answer 220

deep partial thickness

Question 221

destroys the epidermis, dermis, and often the underlying subcutaneous tissue. Symptoms include a white or blackened and charred appearance,

Answer 221

full partial thickness

Question 222

The examiner applies axial compression through the fourth and fifth metacarpals

Answer 222

TFCC compression test

Question 223

alternative TFCC compression test

Answer 223

axial load ulnar deviate

Question 224

True of the anatomic snuffbox:
I. Bounded medially by the EPL (ext. pollicis longus)
II. Contains the radial artery and the superficial radial nerve
III. Laterally bound by the EPB (extensor pollicis brevis) and APL (adductor pollicis longus)
IV. The floor is made up of the scaphoid and triquetrum bone
V. Tenderness within the snuffbox may lead to suspicion of scaphoid fracture

A. All of these
B. I, II, III
C. I, II, III, V
D. I, II, V
E. I, III, V

Answer 224

D. I, II, V

Question 225

toileting degrees of shoulder abduction

Answer 225

40deg

Question 226

All of the following describes the period of rapid filling of the ventricles, Except
A. The semilunar valves are closed, the AV valves are opened
B. The turbulent flow of blood into the ventricles produces a third heart sound
C. Continuous ventricular filling occurs during the middle one third of diastole
D. The ventricles relax, but ventricular volume does not change

Answer 226

D. The ventricles relax, but ventricular volume does not change

Question 227

What fissure/s can be found in the right lung?
A. Horizontal Fissure
B. Oblique Fissure
C. Both a and b
D. NOTA

Answer 227

C. Both a and b

Question 228

Which of the following describes the continuous breath sounds?
A. most prominent during inspiration
B. caused by vibrations of air passing through the narrowed airways
C. present in CHF Atelectasis
D. caused by the sound of gas bubbling through secretions

Answer 228

B. caused by vibrations of air passing through the narrowed airways

Question 229

This type of end feel occurs sooner or later in the ROM than is usual, or in a joint that normally has a firm or hard end. This may feel boggy with fluid shift
A. Springy
B. Empty
C. Hard
D. Soft

Answer 229

D. Soft

Question 230

The patient requires moderate assistance and expends 50-75 % of the effort. What is the patient’s FIM level?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Answer 230

B. 3

Question 231

This reflex is elicited by flicking the terminal phalanx of the index, middle or ring finger. A positive sign indicates increased irritability of sensory nerves in tetany and pathology in the pyramidal tract
A. Rossolimo
B. Schaeffer
C. Piotrowski
D. Hoffman

Answer 231

D. Hoffman

Rossolimo - tap/percuss ball of foot
- exaggerated flexion
- pyramidal lesion

Schaeffer - pinch Achilles
- foot and toe flexion

Piotrowski - tap TA
- PF + inv/sup

Hoffman index middle ring finger; pyramidal tract pathology

Question 232

What is the normal range of flexion of the distal interphalangeal joints?
A. 90 degrees
B. 100 degrees
C. 150 degrees
D. 180 degrees

Answer 232

A. 90 degrees

MCP, DIP - 90
PIP - 100

Question 233

This tests the structures around the PIP joint. The proximal interphalangeal joint is held in a neutral position while the DIP is flexed by the examiner. If the DIP joint does not flex, the retinacular ligaments or the PIP capsule are taut. If PIP joint is flexed and DIP is flexed easily, the retinacular ligaments are taut and the capsule is normal.
A. Haines-Zancolli Test
B. Bunnel Littler Test
C. Sweater Finger Sign
D. Froment Sign

Answer 233

A. Haines-Zancolli Test

Question 234

Allen, Adson, Halstead rotation

Answer 234

allen - same
halstead - opposite
adson - both sides

Question 235

The fluids outside and inside the cell is important to maintain the homeostasis. Which of the following is true about extracellular fluids and intracellular fluids?
A. The intracellular fluids contain large amount of potassium, magnesium, chloride ions. The extracellular contain sodium, bicarbonate ions and phosphate ions
B. The intracellular fluids contain large amount of potassium, magnesium, sodium. The extracellular contain sodium, bicarbonate ions and phosphate ions
C. The intracellular fluids contain large amount of potassium, magnesium, phosphate ions. The extracellular contain sodium, bicarbonate ions and chloride ions
D. NOTA

Answer 235

C. The intracellular fluids contain large amount of potassium, magnesium, phosphate ions. The extracellular contain sodium, bicarbonate ions and chloride ions

Question 236

Which of the following describes the diffusion?
I. Diffusion through the cell membrane is divided into two subtypes, called simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion
II. Simple Diffusion means that kinetic movement of molecules or ions through a membrane opening or through intermolecular spaces without any interaction with carrier proteins in the membrane
III. Facilitated diffusion requires interaction of a carrier protein.
IV. The carrier protein in facilitated diffusion aids passage of the molecules or ions through the membrane by binding chemically with them.

A. I,II,III
B. I,II,III
C. I,II,III,IV
D. Only I

Answer 236

C. I,II,III,IV

Question 237

_________ migration of each set of chromosomes is complete. The chromosomes unravel to become less distinct chromatin threads. The nuclear envelope forms from the endoplasmic reticulum. The nucleoli form, and cytokinesis continues to produce two cells.
A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase

Answer 237

D. Telophase

Question 238

(+) mitotic spindle (-) nuclear envelope

Answer 238

prophase

Question 239

midline

Answer 239

metaphase

Question 240

(-) centromere, centromere separation

Answer 240

anaphase

Question 241

(+) nuclear envelope (-) mitotic spindle

Answer 241

telophase

Question 242

Erythropoietin
A. inhibits the production of red blood cells.
B. production increases when blood oxygen decreases.
C. production is inhibited by testosterone.
D. All of these are correct.

Answer 242

B. production increases when blood oxygen decreases.

Question 243

Each muscle fiber contains several hundred to several thousands_________
A. myofilament
B. myofibrils
C. muscle fiber
D. fascicle

Answer 243

B. myofibrils

Question 244

All of the following are true about the skeletal muscle fiber, EXCEPT
A. A cross-bridge forms when the myosin binds to the actin.
B. muscle fiber is a single cell consisting of a plasma membrane (sarcolemma), cytoplasm (sarcoplasm), several nuclei, and myofibrils
C. Sarcomeres are bound by Z disks that hold actin myofilaments.
D. NOTA

Answer 244

D. NOTA

Question 245

Sacral pain occurs when _________ is stimulated such as during a bowel movement or when passing a gas and relieved after each of these events
A. Stomach
B. Rectum
C. Esophagus
D. Small intestine

Answer 245

B. Rectum

Question 246

All of the following are true about the nephron, EXCEPT
I. Proximal tubular membranes are highly permeable to water
II. As fluid flows down the descending loop of Henle, water is absorbed into the cortex
III. The thin ascending limb is essentially impermeable to water but reabsorbs some sodium chloride
IV. The thick part of the ascending loop of Henle is also virtually impermeable to water, but large amounts of sodium, chloride, potassium, and other ions are actively transported from the tubule into the medullary interstitium
V. The concentration of fluid in the medullary collecting ducts also depends on ADH

A. II,III,IV
B. II,III
C. Only IV
D. Only II
E. NOTA

Answer 246

D. Only II

Question 247

Areas of reabsorption (c and s ADH)
PCT
Thin descending LOH
Thin ascending LOH
Thick ascending LOH
DCT
CCT
MCT

Answer 247

PCT - concentrated
Thin descending LOH - concentrated
Thin ascending LOH - diluted
Thick ascending LOH - diluted
DCT - diluted (ADH: concentrated)
CCT - diluted (ADH: concentrated)
MCT - diluted (ADH: concentrated)

Question 248

most concentrated c ADH

Answer 248

MCT

Question 249

most concentrated s ADH

Answer 249

thin descending LOH

Question 250

most diluted c ADH

Answer 250

thick ascending LOH

Question 251

most diluted s ADH

Answer 251

MCT

Question 252

The following are contraindications of traction, EXCEPT:
A. Vascular conditions
B. Patients with subacute state of degenerative joint disease
C. Hypermobility
D. Local and systemic disease affecting joints, ligaments, bones and muscles such as tumors and infections

Answer 252

B. Patients with subacute state of degenerative joint disease

ACUTE state of DJD - CI

Question 253

Which ultrasound treatment parameter is recommended for a stage 3 chronic dermal wound?
A. 1 MHz at 1.5 watt.cm2
B. 3 MHz at .2-1 watt/cm2
C. 3 MHz at 1.5 watt/cm
D. 1 MHz at .2-1 watt/cm2

Answer 253

D. 1 MHz at .2-1 watt/cm2

Stage 2: 3 MHz at .2-1 watt/cm2; 20% duty cycle; around edges 1-2min per area

Question 254

Ultraviolet radiation within this range that will cause anti-rachitic effect is _______
A. 2400-3000
B. 4600-4970
C. 3000-4000
D. 3600-3900

Answer 254

A. 2400-3000

Question 255

antirachitic purpose

Answer 255

treating ricketts - lack of vit D; osteomalacia in kids

Question 256

MC subluxed vertebral level in RA:
A. C1-C2
B. C2-C3
C. C4-C5
D. C5-C6

Answer 256

A. C1-C2

Question 257

True about Volkmann’s ischemic contracture:
A. FPL and FDP are spared
B. Affects the radial artery
C. Involves fracture of the forearm, radius, or ulna
D. Commonly seen in weightlifter and clerical jobs

Answer 257

C. Involves fracture of the forearm, radius, or ulna

Question 258

neer stage 3 vs 4

Answer 258

stage 3: >40yo; partial tendon tear; osteophyte formation

stage 4: >40yo; multiple tendon tear

Question 259

AdCaps 3-9 months, most painful

Answer 259

freezing

Question 260

AdCaps 1-3 months

Answer 260

pre-adhesive

Question 261

AdCaps 9-15months; most significant LOM

Answer 261

frozen

Question 262

AdCaps 15-24 months

Answer 262

thawing

Question 263

A patient with a crush injury to the foot developed reflex sympathetic dystrophy. Now, two months into the RSD, the clinical presentation you would expect is:
A. Edema and osteoporosis with decreased sweating and nail growth
B. A cool, dry extremity with the beginning of ankylosis
C. Causalgia with vasomotor reflex spasm resulting in warm, dry skin with increased nail growth
D. Pain on motion with trophic skin changes and osteoporosis

Answer 263

C. Causalgia with vasomotor reflex spasm resulting in warm, dry skin with increased nail growth

Question 264

A mother complains of sharp pain on radial styloid when carrying her baby. The pain increases with extension of the thumb against resistance. What is the likely diagnosis?
A. Osteoarthritis of radial styloid
B. De Quervain Tenosynovitis
C. Dupuytren’s contracture
D. Scaphoid fracture

Answer 264

B. De Quervain Tenosynovitis

Question 265

Dupuytren’s contracture involves flexion contractures of the _______________ digits of the hand, MP, and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints.:
A. 2nd and 3rd
B. 3rd and 4th
C. 4th and 5th
D. 1st and 2nd

Answer 265

C. 4th and 5th

Question 266

Upon examination of your patient with quadriceps contusion, you note that he has deep bruising, pain, swelling, and discoloration along the injury site. His active knee ROM is recorded to be 45 degrees. You classify his injury as:
A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. Severe
D. Malingering

Answer 266

B. Moderate

severe: <45
moderate: 45-90
mild: >90

Question 267

The following treatments are helpful for plantar fasciitis during the initial stages. Which should be done in the subacute and more chronic stages?
A. Stretching of the Achilles tendon and plantar fascia
B. Icing and deep massage
C. Cortisone injection
D. Taping

Answer 267

C. Cortisone injection

other choices for acute

Question 268

Diagnostic Criteria for Hand Osteoarthritis include the following, EXCEPT?
A. All of the choices
B. Joint space narrowing in any finger joint
C. Age > 40 years old
D. Presence of heberden’s nodes
E. None of these

Answer 268

E. None of these

Question 269

Upon extraction of synovial fluid in the knee of OA patient, what is the characteristic of the synovial fluid if it is gray, cloudy, and opaque?
A. Normal
B. Hemorrhagic
C. Inflammatory
D. Non-inflammatory

Answer 269

C. Inflammatory

Question 270

absence of 2nd to 4th MC

Answer 270

lobster claw or ectodactyly

Question 271

absence of wrist and hand

Answer 271

acheiria

Question 272

absence of phalanges

Answer 272

aphalagia

Question 273

The x-ray of a patient diagnosed with Poland syndrome revealed skin union between the digits of the hand. This is called:
A. Syndactyly
B. Camptodactyly
C. Clinodactyly
D. Macrodactyly
E. Simian Hand

Answer 273

A. Syndactyly

Question 274

Among the elderly, humeral fractures at the surgical neck are common where this nerve is in direct contact.
A. Ulnar
B. Axillary
C. Median
D. Radial

Answer 274

B. Axillary

Question 275

On palpation of the foot, tenderness at the articular surface of the talus is a common finding in:
A. Deltoid strain
B. Bursitis
C. Tendonitis
D. Osteoarthritis

Answer 275

D. Osteoarthritis

talus is a WB joint

Question 276

Rheumatoid arthritis: Limited in ability to perform usual self-care, vocational, and avocational activities
A. class I
B. class II
C. class III
D. class IV

Answer 276

D. class IV

Question 277

The following statements are correct concerning the facial nerve:
I. The muscles of facial expression including the buccinator is supplied by the facial nerve
II. It supplies the stylohyoid, posterior belly of the digastric muscles of the neck and the stapedius muscles of the middle ear
III. It emerges as two roots from the anterior surface of the hindbrain between the pons and the medulla oblongata
IV. Injury to the facial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen will result in facial palsy, hyperacusis, impaired lacrimation and loss of taste on anterior 2/3 of the tongue.
V. Lesion of the facial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen presents with inability to close the eye on the side of the paralysis

A. All of these
B. I, II and III
C. I, II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and V
E. I, III and V

Answer 277

D. I, II, III and V

Question 278

True about the trigeminal nerve, EXCEPT:
A. It is a mixed nerve supplying the muscles of mastication and divides into three major branches, ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular.
B. Mediates the reflex arc in the jaw reflex involving the masseter and temporalis muscles
C. If the motor root of the trigeminal nerve is injured, paralysis occurs in the tensor tympani, mylohyoid and anterior belly of the digastric.
D. Taste impulses from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is mediated by the trigeminal nerve
E. None of these

Answer 278

D. Taste impulses from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is mediated by the trigeminal nerve

CN 7 fxn

Question 279

The vagus nerve is the great parasympathetic nerve that innervates the thorax and the abdomen. These statements correctly describe this nerve, EXCEPT:
I. Stimulation of the vagus nerve may result to vasodilation and bradycardia
II. Branches from the vagus nerve supply the intrinsic muscles of the larynx
III. Dysphagia, dysphonia and regurgitation of food into the nose on swallowing is a result of bilateral lesion to this nerve
IV. In testing for phonation by having the patient say “AH”, deviation of the uvula to the right suggests involvement of the right vagus nerve

A. I and IV
B. II and IV
C. All of these
D. None of these
E. Only IV

Answer 279

E. Only IV

Question 280

The following are key muscles represented by the C5, C6 myotomes
I. Biceps
II. ECRL
III. ECRB
IV. ECU
V. FCR

A. All of these
B. I, II and III
C. I, II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and V
E. II, III, IV and V

Answer 280

B. I, II and III

Question 281

Cavities within the brain filled with cerebrospinal fluid:
A. Subarachnoid space
B. Ventricles
C. Meninges
D. Sinuses

Answer 281

B. Ventricles

ventricles are lined with ependymal cells

Question 282

pharmacokinetics vs. pharmacodynamics

Answer 282

kinetics - body to drug
dynamics - drug to body

Question 283

Which of the following medications block receptors of the sinoatrial node and myocardial cells, thereby decreasing the force of contraction of the heart as well as the heart rate?
A. Thiazide diuretics
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. Alpha-blockers
D. Beta-blockers
E. ACE-inhibitors

Answer 283

D. Beta-blockers

Question 284

cancer with worst prognosis

Answer 284

lung cancer

Question 285

lowest survival rate cancer

Answer 285

pancreatic cancer

Question 286

CPP of hip

Answer 286

ExAbIR

Question 287

The following statements are true about the gluteus maximus, except:
A. it works as a force couple with the abdominal muscles to posteriorly tilt the pelvis on the femur and flatten the lumbar spine, decreasing lumbar lordosis
B. it works with the three hamstring muscles to extend the hip
C. it is the most powerful hip extensor, regardless of knee position
D. in the prone position with the knee in flexion, strong action is required of the gluteus maximus to move the hip into extension
E. none of these

Answer 287

E. none of these

Question 288

Actions of the gluteus medius include:
I. hip flexion
II. hip abduction
III. hip medial rotation
IV. hip extension

A. All of these
B. I, II, III
C. I and III
D. II and IV
E. Only IV

Answer 288

A. All of these

think delts
anterior: FlexIR
middle: abd
posterior: ExER

Question 289

The menisci are attached to the tibia to deepen the joint’s socket, improving the joint’s congruency. Which of these attachments to the menisci is incorrect?
A. Deep fibers of the mcl attach to the medial meniscus
B. The tendon of the semimembranosus muscle sends fibers to the posterior edge of the medial meniscus
C. The meniscofemoral ligament extends form the medial meniscus to the inside of the medial condyle near the posterior cruciate ligament
D. The popliteus muscle sends fibers to the posterior edge of the lateral meniscus
E. Each meniscus is anchored along its lateral rim to the tibia and joint capsule by a loose coronary ligament

Answer 289

C. The meniscofemoral ligament extends form the medial meniscus to the inside of the medial condyle near the posterior cruciate ligament

extends forming the LATERAL meniscus

meniscofemoral: wrisberg, humphrey

Question 290

The gastrocnemius and soleus belong to the superficial posterior group of the leg. these two muscles together are also called the triceps surae. The following descriptions are correct, except:
A. the soleus has been found to contain a higher proportion of slow twitch muscle fibers than the gastrocnemius
B. the soleus is more concerned with stabilization at the ankle and control of postural sway than is the gastrocnemius
C. the gastrocnemius and soleus are both involved in activities requiring forceful plantarflexion of the ankle
D. when the gastrocnemius-soleus group is paralyzed, the individual cannot rise on tiptoes and gait is severely affected
E. none of these

Answer 290

E. none of these

Question 291

Tibiofibular lateral rotation happens in which of the following foot motions?
A. supination, weight-bearing
B. supination, non-weight bearing
C. pronation, weight bearing
D. pronation, non-weight bearing

Answer 291

A. supination, weight-bearing

SSETT - supination, ext. tibial torsion

Question 292

While you are treating a T4 level SCI male patient, he suddenly had an autonomic dysreflexia.The following are the signs and symptoms of AD, except:
A. Pounding headache
B. Increased BP
C. Increased HR
D. Miosis

Answer 292

C. Increased HR

Question 293

A male TBI patient was able to open his eyes upon verbal command, pull the therapist’s hand when the anterior forearm was pinched, and speak inappropriate words when asked about how he was feeling in the past few hours. His GCS score is
A. 10
B. 12
C. 13
D. 11

Answer 293

A. 10

Question 294

While evaluating the reflexes of your TBI patient, you noticed that the patient’s right eye turns to the right when you suddenly turn his head to the right and turns upward when you suddenly lift his head. What reflex could be impaired in this patient?
A. Pupillary light reflex
B. Vertical/diagonal oculocephalic reflex
C. Doll’s eye reflex
D. Fronto-orbital reflex

Answer 294

C. Doll’s eye reflex

OR horizonal oculocephalic reflex

Question 295

What happens to the axons after plaque formation in patients with multiple sclerosis?
A. The axons become interrupted and undergo anterograde degeneration
B. The axons become interrupted and undergo retrograde degeneration
C. The axons are not interrupted but undergo anterograde degeneration
D. The axons are not interrupted but undergo retrograde degeneration

Answer 295

B. The axons become interrupted and undergo retrograde degeneration

Question 296

PD test

Answer 296

apomorphine test

Question 297

Which of the following signs and symptoms would suggest that the patient is LEAST likely to have amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
A. Spasticity on one extremity
B. Clumsiness
C. Decrease in balance
D. Normal bladder function

Answer 297

D. Normal bladder function

Spared in ALS: bladder fxn, cognition, ocular ms, sensory fxn

Question 298

ALS meds

Answer 298

riluzole/rilutek

Question 299

Which of the following is not a characteristic of myasthenic syndrome or LambertEaton myasthenicSyndrome?
A. Paraneoplastic syndrome associated with small cell lung cancer
B. Involves antibodies to presynaptic Calcium ion channels
C. Proximal muscle weakness that improves with further exertion
D. Extraocular weakness

Answer 299

D. Extraocular weakness
- affected in MG and botulism

MG - ACh
LEMS - calcium
botulism - nerve block

Question 300

Hoehn- Yahr classification: patient experiencing unsteadiness when turning or rising from chair.
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4

Answer 300

C. Stage 3

Question 301

In which position is a person with a herniated disc in the low back usually most comfortable?
A. Standing
B. Lying prone with a pillow under the head
C. Lying supine with support under the knees
D. Sitting

Answer 301

C. Lying supine with support under the knees

positioning in prone may cause ms spasm; prone can be uncomfy

Question 302

A patient was diagnosed to have spondylolisthesis with a forward displacement of his upper lumbar vertebra by 40%. He has a:
A. Grade I spondylolisthesis
B. Grade II spondylolisthesis
C. Grade III spondylolisthesis
D. Grade IV spondylolisthesis

Answer 302

B. Grade II spondylolisthesis

Question 303

A 42-year-old patient is experiencing TMJ dysfunction. He stated that there is a (+) click upon mouth opening. As a therapist, you might give an expression that the patient is suffering from:
A. Disc displacement
B. TMJ displacement
C. TMJ synovitis
D. TMJ capsulitis

Answer 303

A. Disc displacement

TMJ displacement - click with closing

Question 304

Which of the following are responsible for mandibular protrusion?
I. Masseter
II. Lateral pterygoid
III. Medial pterygoid
IV. Temporalis
V. Digastric
VI. Infrahyoid muscle

A. I and III
B. II and IV
C. I, II and III
D. I, II, III and IV
E. V and VI
F. All are correct

Answer 304

C. I, II and III

Question 305

Which of the following is/are considered innervated structure/s of the spine?
A. All of these
B. Transversospinalis
C. Inner of annulus
D. Intertransverse ligament
E. Zygapophyseal joint

Answer 305

E. Zygapophyseal joint

ALL, PLL, interspinous ligament, joint capsule, outer of annulus
ES, multifidi

Question 306

All of the following statements describe the joints of Von Luschka, EXCEPT:
A. Are called uncovertebral joints
B. Are called uncinate process
C. No synovium; so not considered as true joints
D. Not present at birth; develop by end of first decade
E. Unique articulation seen in upper cervical vertebrae

Answer 306

E. Unique articulation seen in upper cervical vertebrae

C3-C7

Question 307

Patients with a poking chin or forward head posture is a result of them following EXCEPT: (Tidy’s page 225)
A. overactivity of the SCMs
B. weakness of the deep cervical flexors
C. overactivity of the levator scapulae
D. overactivity of the deep cervical flexors

Answer 307

D. overactivity of the deep cervical flexors

overactivity of deep cervical EXTENSORS

Question 308

All of the following are true regarding stretching of the thoracic and lumbar spine in lumbar aquatic therapy, except:
A. Patient is in supine, buoyancy supported
B. PT grasps the patient’s abducted arm with fixed hand, while the movement hand is at the lateral aspect of the lower extremity of the side to be stretched
C. Stabilization is placed by the patient’s hip, while the pulling the patient in lateral flexion
D. The patient’s stretch side arm is adducted to end range to facilitate stretch
E. None of these

Answer 308

D. The patient’s stretch side arm is adducted to end range to facilitate stretch

ABDUCTED

Question 309

Knee capsular tightness has limited a patient’s ability to attain full flexion. An initial intervention a physical therapist can employ to restore joint motion should emphasize sustained mobilization in the loose packed position using:
A. Posterior glide of the tibia and internal rotation of the tibia
B. Anterior glide of the tibia and internal rotation of the tibia
C. Posterior glide of the tibia and external rotation of the tibia
D. Anterior glide of the tibia and external rotation of the tibia

Answer 309

A. Posterior glide of the tibia and internal rotation of the tibia

Question 310

Which modality causes the greatest increase in tissue temperature?
A. Infrared
B. Ultrasound
C. Diathermy
D. Hot moist pack

Answer 310

C. Diathermy

Question 311

FOOSH is the MOI. Your patient was referred for an x-ray. There is still pain and swelling. What bone commonly manifests with this type of presentation?
A. Distal radius
B. Scaphoid
C. Trapezium
D. Ulna

Answer 311

B. Scaphoid

(-) X-ray findings - usually later
(+) pain, swelling

Question 312

Which of the following is bicipital tendonitis LEAST frequently involved in?
A. Anterior laxity of the humerus
B. AC joint sprain
C. Rotator cuff pathology
D. Posterior laxity of the humerus

Answer 312

D. Posterior laxity of the humerus

Question 313

Is a variation of a typical KAFO, which is designed to help spinal cord injured patients to stand & walk?
A. Parapodium
B. Scott-Craig orthoses
C. Denise-Brown splint
D. A-frame orthosis

Answer 313

B. Scott-Craig orthoses

Question 314

Transtibial standard

Answer 314

20-50%

Question 315

transfemoral standard

Answer 315

35-60%

Question 316

This is a pressure tolerant area of the leg in prosthetic fitting:
A. Tibial crest
B. Medial tibial flare
C. Fibular head
D. Hamstring tendons

Answer 316

B. Medial tibial flare

Question 317

For a transfemoral amputee who ambulates with circumduction of the prosthesis during swing, one may think of causes and this may include which of the following?
A. Prosthesis too short
B. Weak hip flexors
C. Weak hip abductors
D. Inadequate suspension

Answer 317

D. Inadequate suspension

Question 318

The nurse teaches parents how to help their children learn impulse control and cooperative behaviors. This would occur during which of the stages of development defined by Erikson?
A. Trust vs mistrust
B. Initiative vs guilt
C. Industry vs inferiority
D. Autonomy vs. Shame and doubt

Answer 318

B. Initiative vs guilt

Question 319

In what stage is anal sphincter control present?
A. Autonomy vs shame and doubt
B. Initiative vs guilt
C. Industry vs inferiority
D. Identity vs identity confusion

Answer 319

A. Autonomy vs shame and doubt

2-3 yo; toilet training at 3

Question 320

A therapist is ordered to evaluate and treat a full-term infant. After reviewing the chart, the therapist discovers that at 1 minute after birth the infant exhibited the following symptoms. Acrocyanosis, heart rate of 105 beats per minute, slow respirations, slight response to reflex irritability, and some resistance of the extremities to movement. What was the infant’s APGAR score at 1 minute after birth?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

Answer 320

C. 6
Acrocyanosis: 1
HR 100<: 2
slow respi: 1
slight response: 1
some resistance: 1

Question 321

The nurse knows that an infant’s birth weight should be tripled by:
A. 9 months
B. 1 year
C. 18 months
D. 2 years

Answer 321

B. 1 year

5 months x 2 birth wt
1 year x 3

Question 322

In terms of gross motor development, what would the nurse expect a 5-month-old infant to do?
A. Roll from abdomen to back.
B. Roll from back to abdomen.
C. Sit erect without support.
D. Move from prone to sitting position.

Answer 322

A. Roll from abdomen to back.

Prone to supine - 4mo (Por - prone)
Supine to prone 5-7 mons (Supine- Seven)

Question 323

Most infants begin to fear strangers at age:
A. 2 months
B. 4 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months

Answer 323

C. 6 months

7 months - sepanx (Seven -Sepanx)

Question 324

A 5-year-old child with a T10 level spina bifida is now ready for ambulation training having good sitting balance. The best orthosis for him is:
A. RGO
B. Parapodium
C. KAFO
D. Supramalleolar orthosis

Answer 324

B. Parapodium

T6-T12: parapodium + THKAFO
L1-L2: RGO + HKAFO
L3-L4: KAFO
L5-S1: AFO / Ground reax AFO
S2 down: supramalleolar orthosis

Question 325

A patient with spina bifida has various manifestations/ orthopedic complications. What is the lowest limit of level with severe hip dislocation?
A. T12
B. L1
C. L2
D. L3

Answer 325

D. L3

Question 326

A therapist recommends a wheelchair for a patient rehabilitating from a CVA with the goal of independent mobility. The left upper and lower extremities are flaccid and present with edema. There is normal strength on the right, however, the patient’s trunk is hypotonic. The patient is cognitively intact. The MOST appropriate wheelchair for the patient is: (Giles p. 926)
A. Sling seat, sling back, arm board, and elevating leg rests
B. Light weight, solid seat, solid back, arm board, and standard footrests
C. Solid seat, solid back, elevating leg rests, and anti-tippers
D. Lightweight, solid seat, solid back, arm board, and elevating leg rests

Answer 326

D. Lightweight, solid seat, solid back, arm board, and elevating leg rests

Question 327

You have been asked to provide an assistive device to a 90-year-old female who lives alone and is partial weight bearing on the right lower extremity. Her upper extremity strength is 3+/5. Which assistive device would you recommend for this patient?
A. Lofstrand crutches
B. Walker
C. Large base quad cane
D. Axillary crutches

Answer 327

B. Walker

Question 328

A patient has a complete SCI at the level of L1. His primary goal is to walk again. The therapist describes it would be MOST appropriate to recommend that this patient use:
A. A RGO and walker
B. A wheelchair, because ambulation is unrealistic
C. Bilateral KAFOs with thoracolumbosacral extension control
D. Bilateral AFOs and Loftstrand crutches

Answer 328

A. A RGO and walker

Question 329

To prepare a patient with an incomplete T12 paraplegia for ambulation with crutches, the upper quadrant muscles that would be MOST important to strengthen include the:
A. Upper trapezius, rhomboids, and levator scapulae
B. Deltoid, triceps, and wrist flexors
C. Middle trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and triceps
D. Lower trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and triceps

Answer 329

D. Lower trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and triceps

Question 330

What is the appropriate assistive device for a patient provided that he/she carries 80% of his/her body weight?
A. Walker
B. Cane
C. Axillary crutches
D. Forearm crutches

Answer 330

B. Cane

Question 331

floor of anatomic snuffbox

Answer 331

scaphoid (1), trapezium

Question 332

The following are intrinsic muscles of the hand, except:
I. Abductor pollicis brevis
II. Flexor pollicis brevis
III. Palmaris brevis
IV. Extensor pollicis brevis

A. All of these
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. Only IV
E. I, II, III

Answer 332

D. Only IV

Question 333

Manual muscles testing for Sartorius the lower extremity is placed into a position of?
I. Lateral rotation of the hip
II. Hip abduction
III. Hip flexion
IV. Knee flexion

A. All of these
B. None of these
C. I, II, III
D. II, IV

Answer 333

A. All of these

Question 334

During a postural examination of a patient with a right thoracic scoliotic curve,the therapist should find that the:
I. Ribs are pushed anteriorly on the right
II. Paraspinal muscles are tight on the right
III. Scapula is prominent on the left
IV. Spinous processes are rotated to the left

A. Only IV
B. All are correct
C. All are incorrect
D. I, II, III
E. II, IV

Answer 334

A. Only IV

Question 335

Features of the sympathetic nervous system:
I. Fight or flight response
II. Short preganglionic fibers
III. Norepinephrine as the post-ganglionic neurotransmitters
IV. Central nuclei in cranial and spinal portions of the spinal cord

A. I, II, III
B. All of these
C. Only IV
D. I, III
E. II, IV

Answer 335

A. I, II, III

Question 336

Which of the following describe intrinsic minus position?
I. MCP flexion
II. Interossei and lumbricals are shortened
III. Often found in rheumatoid arthritis
IV. IP extension

A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. All of these
E. None of these

Answer 336

E. None of these

Question 337

The most common earliest physical sign of HO
a. Erythema and swelling
b. Limitation of motion
c. Muscle spasm
d. Pain

Answer 337

a. Erythema and swelling

Question 338

Avascular necrosis of the knee most commonly affects the
a. Patella
b. Fibular head
c. Tibial tuberosity
d. Lateral femoral condyle

Answer 338

c. Tibial tuberosity

Question 339

The joint that is most commonly affected in septic arthritis
a. Elbow
b. Shoulder
c. Knee
d. Hip

Answer 339

c. Knee

Question 340

Most common level of ulnar nerve injury
a. Neck
b. Upper arm
c. Wrist
d. Elbow

Answer 340

d. Elbow

Question 341

. The most common level of stenosis in the low back is
a. L5-S1
b. L4-L5
c. L2-L3
d. L3-L4

Answer 341

b. L4-L5

Question 342

Trigger finger affects most commonly the:
a. Second and third digits
b. Third and fourth digits
c. The little finger
d. Thumb

Answer 342

b. Third and fourth digits

Question 343

Most common cause of trigger finger
a. Malunited phalangeal fracture
b. Slip of long extensor tendons
c. Lax collateral ligaments of fingers
d. Swelling of sublimis tendon sheath

Answer 343

d. Swelling of sublimis tendon sheath

Question 344

The most common site of stress fracture in athletes is the
a. Femoral neck
b. Metatarsal
c. Navicular
d. Tibia

Answer 344

d. Tibia

Question 345

The most common cause of lower extremity amputation is
a. Trauma
b. Congenital defects
c. Infection
d. Vascular disease

Answer 345

d. Vascular disease

Question 346

The most common site of intra-cerebral hemorrhage:
a. Caudate nucleus
b. Putamen
c. Fornix
d. Anterior limb of internal capsule

Answer 346

b. Putamen

Question 347

After the hip, the next most commonly involved joint in HO in SCI patients is:
a. Elbow
b. Ankle
c. Shoulder
d. Knee

Answer 347

d. Knee

Question 348

Rupture of the Achilles tendon most commonly occurs in the narrowest portion of
the tendon which is how many inches above its point of attachment?
a. 5
b. 3
c. 2
d. 4

Answer 348

c. 2

Question 349

Most common cranial nerve affected in MS
a. II
b. IV
c. III
d. VII

Answer 349

a. II

Question 350

The most common deformity of the shoulder in RA
a. Flexion, Abduction
b. Adduction, Internal Rotation
c. Flexion, External Rotation
d. Extension, Internal Rotation

Answer 350

b. Adduction, Internal Rotation

RA-ADIR

Question 351

The most common site of lacunar infarct
a. Parietal lobe
b. Basal ganglia
c. Temporal lobe
d. Internal capsule

Answer 351

d. Internal capsule

Question 352

. The most common congenital skeletal deficiency in the upper limb is
a. Absence of distal 2/3 of forearm
b. Amelia
c. A longitudinal deficiency
d. Pocomelia

Answer 352

a. Absence of distal 2/3 of forearm

Question 353

The most common pattern of injury in supracondylar fracture of the humerus is
a. Internal rotation
b. External rotation
c. Flexion
d. Hyperextension

Answer 353

d. Hyperextension

Question 354

The most common spinal deformity in myelomeningocele is
a. Scoliosis
b. Lordosis
c. Rigid malformation
d. Kyphosis

Answer 354

a. Scoliosis

Question 355

The nerve most commonly involved in Hansen’s Disease
a. Common Peroneal Nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
c. Great Auricular nerve
d. Median Nerve

Answer 355

b. Ulnar nerve

leprUsy

Question 356

prolonged PR, fluctuating P wave, widened QRS

Answer 356

hyponatremia

Question 357

prolonged QT, flat T wave

Answer 357

hypokalemia

hypoTalemia

Question 358

prolonged ST & QT

Answer 358

hypocalcemia

Question 359

shortened QT, peak T wave

Answer 359

hyperkalemia

hyperTalemia

Question 360

pincer grasp age

Answer 360

10 months

Question 361

parallel play vs playing near each other age

Answer 361

parallel play: 2yo
playing near each other: 18mo

Question 362

following 1 step vs 2 step commands age

Answer 362

1 step: 18 mo
2 step: 2yo

Question 363

The success of ankle joint arthroplasties is dependent on the health of what ankle joint?
a. Talonavicular
b. Talofibular
c. Subtalar
d. Talotibial

Answer 363

c. Subtalar

Question 364

Airway resistance may be decreased by:
a. Increasing airway diameter and length
b. Increasing airway diameter
c. Decreasing flow rate
d. Decreasing airway length
e. Increasing airflow speed

Answer 364

b. Increasing airway diameter

Question 365

When does the first fetal movement typically occur?
a. 12 weeks
b. 16 weeks
c. 20 weeks
d. 24 weeks
e. 18 weeks

Answer 365

c. 20 weeks

18 weeks - light fetal movement felt by those prev pregnant before

Question 366

Which of the following is considered the best exercise for individuals with Huntington’s
disease?
a. Tai Chi
b. High-intensity interval training (HIIT)
c. Yoga
d. Aerobic exercise like walking and cycling
e. Resistance training

Answer 366

d. Aerobic exercise like walking and cycling

Question 367

.You are treating a patient for low back pain. You have established a good relationship
and even joked around with him. However, a few weeks later, the patient has shown
only slight improvement and suddenly starts yelling at you unprovoked. What behavior
is he exhibiting?
a. Projection
b. Displacement
c. Compensation
d. Substitution
e. Regression

Answer 367

b. Displacement

Question 368

Which of the following types of cancer primarily occurs in the intracellular space?
a. Leukemia
b. Lymphoma
c. Sarcoma
d. Carcinoma
e. neuroblastoma

Answer 368

a. Leukemia

Question 369

bacteria most commonly assoc with meningitis

Answer 369

1. streptoccocus pneumoniae
2. haemophilus influenzae
3. nisseria meningitidis

Question 370

.What is the most common complication in a patient with diabetes mellitus (DM)?
a. Diabetic neuropathy
b. Diabetic retinopathy
c. Diabetic nephropathy
d. Cardiovascular disease
e. Diabetic foot ulcers

Answer 370

d. Cardiovascular disease

Question 371

Where are norepinephrine receptors located in the body?
a. Cytoplasm
b. Plasma membrane
c. Cytosol
d. Nucleus
e. Mitochondria

Answer 371

b. Plasma membrane

Question 372

A 40-year-old patient presents with increased lumbar lordosis and a forward head
posture. Which muscle is most likely shortened?
a. Upper trapezius
b. Erector spinae
c. Hip flexors
d. Rectus abdominis

Answer 372

c. Hip flexors

Question 373

Which type of receptor demonstrates after discharge?
a. Vision
b. Phasic
c. Golgi tendon organ
d. Olfactory
e. Tonic

Answer 373

e. Tonic

tonic - adapts slowly to stimulus

Question 374

The substantia gelatinosa is located in which part of the spinal cord?
a. Anterior horn
b. Posterior horn
c. Lateral column
d. Dorsal root ganglion
e. White matter

Answer 374

b. Posterior horn

Question 375

What structure separates the cerebral cortex and the cerebellum?
a. Falx cerebri
b. Tentorium cerebelli
c. Dura mater
d. Pia mater
e. Arachnoid mater

Answer 375

b. Tentorium cerebelli

Question 376

Which of the following muscles will
be affected in a tunnel of guyon
compression neuropathy?
I. Adductor pollicis
II. 4th and 5th lumbricals
III. Flexor digiti minimi
IV. Interossei
V. 4th and 5th FDP

a. All of these
b. I, II, III, and IV
c. I, II, and III
d. I, III, and V
e. II, IV, and V

Question 377

force output

Answer 377

FE > SE > isom > SC > FC

Question 378

The components of flexor
synergy for shoulder includes:
a. Scapular adduction, depression, shoulder adduction and IR
b. Scapular adduction, elevation, shoulder Abduction and ER
c. Scapular abduction, protraction, shoulder Adduction and IR
d. Scapular abduction, retraction and shoulder Abduction

Answer 378

b. Scapular adduction,
elevation, shoulder
Abduction and ER

Question 379

The following are included under
perception, except:
I. Right/left discrimination
disorder and vertical orientation
II. Stereognosis and 2-pt discrimination
III. Tactile localization and vibration
IV. Hemianopsia and neglect

a. All of these
b. I, II, and III
c. I and III
d. Only IV
e. None of these

Question 380

If the rhomboids major, rhomboids minor and pectoralis minor are paralyzed, which movement will be hard for the patient to perform?
a. Upward rotation
b. Protraction
c. Downward rotation
d. Retraction

Answer 380

c. Downward rotation

Question 381

The volar surfaces of the forearm, wrist and hand, are divided into five flexor zones which when lacerated, can present with symptoms that are consistent with the structures injured in that specific zone. Which of the following would BEST describe the consequences of an injury to Zone II?
a. Inability to complete a full fist due
to rupture of the flexor digitorum
profundus
b. Loss of wrist and digital flexion,
with damage to the ulnar and median nerves
c. Disruption of MCP flexion due to
rupture of the lumbricales
d. Inability to flex the PIP and DIP due to injury to extrinsic finger flexors

Answer 381

d. Inability to flex the PIP and DIP due to injury to extrinsic finger flexors

Question 382

You were endorsed with a patient who
sustained a laceration injury to the
hand. The surgeon informed you that it was most challenging to perform the surgery owing to poor vascular supply of this severed zone of the hand. Which of the following best describes this region?
a. It is located from the distal FDP
insertion to the level of distal palmar
crease
b. It is located from the distal
insertion of the FDS to the level of the distal palmar crease
c. It is the area under the transverse
carpal tunnel
d. It is from the neck of the metacarpals to the distal carpal tunnel
e. It is the area proximal to the wrist

Answer 382

b. It is located from the distal
insertion of the FDS to the level of the distal palmar crease

Question 383

The neurological basis for sexual
dysfunction in men with spinal cord
injury (SCI) are as follows: EXCEPT:
a. The parasympathetic spinal outflow originating from the S-2 to S-4 spinal segments is primarily
responsible for mediating reflexogenic erection
b. The T-10 to S-2 spinal segments
contain the reflex arc that receives
sensory afferents from the genitals
c. The neural output from the
hypothalamus to the sexual organs
courses in the anterolateral columns
to terminate in the intermediolateral
cell columns of T-10 to L-3
d. In men, the sympathetic output is
primarily responsible for regulating
ejaculation and psychogenic component of penile erection
e. Supraspinal component of the motor pathways descends with the
corticospinal tracts to the S-2 to S4 segments of the sacral cord

Answer 383

b. The T-10 to S-2 spinal segments
contain the reflex arc that receives
sensory afferents from the genitals

S2-S4 bulbocavernosus reflex

Question 384

Following are measurable determinants of gait, EXCEPT:
a. The knee should remain flexed during all components of stance phase
b. The body’s center of gravity lies two inches in front of the second sacral vertebrae and oscillates no more than two inches in a vertical direction
c. The pelvis and trunk shift laterally
approximately one inch to the weightbearing side
d. The width of the base should not be more than two to four inches from heel to heel

Answer 384

a. The knee should remain flexed during all components of stance phase

Question 385

The following muscles arise from the
medial epicondyle of the humerus and bounds the medial side of the
antecubital fossa:
a. Flexor Carpi Radialis, Palmaris
Longus and Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
b. Flexor Digitorum Sublimis, Flexor
Digitorum Profundus and Flexor
Pollicis Longus
c. None of these
d. Pronator Teres, Palmaris Longus, and Flexor Digitorum Superficialis

Answer 385

d. Pronator Teres, Palmaris Longus, and Flexor Digitorum Superficialis

Question 386

Paralysis of the left gluteus maximus
is compensated for during the stance phase by:
a. Increased ankle plantarflexion of the affected extremity
b. Hyperextension of the spine
c. External tibial torsion at heel
strike
d. Maintenance of knee flexion of
affected extremity

Answer 386

b. Hyperextension of the spine

Question 387

You are treating a patient on the field who has the following clinical features: demonstrates weakness,
fatigue, and loss of motor tone, with blurred vision and elevated body temperature. Which of the following heat disorders is this patient most likely experiencing?
a. Heat cramps
b. Heat syncope
c. Heat exhaustion
d. Heat hyperpyrexia

Answer 387

c. Heat exhaustion

Question 388

A 67-year-old male with long-standing cardiac pathology is
referred to physical therapy. The medical record indicated
the patient is taking Nitrostat. The primary function of
nitrates is:
a. To strengthen the heart’s pumping force
b. To produce a general vasodilation of vascular structures
c. To increase the excretion of sodium and water
d. To decrease electrical conduction

Answer 388

b. To produce a general vasodilation of vascular structures

Question 389

A physical therapist attempts to prevent alveolar collapse in
a patient following thoracic surgery. Which breathing technique would be the most beneficial to achieve the
established goal?
a. Diaphragmatic breathing
b. Pursed-lip breathing
c. Incentive respiratory spirometry
d. Segmental breathing

Answer 389

c. Incentive respiratory spirometry

Question 390

A physical therapist performs rescue breathing on a patient
who collapsed in the physical therapy gym. Which of the
following is not accurate when performing rescue breathing
on an adult?
a. Maintain open airway with head-tilt/chin-lift
b. Give one breath every five seconds
c. Pinc nose shut
d. Continue for 30 seconds; approximately six breaths

Answer 390

d. Continue for 30 seconds; approximately six breaths

cont. for 60s

Question 391

A patient positioned in standing completes shoulder medial
and lateral rotation exercises using a piece of elastic tubing.
Which plane of the body is utilized in this activity?
a. Coronal
b. Frontal
c. Sagittal
d. Transverse

Answer 391

d. Transverse

vertical axis

Question 392

A patient is referred to physical therapy after sustaining a
lower extremity injury. The physical therapist examines the
patient and identifies several postural abnormalities
including genu varum. Which of the following motions or
postures is not often correlated with genu varum?
a. Lateral patellar subluxation
b. Excessive hip abduction
c. Ipsilateral hip lateral rotation
d. Medial tibial torsion

Answer 392

a. Lateral patellar subluxation

Question 393

A physical therapist performs a variety of special tests on a
patient with a suspected anterior cruciate ligament injury.
Which special test is not indicative of a one-plane anterior
instability ligamentous test?
a. Lachman test
b. Drawer test
c. Active drawer test
d. Loose test

Answer 393

d. Loose test

Question 394

A physical therapist completes a dorsal glide of the
humeroradial articulation with a patient in supine. When
performing this mobilization technique, the therapist should
stabilize the:
a. Distal humerus from the lateralside of the patient’s
arm
b. Distal humerus from the medial side of the
patient’s arm
c. Proximal humerus from the lateral side of the
patient’s arm
d. Proximal humerus from the medial side of the
patient’s arm

Answer 394

a. Distal humerus from the lateralside of the patient’s
arm

OKC so stabilize distal

Question 395

A patient placed on bed rest is examined in physical therapy.
Which effect would not typically be associated with extended
bed rest?
a. A decrease in physical work capacity
b. An increase in lung volume and vital capacity
c. An increase in the heart rate response to activity
d. A negative nitrogen and calcium balance

Answer 395

b. An increase in lung volume and vital capacity

Question 396

A patient with a transfemoral amputation and an above knee
prosthesis demonstrates forward trunk leaning during the
stance phase of gait with a rolling walker. What is the MOST
LIKELY cause of this gait deviation?
a. Prosthesis is too long
b. Walker is set too high
c. Weak gluteus maximus
d. Unstable knee unit

Answer 396

d. Unstable knee unit

Question 397

A retired administrative assistant with a history of chronic
neck pain secondary to whiplash associated disorder (WAD)
is referred to physical therapy. The patient denies
experiencing any radiating pain to the upper extremities and
is neurologically intact on examination. Which intervention
should be emphasized in the physical therapy plan of care?
a. Wearing a cervical collar
b. Thoracic manipulation
c. C1-2 self-sustained natural apophyseal glide (SNAG)
d. Submaximal deep neck flexor endurance training

Answer 397

d. Submaximal deep neck flexor endurance training

Question 398

What is the best position for a patient with disc herniation
lateral to the Left L4 nerve root?
A. Trunk flexion and lateral bending to the left
B. Trunk extension and lateral bending to the right
C. Trunk flexion and lateral bending to the right
D. Trunk extension and lateral bending to the left

Answer 398

B. Trunk extension and lateral bending to the right

I/L trunk bend if medial to nerve root

Question 399

A physical therapist works with an eight-year-old child who
walks with an equinus gait pattern. Which of the following
interventions would be the MOST appropriate to address the
muscle shortening associated with this gait pattern?
a. side stepping
b. backward stepping
c. activities in single leg stance
d. toe walking

Answer 399

b. backward stepping

Question 400

A physical therapist treats a patient wearing a shoe that incorporates a rocker bottom. This type of modification would be the MOST beneficial for a patient diagnosed with:

A. Hallux rigidus
B. Achilles tendonitis
C. Plantar fasciitis
D. Posterior tibial tendonitis

Answer 400

A. Hallux rigidus

Question 401

A note in the medical record indicates that a patient was recently prescribed Lasix. Which condition is MOST commonly associated with the use of this medication?

A. atrial flutter
B. deep vein thrombosis
C. congestive heart failure
D. hyperlipidemia

Answer 401

C. congestive heart failure

Question 402

A physical therapists works on transfer activities with a patient diagnosed with a complete C5 spinal cord injury. Which of the following muscles would the patient be able to utilize during the training session?

A. Brachioradialis
B. Pronator teres
C. Extensor carpi radialis brevis
D. Latissimus dorsi

Answer 402

A. Brachioradialis

PT - C6-7
ECRB, Lats - C6, C7, C8

Question 403

a physical therapist notices that a patient with a transfemoral amputation consistently takes a longer step with the prosthetic limb than the contralateral limb. the MOST likely cause of the deviation is

A. hip flexion contracture
B. weak abdominal muscles
C. weak residual limb
D. fear and insecurity

Answer 403

A. hip flexion contracture

Question 404

A physical therapist treats a patient rehabilitating from a traumatic brain injury by applying approximation to the pelvis to increase bilateral lower extremity weight bearing. The patient exhibits significant hypertonicity and the presence of the positive support reflex. The therapist is MOST likely using the therapeutic ball to

A. Avoid a mass extensor pattern in standing
B. Encourage active assistive range of motion
C. Allow the patient partial weight bearing through the ball
D. Limit range of motion at the shoulder

Answer 404

A. Avoid a mass extensor pattern in standing

Question 405

A patient diagnosed with patellofemoral syndrome discusses his past medical history with a physical therapist. The patient reports having anterior ruciate ligament reconstruction surgery on his right knee two years ago, however, the therapist is not able to identify a scar over the anterior surface of the right knee. Assuming the surgeon utilized an autograft for the reconstruction, which of the following would be the MOST likely graft site?

A. Semitendinosus and semimembranosus
B. Semimembranosus and gracilis
C. Semitendinosus and biceps femoris
D. Semitendinosus and gracilis

Answer 405

D. Semitendinosus and gracilis

GrafT

Question 406

A physical therapist assesses the deep tendon reflexes of a patient as part of the lower quarter screening examination. The therapist determines that the right and left patellar tendon reflex and the left Achilles tendon reflex are 2+, while the right Achilles tendon reflex is absent. The clinical condition that could BEST explain this finding is:

A. Peripheral neuropathy
B. Cerebral palsy
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Intermittent claudication

Answer 406

A. Peripheral neuropathy

Question 406

A physical therapist treats a patient that sustained an acute wound to the anterior surface of the forearm. Which cell component would have been the FIRST to arrive at the injury site immediately following the incident?

A. Endothelial cells
B. Fibroblasts
C. Platelets
D. Leukocytes

Answer 406

C. Platelets

Question 407

a physical therapist prepares iontophoresis over the anterior surface of patient’s knee. the therapist would like to keep the current density low in order to avoid skin irritation. which of the listed parameters would BEST accomplish the therapist’s objective?

A. current amplitude of 4 mA; electrode with an area of 4 cm2
B. current amplitude of 3 mA; electrode with an area of 6cm2
C. current amplitude of 4mA; electrode with an area of 12 cm2
D. current amplitude of 3 mA; electrode with an area of 4 cm2

Answer 407

C. current amplitude of 4mA; electrode with an area of 12 cm2

Question 408

A physical therapist attempts to strengthen the lumbricals on a patient with a low metatarsal arch. Which exercise would be the MOST appropriate?

A. resisted extension of the metatarsophalangeal joint
B. resisted abduction of the metatarsophalangeal joint
C. resisted flexion of the metatarsophalangeal joint
D. resisted adduction of the metatarsophalangeal joint

Answer 408

C. resisted flexion of the metatarsophalangeal joint

lumbricals - MTP flexion, IP ext

Question 409

This effectively raises the COM’s predicted lowest point by approximately 2.0-2.5 cm

Answer 409

Pelvic rotation

Question 410

If your patient cannot support weight on one leg but has good muscular strength and coordination, which crutch-walking gait would you choose?

Answer 410

Swing-through three-point

Question 410

A physical therapist reads in the medical record that x-rays confirmed the presence of a SLAP lesion. Which injury would MOST likely be associated with this type of lesion?

Answer 410

biceps tendon rupture

Question 411

When testing a patient with suspected sacroiliac dysfunction, a cluster of sacroiliac provocative tests is proven to have the highest diagnostic accuracy in detecting sacroiliac dysfunction. These tests are:

A. Compression test, Distraction test, Thigh thrust, Sacral thrust, Gillet’s test
B. Approximation test, Gapping test, Oostagard test, Sacral apex pressure test, Gaenslen’s test

Answer 411

B. Approximation test, Gapping test, Oostagard test, Sacral apex pressure test, Gaenslen’s test

Question 412

Subjects with pure word deafness _______.

A. Cannot understand or repeat spoken language
B. Can understand written language but cannot repeat spoken language

Answer 412

B. Can understand written language but cannot repeat spoken language

Question 413

When is the iliopsoas most active during the gait cycle?
A. Toe-off
B. Pre-swing

Answer 413

A. Toe-off

Question 414

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is a commonly used medication for insomnia for patients with chronic pain. Its mechanism of action is:

A. serotonin reuptake inhibition
B. antihistamine

Answer 414

B. antihistamine

Question 415

Affectation of both the third convolution and posterior portion of the superior temporal gyrus, in a Middle Cerebral Artery Syndrome will present with:

A. broca’s
B. wernicke’s
C. global

Answer 415

C. global

Question 416

Rupture of the tendo calcaneus results in inability to do which movement?

A. invert the midfoot
B. plantarflex the ankle
C. evert the midfoot
D. dorsiflex the ankle

Answer 416

B. plantarflex the ankle

Question 417

Your home care patient of more than 10 years is a 65/M SCI T6 level complete; wheelchair-dependent. You know that aside from regular ROM exercises, maintenance of conditioning and function, other areas need to be checked as well. You remind him about the need to have which of the following organ systems checked?

A. pulmonary and cardiac
B. all systems
C. bowel and bladder
D. integumentary

Answer 417

C. bowel and bladder

Question 418

Spatial attention is a component process needed for mobility. Its role in mobility is _____________.

A. Necessary for environmental navigation
B. necessary for awareness of both sides of space

Answer 418

B. necessary for awareness of both sides of space

Question 419

What is necessary during the gait cycle for the 1st MTP joint?

A. 25-40 PF
B. 60-75 DF
C. 25-40 DF
D. 60-75 PF

Answer 419

B. 60-75 DF

Question 420

This pelvic bone when fractured or dislocated renders the pelvis more unstable and a more complicated injury. What is this pelvic bone?

A. iliac
B. ischium
C. pubis

Answer 420

A. iliac

Question 421

While exercising on the ergometer, an amazing therapist thinks of the cardiovascular effects of exercise on your body which include which one of the following?
A. decreased heart rate and hypertension
B. increased VO2 max

Answer 421

B. increased VO2 max

Question 422

On examination of a female elderly patient with ankle pain, she complains that her ankle pain had been there for several years, and is described as stiffness and discomfort especially on ambulation. With just this information, what do you consider?

A. ankle OA
B. posterior tibial tendonitis

Question 423

Most important vitamins that play vital roles in bone formation and remodelling include Vitamins:

A. A, C, D
B. A, D, E, K

Question 424

The 40-year-old female patient who sustained a tibial condyle fracture of the knee has a dark swelling of the affected knee. You advise the patient to elevate the extremity when lying or sitting. After 1 week, the swelling decreases. What is the most likely cause of the knee swelling?

A. hemarthrosis
B. synovitis

Answer 424

B. synovitis

Question 425

sensation preserved in S4-S5; more than half the key muscles below the neurological level of injury less than Grade 3/5

Answer 425

ASIA impairment scale C

Question 426

Which of the following is allowable in patients on inpatient cardiac rehabilitation program?

Answer 426

HR inc of 20

Question 427

haracterized by a steady deterioration in disease from onset but with occasional acute attacks. This type of MS is

A. PPMS
B. SPMS

Answer 427

A. PPMS

Question 428

SCI patient A: Deficits are 0/5 both biceps and the entire UE; 0/5 both LEs; sensory 50% over neck area only. Orthosis?

A. Cervicothoracic orthosis
B. TLS orthosis
C. Halo vest
D. None of this

Answer 428

C. Halo vest

Question 429

Orthoses are used in DMD for several reasons. Which one of the following may NOT be what orthoses are used for in Duchenne muscular dystrophy patients?

A. stretching of LE ms
B. continuous fxnal ambu
C. prolonged standing

Answer 429

B. continuous fxnal ambu

Question 430

In a patient with spastic hypertonia, any of the following may be used EXCEPT:

A. Diazepam
B. Captopril
C. Baclofen
D. Dantrolene sodium

Answer 430

B. Captopril

ACE inhibitor

Question 431

Which of the following would be the end-stage of Cor Pulmonale and Congestive Heart failure in COPD?

A. pulmonary HTN
B. heart failure
C. LV failure

Answer 431

C. LV failure

Question 432

What is the most common indication for joint arthroplasties?

A. fractures
B. OA
C. RA
D. AOTA

Answer 432

D. AOTA

Question 433

The type of Idiopathic Scoliosis which will usually NOT spontaneously resolve is __.

A. adult onset
B. adolescent onset
C. infant onset
D. juvenile onset

Answer 433

D. juvenile onset

Question 434

The greatest amount of flexion in the cervical spine occurs at the level of

A. C2-C3
B. C4-C5
C. C6-C7
D. C7-C8

Answer 434

B. C4-C5

Question 435

Strong opiates may be used for chronic pain patients with _______.

A. Cancer pain
B. Neurogenic pain
C. Cancer, neurogneic, nociceptive pain
D. Nociceptive pain

Answer 435

C. Cancer, neurogneic, nociceptive pain

Question 436

On examination of a patient with foot and ankle pain, on history she notes she has had several incidences of ankle sprain. When she walks on rocky ground, the ankle feels unstable and times, gives away. On P.E., you note especially the poor proprioception in the affected leg. What does the patient have?

A. lateral ligament sprain
B. lengthened lateral ligaments

Answer 436

B. lengthened lateral ligaments

Question 437

The following are classified under the Primary neurodegenerative disorders causing Parkinsonism, EXCEPT

A. Multiple systems atrophy
B. Progressive supranuclear palsy
C. multiple cerebral infarctions
D. cortico-basal degeneration

Answer 437

C. multiple cerebral infarctions

Question 438

In Myelomeningocoele, this level of lesion is most often associated with flaccid lower limbs and frog-leg positioning. What level is this?

A. high lumbar (L1-L2)
B. Sacral
C. low lumbar (L3-L5)
D. thoracic

Answer 438

D. thoracic

Question 439

Airy, your patient withFascioscapulohumeral dystrophy has affectation of the following muscles: orbicularis oris, zygomaticus, orbicularis oculi. She will have difficulty in the following activities EXCEPT:

A. drinking from a straw
B. frowning when angry
C. closing her eyes
D. puckering her lips

Answer 439

B. frowning when angry

Question 440

FEV1 of at least 80% of the predicted value

Answer 440

mild COPD

Question 441

FEV1 between 50% and 80% of the predicted value

Answer 441

moderate

Question 442

FEV1 between 30% and 50% of the predicted value

Answer 442

severe

Question 443

FEV1 of less than 30% of the predicted value

Answer 443

very severe

Question 444

FEV1/FVC < 70%; FEV1 <30% predicted or FEV1 <50% predicted. Plus chronic respiratory failure

Answer 444

very severe COPD

Question 445

Psychosocial benefits of exercise in chronic heart disease patients include most importantly which of the following?

A. improved sex live
B. return to work
C. improved well being

Answer 445

C. improved well being

Question 446

Pre-prosthetic stage of the Rehab management of amputees include the following. Which does NOT belong to the pre-prosthetic stage?

A. fitness or cardiovascular assessment
B. pre-ambulation training
C. psychological assessments

Answer 446

C. psychological assessments

Question 447

Treatment in the early stages of COPD include which of the following?
increased ____.

Answer 447

increased/maintain exercise tolerance

Question 448

Indifference, cognitive slowness, “pseudo-depression” are manifestations of which neurobehavioral syndrome?

A. temporolimbic syndrome
B. dorsolateral convexity frontal syndrome

Answer 448

B. dorsolateral convexity frontal syndrome

Question 449

During swing phase, weak hip flexors causes which of the following gait deviations?

A. hip hiking
B. lumbar hyperextension** (not sure)
C. circumduction
D. AOTA

Answer 449

D. AOTA

Question 450

Which of the following is NOT an Intrinsic risk factor which predispose to the development of pressure ulcers?

A. muscle atrophy
B. smoking substance abuse

Answer 450

B. smoking substance abuse

Question 451

Which of the following actions of steroids are used for chronic pulmonary disease?

A. increases inflammatory response
B. decreases inflammatory response
C. bronchodilation

Answer 451

B. decreases inflammatory response

Question 452

Hunter, a post coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) patient, who’s on maintenance phase of a Cardiac Rehab program, a moderate intensity program will have a target heart rate of ______________.

A. 60-70% HRmax
B. 70-80% HRmax
C. 50-60% HRmax
D. 80-90% HRmax

Answer 452

A. 60-70% HRmax

Question 453

recommended calcium intake for 14-18 and >70yo

Answer 453

1200 mg/day

Question 454

recommended calcium intake for 19-50 and 51-70yo

Answer 454

1000mg/day

Question 455

A 30-year-old sustained a tri-malleolar fracture of the ankle. The forces involved in this type of fracture include abduction/lateral rotation force and ____________.

A. PF
B. DF
C. adduction

Answer 455

C. adduction

Question 456

HLA-B27 is specific for

A. psoriatic arthritis
B. reactive arthritis
C. AS

Answer 456

C. AS

Question 457

Tarsometatarsal disarticulation is also called ______________.

Answer 457

Lisfranc

Question 458

ankle disarticulation

Answer 458

syme

Question 459

Your female friend is noted to have scapular winging. You make a mental note that the muscles that may be involved are the following EXCEPT:

A. pec minor
B. trapezius
C. SA
D. NOTA

Answer 459

D. NOTA

Question 460

Though evidence remains inconclusive, the use of this group of medications is suggested to interfere with fracture healing, thus it is used sparingly in post fracture patients. This is the _________

A. NSAIDs
B. corticosteroids

Answer 460

A. NSAIDs

Question 461

Your 69-year-old aunt with severe Deg OA of both knees, is hypertensive and has heart disease. She also has a history of peptic ulcer and has been taking Paracetamol for pain relief but still has pain. Other drugs allowable for her include which one?

A. intraarticular steroids
B. opioid analgesics
C. NSAIDs
D. AOTA

Answer 461

D. AOTA

Question 462

Physical therapy/ Vestibular Rehab may not be indicated or not appropriate for:

A. BPPV
B. UVH
C. centrally located lesions
D. Meniere’s disease

Answer 462

D. Meniere’s disease

Question 463

Spasticity declines, movement combinations are mastered during which Brunnstrom Stage of Stroke recovery?

Answer 463

stage 4

Question 464

The following prosthetic causes may result in rotation of forefoot at heel strike of an amputee EXCEPT

A. rigid SACH heel cushion
B. excessive suspension

Answer 464

B. excessive suspension

Question 465

Patient figured in a traction injury to the anterior division of the brachial plexus. PT expected to see weakness of the elbow flexors, wrist flexors and forearm proration. The PT would also expect to find more weakness in

A. wrist extension
B. thumb abduction

Answer 465

B. thumb abduction

Question 466

A post stroke patient can maintain standing without any external support and has some sway. If he can remain standing while turning his head or trunks, the functional grade is

Answer 466

Good static and fair dynamic standing balance

Question 467

At what phase of the gait cycle would a PT expect to notice an everted posture of the calcaneus

A. from midstance through heel off (toe off)
B. from initial contact: (heel strike) through loading response (foot-flat)

Answer 467

B. from initial contact: (heel strike) through loading response (foot-flat)

first 15% of gait calcaneus everts

Question 468

A physical therapist identifies a number of substances that influence circulation. Which of the following substances is stimulated by decreased arterial pressure and acts as a vasoconstrictor?

A. Angiotensin
B. Histamine

Answer 468

A. Angiotensin

Question 469

A patient diagnosed with Meniere’s disease presents with vertigo. Which sign or symptom is inconsistent with this medical condition?

A. vertigo
B. nystagmus that resolves in 30s
C. tinnitus
D. head tilt to one side

Answer 469

D. head tilt to one side

Question 470

A physical therapy works with a patient diagnosed with congestive heart failure who presents with dyspnea during ambulation. The patient has an ejection fraction of less than 55 percent. Which of the following interventions would be the MOST appropriate?

A. instruction in pursed lip breathing
B. Education on energy conservation

Answer 470

B. Education on energy conservation

Question 471

Tiny red or purple hemorrhagic
spots appearing in clusters, may
be a sign of thrombocytopenia.
a. Petechiae
b. Ecchymosis
c. Jaundice
d. Bruise

Answer 471

a. Petechiae

Question 472

Bluish-purple to greenish-yellow
bruising or bleeding under the
skin often caused by trauma:
a. Petechiae
b. Ecchymosis
c. Jaundice
d. Bruise

Answer 472

b. Ecchymosis

Question 473

Pain medication recommended for
peptic ulcer
a. Ibuprofen
b. Ketorolac
c. Aspirin
d. Diclofenac

Answer 473

b. Ketorolac

Question 474

Which of the following is a
leukotriene receptor blocker?
a. Alprostadil
b. Aspirin
c. Montelukast
d. Ibuprofen

Answer 474

c. Montelukast

Question 475

Severe headache for almost 2 hours
followed by a sudden loss of
consciousness
a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
b. Viral encephalitis
c. Migraine
d. Brain tumor

Answer 475

a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Question 476

Severe headache with
photosensitivity, neck stiffness,
and abrupt onset of symptoms
a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
b. Viral encephalitis
c. Migraine
d. Brain tumor

Answer 476

b. Viral encephalitis

Question 477

If you are rubbing a salt to
stimulate the taste receptors, you
increase the sensitivity of
sweetness. This principle is known
as:
a. Simultaneous contract
b. Accommodation
c. Compensation
d. Successive contrast

Answer 477

d. Successive contrast

Question 478

Lesion to the third frontal
convolution will result to the
following, except:
a. Broca’s aphasia
b. Non-fluent speech with good
comprehension
c. Poor repetition, naming,
writing and reading
comprehension
d. All of these
e. None of these

Answer 478

c. Poor repetition, naming,
writing and reading
comprehension

global aphasia

Question 479

A 28-year-old man presents with
suicidal thoughts for the last 2
weeks. Patient states that voices
have been telling him to “kill
himself” and “finish it”. He
believes that these voices are
part of a conspiracy at work to
get him to leave his job.
According to him, he first noticed
his coworkers were starting to
plot against him 7 months ago when
they started to blame him to work
that wasn’t done. He started to
hear voices 2 months after that.
He has also been feeling very sad
since the voices started and now
feels depressed most days. Two
weeks ago, he started to seriously
think about suicide and developed
a plan to hang himself but then
decided to come seek help. On
physical exam, he has restricted
affect and is fearful at times. He
has suicidal ideation, auditory
hallucinations, and appears to be responding to internal stimuli
(looks over his shoulder, saying
“Stop”). Patient is most likely
suffering from:
a. Schizophrenia
b. Major bipolar disorder
c. Minor bipolar disorder
d. Schizoaffective disorder

Answer 479

d. Schizoaffective disorder

schizophrenia + mood disorder (e.g. BPD or depression)

Question 480

A 21-year-old man presents with 2
months of paranoia and odd
behavior. He reports that someone
planted a microchip in his brain
and his thoughts are being
intercepted. He hears their voices
for most of the day and believes
the voices are CIA officers. His
family reports that the odd
behavior started 7 months ago,
which they thought was due to
school stress. On physical exam,
he is paranoid, disheveled,
malodorous, nervous, and has flat
affect. His thoughts are illogical
and disorganized with thought
blocking. Patient has:
a. Schizophrenia
b. Major bipolar disorder
c. Paranoid disorder
d. Schizoaffective disorder

Answer 480

a. Schizophrenia

Question 481

5. A 45-year-old man has always
   experience co-occurring symptoms
   of depression – including feeling
   “down in the dumps,” having poor
   appetite, feeling hopeless, and
   suffering from insomnia – during
   his episodes of active psychosis.
   These depressive symptoms occurred only during his psychotic
   episodes. After his psychotic
   episodes were successfully
   controlled by medication, no
   further symptoms of depression
   were present. The patient has
   never met full criteria for major
   depressive disorder at any time.
   What is the appropriate DSM-5
   Diagnosis?
   a. Schizophrenia
   b. Schizoaffective disorder
   c. Persistent depressive disorder
   (dysthymia)
   d. Schizophrenia and persistent
   depressive disorder
   (dysthymia)
   e. Unspecific schizophrenia
   spectrum and other psychotic
   disorder

Answer 481

a. Schizophrenia

Question 482

Refers to frequent and persistent
pattern of angry/irritable mood,
argumentative behavior, or
vindictiveness.
a. Intermittent explosive
disorder
b. Oppositional defiant disorder
c. Conduct disorder
d. Violent behavior

Answer 482

b. Oppositional defiant disorder

Question 483

. Discrete episodes of failure to
resist aggressive impulses that
result in serious assaultive acts
or destruction of property.
a. Intermittent explosive
disorder
b. Oppositional defiant disorder
c. Conduct disorder
d. Violent behavior

Answer 483

a. Intermittent explosive disorder

Question 484

A 28-year-old woman presents to
her physician with abdominal pain
that has persisted intermittently
for a decade. The pain has been
particularly intense for the past
several weeks. She is unable to
sleep at night and has “tried
everything for the pain but it
won’t go away.” She reports
nausea and diarrhea. She also has
longstanding complaints of
chronic headaches, muscle spasms,
and dyspareunia (painful sexual
intercourse). Her chart shows
multiple visits over the years
for similar symptoms with only
vague physical examination
findings and no laboratory
findings. She has had several
investigative surgeries and
procedures without results. She
asks if she should have another
surgery to find out what is
wrong.
a. Body dysmorphic disorder
b. Conversion disorder
c. Illness anxiety disorder
d. Somatic symptom disorder
e. Malingering

Answer 484

d. Somatic symptom disorder

Question 485

. A 19-year-old woman is
hospitalized for dehydration
caused by severe, laxativeinduced diarrhea. She is depressed about the recent breakup of a romantic
relationship. She admits that she
uses laxatives because she has
been binge- eating frequently and
is worried about gaining weight.
Although the woman has BMI 16,
she believes that she is overweight. Which of the following most likely diagnosis?
a. Anorexia nervosa
b. Bulimia nervosa
c. Binge-eating disorder
d. Major depressive disorder
e. Brief psychotic disorder

Answer 485

a. Anorexia nervosa

“Although the woman has BMI 16,”

Question 486

First-line treatment for panic
disorder:
a. SNRIs
b. SSRIs
c. Alprazolam
d. Bezodiazipines

Answer 486

b. SSRIs

fluoxetine, sertraline, escitalopram

prozac, zoloft, lexapro

Question 487

A high school student complains
of fatigue and a sore throat.
She has swollen, tender lymph
nodes and a fever. Blood test
results show an increased white
blood cell count with many
atypical lymphocytes; the
number and appearance of the
erythrocytes are normal. This
student is likely to have
a. Acquired Immunodeficiency
Syndrome
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Infectious mononucleosis
d. Hodgkin disease
e. Factor VIII deficiency

Answer 487

c. Infectious mononucleosis

Question 488

A 30-year-old patient has been
anemic for several years. The
patient now complains of poor
vision and hearing loss. It is
determined that the patient lost function of some of the
cranial nerves. Based on these
findings, the patient might be
having:
a. Acromegaly
b. Osteopetrosis
c. Osteoporosis
d. Osteomalacia
e. Rickets

Answer 488

b. Osteopetrosis

Question 489

How do you differentiate heat
exhaustion from heat stroke?
a. Heat stroke does not
present with altered
mental status,
delirium, seizures
b. Body temperature for heat
exhaustion goes beyond 104
degrees Fahrenheit
c. Exhaustion presents with
decreased sympathetic
activity resulting to
diaphoresis, flushing
d. Heat stroke can lead to heat
exhaustion of not promptly
treated

Answer 489

c. Exhaustion presents with
decreased sympathetic
activity resulting to
diaphoresis, flushing

Question 490

A patient who reports falling
on the shoulder during a biking
competition came to the
emergency room. According to
the chart made by the residentin- duty, the patient presented
with a “step-off deformity” and
the clavicle appears to be
completely higher than the tip
of the shoulder. Imaging studies
show that both the
coracoclavicular and
acromioclavicular ligaments
have been torn. How would you
document these findings?
a. (+) AC joint dislocation, Type II
b. (+) AC joint dislocation, Type III
c. (+) AC joint dislocation, Type IV
d. (+) AC joint dislocation, Type V

Answer 490

b. (+) AC joint dislocation, Type III

1: AC sprain, CC normal
2: AC torn, CC sprain
3: AC torn, CC torn
- 25-100%
4: AC torn, CC torn
- skin tenting; posterior displacement of clavicle (Por=posterior)
5: AC torn, CC torn
- >100%
6: AC torn, CC torn
- inferior displacement of clavicle

Question 491

motor stimulation (frequency, stimulation)

Answer 491

long phase stim, low frequency

Question 492

sensory stimulation (frequency, stimulation)

Answer 492

short phase stim, high frequency (think TENS)

Question 493

cubital tunnel syndrome

Answer 493

ulnar neuropathy

Question 494

A patient in an acute care hospital has a catheter inserted into the internal jugular vein. The catheter travels through the superior vena cava and into the right atrium. The device permits removal of blood samples, administration of medication, and monitoring of central venous pressure. The device is BEST termed

A. Arterial line
B. Central Venous pressure catheter
C. Hickman catheter
D. Swan-Ganz Catheter

Answer 494

C. Hickman catheter

Question 495

A physical therapist is treating a patient in an acute care setting with a hematologic disorder. The MOST appropriate profile to monitor on a daily basis in order to ensure patient safety during physical therapy would be:

A. Complete blood count
B. Hemoglobin
C. Arterial blood gas
D. Blood glucose

Answer 495

A. Complete blood count

Question 496

A physical therapist uses a self-care assessment to examine change over time in rehabilitation programs. The assessment uses a seven point scale to examine 18 items. The collected information is based on observations of patient performance. This type of assessment MOST closely describes the:

A. Functional Status Index
B. Physical Self-Maintenance Scale
C. Katz Index of Activities of Daily Living
D. Functional Independence Measure

Answer 496

D. Functional Independence Measure

Question 497

A physical therapist directs a patient in a stretching maneuver as part of a home exercise program. Based on the depicted image (ankle plantarflexed with knees flexed), which muscle is being stretched?

A. rectus femoris
B. biceps femoris
C. soleus
D. gastrocnemius

Answer 497

C. soleus

Question 498

A physical therapist observes a patient during gait training. The patient has normal strength and equal leg length. As the patient passes midstance he slightly vaults and exhibits early toe off. The MOST likely cause of this deviation is:

A. Limited dorsiflexion
B. Weakness of the dorsiflexors
C. Weakness of the hip abductors
D. Limited plantarflexion

Answer 498

A. Limited dorsiflexion

Question 499

A patient with limited elbow and forearm range of motion is referred to physical therapy. When mobilizing the humeroradial articulation, the treatment plane is considered to be:

A. in the concave radial head, parallel to the long axis of the radius
B. In the convex radial head, parallel to the long axis of the radius
C. in the convex radial head, perpendicular to the long axis of the radius
D. in the concave radial head, perpendicular to the long axis of the radius

Answer 499

D. in the concave radial head, perpendicular to the long axis of the radius

radius is concave!!

Question 500

a physical therapist prepares to perform manual vibration as a means of airway clearance with a patient diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. when performing vibration the MOST appropriate form of manual contact over the affected lung segment is

A. contact with a cupped hand
B. contact with the ulnar border of the hand
C. contact with the entire palmar surface of the hand
D. contact with the distal phalanx of the middle finger

Answer 500

C. contact with the entire palmar surface of the hand

Question 501

a therapist conducts a goniometric assessment of a client’s upper extremities. which of the following values is most indicative of normal passive glenohumeral abduction?

A. 80 degrees
B. 120 degrees
C. 155 degrees
D.180 degrees

Answer 501

B. 120 degrees

Question 502

phase 2 cardiac rehab start and end test

Answer 502

start: low level treadmill test
end: maximal treadmill test

Question 503

A patient recovering from stroke walks with limited tibial advancement during stance on the more affected lower extremity. The therapist next examines the patient for a compensatory gait deviation. What is the MOST LIKELY deviation?

A. Trendelenburg
B. Exaggerated flexion synergy
C. Exaggerated extension synergy
D. Circumduction

Answer 503

D. Circumduction

Question 504

Primary diseases of muscle include all of the following EXCEPT

A. Progressive muscular dystrophy
B. Infantile spinal muscular atrophy (Werdnig-Hoffman syndrome)
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Myotonia congenital

Answer 504

B. Infantile spinal muscular atrophy (Werdnig-Hoffman syndrome)

Question 505

Which is a characteristic of a dysthymic disorder?

A. Recurrent, mild moods of hypomania and depression
B. Chronic severe depression
C. Poor response to psychotherapy
D. Absence of psychomotor symptoms

Answer 505

B. Chronic severe depression

Question 506

A therapist is assisting a patient in gaining lateral stability of the knee joint. The therapist is using strengthening exercises to strengthen muscle groups that will increase active restraint on the lateral side of the joint. Which of the following offers the least amount of active lateral restraint?

A. Popliteus
B. Biceps femoris
C. Iliotibial band
D. Gastrocnemius

Answer 506

D. Gastrocnemius

more post. restraint

Question 507

A patient complains of pain in the ear, what structure does not refer to the ear?

A. Anterior digastric trigger point
B. Sternocleidomastoid trigger point
C. Deep masseter trigger point
D. Temporomandibular joint

Answer 507

A. Anterior digastric trigger point

incisors of mandible

Question 508

In iontophoresis, vasodilating drugs would be used in

A. Both “Rheumatic diseases” and “Peripheral vascular affections”
B. Rheumatic diseases
C. Peripheral vascular affections
D. Neither “Rheumatic diseases” nor “Peripheral vascular affections”

Answer 508

A. Both “Rheumatic diseases” and “Peripheral vascular affections”

Question 509

When comparing the means between two groups of subjects, you discover that there is a significant difference between the variances of your outcome measure in those groups. What does this result tell you?

A. You are more likely to have committed a type I statistical error.
B. You are more likely to have committed a type II statistical error.
C. You need to run some additional post hoc tests.
D. You should use a nonparametric statistical test to analyze your data.

Answer 509

D. You should use a nonparametric statistical test to analyze your data

heterogeneity of data

Question 510

The nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs impede COX-2 activity. COX-2 produces inflammatory prostaglandins via biosynthesis of what substance?

A. Serotonin
B. Substance P
C. Arachidonic acid
D. Gamma butyric acid

Answer 510

C. Arachidonic acid

Question 511

What is the most effective form of diagnostic imaging for patients with multiple sclerosis (MS) to help determine level of disease activity?

A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
B. Position emission tomography (PET)
C. Computed tomography (CT)
D. Transcranial sonography

Answer 511

A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

Question 512

A patient presents with pain radiating down the posterior hip and thigh as a result of a herniated disc in the lumbar spine. The therapist decides to apply mechanical traction. If the patient can tolerate it, what is the preferred patient position?

A. Supine with one knee flexed
B. Prone with pillow under the abdomen
C. Supine with both knees flexed
D. Prone with no pillow

Answer 512

D. Prone with no pillow

Question 513

The triad described by Korsakoff included all of the following EXCEPT

A. Amnesia
B. Confabulation
C. Peripheral neuropathy
D. Ataxia

Answer 513

D. Ataxia

• under wernicke’s syndrome

Question 514

supracondylar fracture of the humerus would most likely cause a peripheral nerve injury involving

A. Median nerve
B. Axillary nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Musculocutaneous nerve

Answer 514

A. Median nerve

Question 515

A PT receives a referral from an acute care therapist to treat a patient with right hemiparesis in the home. The referral indicates that the patient demonstrates good recovery: both involved limbs are categorized as stage 4 (some movements out-of-synergy). The patient is ambulatory with a small-based quad cane. The activity that would be MOST beneficial for a patient at this stage of recovery is:

A. Supine, bending the hip and knee up to the chest with some hip abduction
B. Standing, lifting the foot up behind and slowly lowering it
C. Standing, small-range knee squats
D. Sitting, marching in place with alternate hip and flexion

Answer 515

B. Standing, lifting the foot up behind and slowly lowering it

Stage 4 recovery is characterized by some movement combinations that do not follow paths of either flexion or extension obligatory synergies. Knee flexion in standing is an out-of-synergy movement.

Question 516

All of the following cardiopulmonary function variables will increase in children in response to training except

A. Heart volume
B. Stroke volume
C. Respiratory rate
D. Tidal volume

Answer 516

C. Respiratory rate

Question 517

Ultrasound causes the greatest rise in temperature in tissues with

A. adipose
B. protein
C. cartilage
D. tendon

Answer 517

B. protein

muscle

Question 518

A therapist is evaluating a patient with traumatic injury to the left hand. The therapist asks the patient to place the left hand on the examination table with the palm facing upward. The therapist then holds the second, third, and fifth digits in full extension. The patient is then asked to flex the fourth digit. What movement would be expected by a patient with an uninjured hand, and what muscle or muscles is the therapist restricting?

A. the fourth finger would flex at the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint only, and the muscle being restricted would be the flexor digitorum superficialis
B. The fourth finger would flex at the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint only, and the muscle being restricted would be the flexor digitorum profundus.
C. The fourth finger would flex at the DIP joint only, and the muscles being restricted would be the lumbricals
D. The fourth finger would flex at the PIP joint only, and the muscles being restricted would be the palmar interosseous

Answer 518

B. The fourth finger would flex at the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint only, and the muscle being restricted would be the flexor digitorum profundus.

Question 519

If you wanted to determine how well the items on a test or survey related to each other, you would be analyzing that instrument’s

A. Content validity
B. Intrarater reliability
C. Stability
D. Internal consistency

Answer 519

D. Internal consistency

Question 520

Which of the following positions should be avoided in the right upper extremity with a patient who has a diagnosis of right hemiplegia secondary to a stroke?

A. Prolonged shoulder adduction, internal rotation, and elbow flexion
B. Prolonged finger and thumb flexion
C. Prolonged shoulder abduction, internal rotation, and elbow flexion
D. Prolonged wrist flexion and finger adduction

Answer 520

A. Prolonged shoulder adduction, internal rotation, and elbow flexion

Question 521

A patient with CHF is on digitalis to improve myocardial contraction. The patient is a new participant in a phase 2 outpatient cardiac rehabilitation program. What should the PT expect the effects of the medication to include?

A. Reduced exercise capacity
B. Decreased BP
C. Increased resting HR
D. Depressed ST segment on ECG with QT and T wave changes

Answer 521

D. Depressed ST segment on ECG with QT and T wave changes

Question 522

A physician discusses a patient’s plan of care with a physical therapist. The patient is a 29-year-old male that sustained deep partial-thickness burns to the anterior surface of his lower extremities. The physician discusses the possibility of discontinuing use of the topical antibiotic silver sulfadiazine after identifying an irregularity in the patient’s laboratory results. Which finding could be MOST related to the use of silver sulfadiazine?

A. peripheral edema
B. hypokalemia
C. altered pH balance
D. leukopenia

Answer 522

D. leukopenia

Question 523

Long-wave infrared

A. Nonluminous infrared radiation
B. Luminous infrared radiation
C. None
D. Both

Answer 523

A. Nonluminous infrared radiation

Question 524

A physical therapist evaluates a patient with a recent stroke involving the cerebellar arteries. When evaluating the patient, the therapist would MOST likely expect to find the presence of:

A. Chorea
B. Dysarthria
C. Hemiballismus
D. Hypertonia

Answer 524

B. Dysarthria

Question 525

A therapist is reviewing x-rays from a patient with a trimalleolar fracture. What are the BEST radiographic views to visualize this bony fracture?

A. Oblique and lateral
B. Posteroanterior and lateral
C. Anteroposterior and lateral
D. Lateral and coronal

Answer 525

C. Anteroposterior and lateral

Question 526

patient was referred for physical therapy after removal of a long arm cast extending to the forearm. She lacks full passive elbow extension. What may be causing this problem?

A. Active insufficiency of the biceps
B. Tightness in posterior humeroulnar joint capsule
C. Passive insufficiency of the triceps
D. Passive insufficiency of the pronator teres

Answer 526

D. Passive insufficiency of the pronator teres

Question 527

In electromyography, denervated muscle would be indicated by

A. Fibrillation voltages (potentials)
B. Fasciculation voltages (potentials)
C. Neither A nor B
D. Both A and B

Answer 527

D. Both A and B

Question 528

A physical therapist reads in the medical chart that a patient is taking digitalis. The patient is MOST likely taking this medication to treat:

A. Angina
B. atrial fibrillation
C. hypertension
D. thrombus formation

Answer 528

B. atrial fibrillation

Question 529

All of the following represent normal chronaxie values for skeletal muscle EXCEPT

A. 1/1000 second
B. 1 sigma
C. 1000 milliseconds
D. 1 millisecond

Answer 529

C. 1000 milliseconds

Question 530

A developmental defect in which there is disproportionate enlargement of the lesser wings of the sphenoid bones, producing an excessive distance between the orbits and a flattening of the bridge of the nose

A. Hypertelorism
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Achondroplasia
D. Hypoglycemia
E. Craniocleidodysostosis

Answer 530

A. Hypertelorism

Question 531

When utilizing electrical stimulation, the key element of pulsed current is

A. The duration of the current
B. A period of electrical silence
C. The frequency of the current
D. The amplitude of the current

Answer 531

B. A period of electrical silence

Question 532

Which of the following is the most serious or severe form of mental disease?

A. Psychotic disorders
B. Psychoneurotic disorder
C. Psychophysiologic disorders
D. Psychosomatic disorders

Answer 532

A. Psychotic disorders

Question 533

A physical therapist assesses several superficial reflexes as part of a neurological examination. Which grading system is MOST appropriate when recording the obtained results?

A. Ordinal scale from 0-4+
B. Hypoactive, normal, hyperactive
C. Present, absent
D. Zero, trace, poor, fair, good, normal

Answer 533

C. Present, absent

Question 534

A physical therapist is performing an examination for an infant that has recently been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect. Which of the following clinical signs would not likely be present?

A. Poor weight gain
B. Decreased respiratory rate
C. Bradycardia
D. Lower extremity swelling

Answer 534

C. Bradycardia

should be tachycardia

Question 535

A fracture of the second lumbar vertebrae would involve which segment of the spinal cord?

A. Twelfth thoracic
B. First lumbar
C. None of the above
D. Second lumbar

Answer 535

C. None of the above

SC ends at L1-L2; so at L2 below cauda equina/peripheral nerves may be involved

Question 536

A patient asks the therapist to explain the function of his medication verapamil (a calcium antagonist). Which of the following points should be conveyed in the therapist’s explanation?

A. Verapamil causes decreased contractility of the heart and vasodilation of the coronary arteries.
B. Verapamil causes decreased contractility of the heart and vasoconstriction of the coronary arteries.
C. Verapamil causes increased contractility of the heart and vasodilation of the coronary arteries.
D. Verapamil causes increased contractility of the heart and vasoconstriction of the coronary arteries.

Answer 536

A. Verapamil causes decreased contractility of the heart and vasodilation of the coronary arteries.

Question 537

A patient presents with supraspinatus tendinitis. After the initial cryotherapy, the therapist decides to apply ultrasound (US). In what position should the therapist place the shoulder joint in order to effectively treat the supraspinatus tendon?

A. Slight abduction and internal rotation
B. Adduction and external rotation
C. Adduction and internal rotation
D. Slight abduction and external rotation

Answer 537

A. Slight abduction and internal rotation

Question 538

Adrenergic receptors

A. Are subdivided into four major categories
B. Include the alpha and beta receptors
C. Include the muscarinic and nicotinic receptors
D. When blocked, can cause dry mouth, decreased salivation, blurry vision, and constipation

Answer 538

B. Include the alpha and beta receptors

Question 539

In carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS), the following statements are true EXCEPT:
a. There is not a good correlation between results of electrophysiological studies and symptoms the patient report
b. Severe symptoms may not be associated with deficits in grip or complains of weakness.
c. As the CTS progresses, the symptoms of paresthesia may decrease and be replaced with actual muscle atrophy and weakness
d. If the disorder has progressed to the point of thenar muscle atrophy, then nonsurgical treatment may be appropriate or effective

Answer 539

d. If the disorder has progressed to the point of thenar muscle atrophy, then nonsurgical treatment may be appropriate or effective

surgical treatment

Question 540

This outcome measure of intervention in Carpal Tunnel Syndrome was reported to be 4 times more responsive to clinical improvement than measures of neuromuscular impairment.
a. 2-point discrimination
b. Light touch with monofilaments
c. Functional Status Scale
d. Symptoms Severity Scale
e. Manual muscle test

Answer 540

d. Symptoms Severity Scale

functional status scale - 2x
symptoms severity scale - 4x

Question 541

This procedure tests for anteromedial band of anterior cruciate ligament, medial and lateral tibiomeniscal anterior portion of these capsular ligaments, anterior cruciate ligament, and posterior cruciate ligament.
a. External rotation/recurvatum test
b. Lachman’s test
c. Crossover test
d. Apley’s distraction test with internal rotation
e. Anterior drawer test

Answer 541

e. Anterior drawer test

Question 542

The following characteristics describe an upper motor neuron disease EXCEPT: _______.
I. There are lesions affecting nerves below the level of the brainstem(LMNL)
II. Lesions may be found in descending motor tracts within the cerebral motor cortex(motor tracts originate from the cerebral motor cortex and brainstem, and run through the spinal cord)
III. Symptoms may include hypertonicity and hyperreflexia
IV. Tracts in the lateral white column of the spinal cord are damaged
V. The ventral gray column of the spinal cord may be affected.(LMNL)

a. I, II, and V
b. I, II and IV
c. III, IV and V
d. II, III and IV

Answer 542

a. I, II, and V

Question 543

Which of the following statements is true concerning vital capacity of client with restrictive lung disease?
a. Above normal due to destruction of alveolar septa
b. Above normal due to greater radial traction exerted on airway walls
c. Below normal due to increased airway resistance
d. Below normal due to reduced lung compliance

Answer 543

d. Below normal due to reduced lung compliance

Question 544

Craniosacral therapy is an evaluation and treatment approach that assume the presence of craniosacral motion to be as follows EXCEPT it is ___________:
a. A physiological motion because it is unconscious and voluntary
b. Unstable and fluctuates in response to exercise, emotion and rest
c. An inherent rhythmical motion in human and animals, different from any other rhythm in the body
d. Claimed to change in response to trauma, autism or learning disability

Answer 544

a. A physiological motion because it is unconscious and voluntary

Question 545

__________ is characterized by an inability to sustain a body part or parts in one position, often the distal limbs, and the movements are slow and fluid.
a. Ballismus
b. Spasticity
c. Dystonia
d. Chorea
e. Athetosis

Answer 545

e. Athetosis

Question 546

A 66-year-old with a right gastrocnemius contracture is in the whirlpool. The correct temperature for the submersion is ______degrees F.
a. 92
b. 108
c. 104
d. 98

Answer 546

c. 104

Question 547

A PT observes that the gait of patient status post pneumonia is characterized by heel walking. Possible cause of this deviation can be any of the following EXCEPT:
a. Tightness of the dorsiflexor muscle
b. Weakness of the gastrocnemius muscle
c. Decreased strength of the dorsiflexors
d. Pes calcaneous deformity

Answer 547

c. Decreased strength of the dorsiflexors

Question 548

8. PT has just completed a study investigating the relationship between ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) and type of testing modality: arm ergometry versus leg ergometry. PT finds a correlation of .52 with the arm testing while the correlation is 0.75 with the leg testing. This means that .
   a. The common variance of both types of testing is only 20 percent
   b. Both arm and leg ergometry are highly correlated RPE
   c. Leg ergometry is highly correlated with RPE while arm ergometry is only moderately correlated
   d. Both arm and leg ergometry are only moderately correlated with RPE

Answer 548

c. Leg ergometry is highly correlated with RPE while arm ergometry is only moderately correlated

Question 549

If a patient has diagnosis of anterior interosseus syndrome, the activity that will be most difficult to perform is
a. resisted wrist extension with the elbow flexed at 90 degrees
b. wrist ulnar deviation with the thumb tucked inside a closed fist
c. pinching together the tips of the index finger and thumb

Answer 549

c. pinching together the tips of the index finger and thumb

Question 550

33. The ideal temperature of the water in the whirlpool when treating a patient with severe arterial insufficiency is ___.
    a. 90-92 degrees Celcius
    b. 90-92 degrees Fahrenheit
    c. 33.5-35.5 degrees Fahrenheit
    d. 92-96 degrees Fahrenheit

Answer 550

d. 92-96 degrees Fahrenheit

Question 551

52. A PT is evaluating a 50-year old male patient who underwent a total knee arthroplasty 2 weeks ago. PT noticed that the entire leg has started swelling. There is pitting edema throughout the lower leg and foot with tenderness in the midcalf. Girth measurement showed a 3.7 increase in the size of the midcalf. What is the NEXT step that the PT should take?
    a. Call physician after treatment to report result of evaluation
    b. Send patient to the emergency room right away
    c. Elevate the affected extremity
    d. Send patient home with instruction to monitor the affected extremity

Answer 551

b. Send patient to the emergency room right away

Question 552

57. A 65-year-old with breast cancer underwent a surgical removal of the mass followed by 12 weeks of chemotherapy and 8 weeks of radiation. PT program is directed towards mobilization of her upper extremity. An important guideline to the PT when treating a patient after radiation is _____.
    a. avoid stretching exercises that pull on the radiated site
    b. observe infection control procedures
    c. avoid all aerobic exercises for at least 2 months
    d. observe skin care precautions

Answer 552

d. observe skin care precautions

Question 553

66. To reduce inflammation of the tracheobronchial mucosa in asthma, COPD and sarcoidosis, steroids are often prescribed. Which of these is not a side effect of steroid therapy?
    a. Increased susceptibility to notion
    b. decrease in BP
    c. tachycardia
    d. osteoporosis

Answer 553

b. decrease in BP

Question 554

90. This is a test for epicondylitis where patient is positioned in sitting. The therapist palpates the lateral epicondyle, pronates the patient’s forearm, flexes the wrist and extends the elbow. A positive test is indicated by pain in the lateral epicondyle region and may be indicative of lateral epicondylitis.
    a. Mill’s
    b. Lateral epicondylitis test
    c. Medial epicondylitis test
    d. Cozen’s

Answer 554

a. Mill’s

Question 555

101. A patient 4 months post total knee replacement is referred for ROM and strengthening exercises. Which strategy would NOT be appropriate for the patient?
     a. active strengthening using the contract-relax technique (*originally stretching)
     b. exercise on a stationary bicycle against mild resistance
     c. joint mobility to increase joint play
     d. performing straight leg raising, short arc extension and knee flexion exercise using light weights

Answer 555

c. joint mobility to increase joint play

Question 556

104. A PT is conducting a pre-operative training for a patient scheduled for repair of a large rotator cuff tear. Patient is a 56-year-old bank executive and he wants to know how long before he can resume his former recreational activities such as golf and badminton. The MOST appropriate time frame is ____ weeks.
     a. 24 – 28
     b. 6 – 8
     c. 12—14
     d. 36 – 40

Answer 556

a. 24 – 28

6-8 strength and conditioning
12-14 task specific training
36-40 back to normal

Question 557

115. Your patient with Parkinson’s disease was prescribed levodopa. The side effects of the drug are the following EXCEPT
     a. arrhythmias
     b. gastrointestinal distress
     c. orthostatic hypotension
     d. impaired visual accommodation

Answer 557

d. impaired visual accommodation

Question 558

118. A PT observes an electrocardiogram of a patient on beta-blockers. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes could be facilitated by beta-blockers?
     a. premature ventricular contractions
     b. sinus bradycardia
     c. ST segment sagging
     d. sinus tachycardia

Answer 558

b. sinus bradycardia

Question 559

121. A patient is on immune suppressants following renal transplantation was referred to the clinic for mobility training using crutches. Initial evaluation revealed paresthesia in both lower extremities with peripheral weakness in both hands and feet. PT suspects that patient is MOST LIKELY experiencing
     a. leukopenia
     b. peripheral neuropathy
     c. myopathy
     d. quadriparesis

Answer 559

b. peripheral neuropathy

Question 560

123. A PT working in the provincial hospital was asked to cover an interscholastic football league competition. During a game, a player is knocked down on the field. The PT rushed to the scene and determines that the player is unconscious. What should be the NEXT action of the PT?
     a. Proceed to give mouth to mouth resuscitation check for shock
     b. Start with the head and determine first if there is any bleeding or fluid coming from the nose, ears, eyes, or mouth
     c. Check the carotid pulse for a heart beat
     d. Check breathing and if it is impaired, clear the airway, and if necessary

Answer 560

d. Check breathing and if it is impaired, clear the airway, and if necessary

Question 561

131. Postural drainage is prescribed to a patient with cystic fibrosis. If the superior segment of the lower lobes are the target areas, how will PT proceed?
     a. patient lies prone, head down, 20 inches foot elevation with pillows under the hips
     b. patient lies supine, head down 20 inches with pillows under the knees
     c. patient lies supine with 2 pillows under hips, bed flat
     d. patient lies supine with pillows under the knees, bed flat

Answer 561

a. patient lies prone, head down, 20 inches foot elevation with pillows under the hips

Question 562

144. The following impairments may result in patients with a lesion in the frontal lobe of the brain EXCEPT
     a. perseveration, in attention
     b. homonymous hemianopsia
     c. contralateral weakness
     d. personality changes, antisocial behavior

Answer 562

b. homonymous hemianopsia

Question 563

147. Patient figured in a traction injury to the anterior division of the brachial plexus. PT expected to see weakness of the elbow flexors, wrist flexors and forearm proration. The PT would also expect to find more weakness in
     a. wrist extension
     b. forearm supination
     c. thumb abduction
     d. lateral rotation or the shoulder

Answer 563

c. thumb abduction

APL - radial (PIN)
APB - median nerve

Question 564

153. An orthopedic surgeon referred a 25-year-old basketball player for instruction to improve strength of his ankle using closed kinematic chain exercises to increase ankle proprioception and reduce risk for ankle sprains. Which of these exercises should be part of your exercise program?
     a. Ankle eversion-inversion exercises using free weights strapped to his ankle
     b. Ankle eversion exercises using theraband resistance while the patient is sitting on the floor with his knee extended
     c. Walking on an inclined plane
     d. Half squats

Answer 564

c. Walking on an inclined plane

Question 565

179. A 60-year-old golfer was referred to PT for a sacroiliac joint pain. In your evaluation, you plan to include a Gillet’s test. Which of these methods describe how test is carried out?
     a. Patient in supine with correct trunk alignment, pelvis and lower limbs. You stand at edge of table by patient’s feet palpating medial malleolus to assess asymmetry. Have patient come to long sitting position and assess the leg length.
     b. Place thumb of your hand under PSIS of limb to be tested and place your other thumb on center sacrum at same level as thumb under PSIS. Ask patient to extend hip of limb being tested.
     c. Patient is sidelying at edge of bed while holding bottom leg in maximal hip and knee flexion (knee to chest). Standing behind patient passively extend hip of uppermost limb.
     d. Patient is standing. Place thumb of your hand under PSIS of limb to be tested and place your other thumb on center of sacrum at same level as thumb under PSIS. Ask patient to flex hip and knee of limb tested like bringing knee to chest

Answer 565

d. Patient is standing. Place thumb of your hand under PSIS of limb to be tested and place your other thumb on center of sacrum at same level as thumb under PSIS. Ask patient to flex hip and knee of limb tested like bringing knee to chest

Question 566

181. In a person with normal balance, the fastest sensory system to provide balance information is the:
     a. Visual system
     b. Vestibular system
     c. Somatosensory system
     d. All 3 systems are equally fast

Answer 566

c. Somatosensory system

Question 567

186. A stage of sprain injury with symptoms that include moderate pain swelling, minimal instability of the joint, minimal to moderate tearing of the ligament and decreased range of motion (LESTER)
     a. Grade 3
     b. Grade 4
     c. Grade 2
     d. Grade 1

Answer 567

c. Grade 2

Question 568

A PT is prescribing a wheelchair for his 68-year-old patient who is 5 ft. 7 inches tall. The MOST useful feature to include in the prescription is
a. desk armrests
b. a 20 in. seat height
c. a 17.5 in. seat height
d. elevating leg rests

Answer 568

c. a 17.5 in. seat height

Question 569

194. A deep thickness burn is expected to heal if there is no infection in _________ days.
     a. 21 – 35
     b. 36 - 42
     c. 2 – 5
     d. 7 – 21

Answer 569

a. 21 – 35

Question 570

196. The following are considerations when treating a patient with bronchogenic carcinoma, EXCEPT:
     a. ecchymosis in patients with low platelet count
     b. possible fractures from thoracic bone metastasis
     c. pneumonia may develop because of a completely obstructed bronchus
     d. change in skin color

Answer 570

d. change in skin color

Question 571

When treating a patient who has ankylosing spondylitis, which of the following muscles require the MOST emphasis in strengthening exercises?

A. Pectorals
B. Hip flexors
C. Abdominals
D. Back extensors

Answer 571

D. Back extensors

Question 572

A client with rheumatoid arthritis presents at the physical therapy clinic with severe whiplash from a motor vehicle accident 1 week ago. Initial cervical radiograph results revealed osseous structures appeared intact. The client’s chief complaints are of cervical pain and sudden falls with loss of consciousness. Examination reveals a positive Romber sign and hyperreflexia. The PT’s INITIAL action is to:

A. Immediately inform the referring physician and recommend a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan
B. Fit this client with a hard cervical collar and contact the referring physician recommending a computed tomography (CT) scan
C. Perform a test for transverse ligament laxity
D. Immediately inform the referring physician and recommend another series of radiographs

Answer 572

B. Fit this client with a hard cervical collar and contact the referring physician recommending a computed tomography (CT) scan

MRI would miss a fracture

Question 573

The physical therapy supervisor believed the therapists in the department lacked initiative and did not have self-discipline in control. His management style therefore is

A. Theory X
B. Theory Y
C. Theory Z
D. Theory XYZ

Answer 573

A. Theory X

Question 574

A patient has limited right rotation caused by left thoracic facet joint capsular tightness at T6-7, what arthrokinematic glide would MOST effectively improve right rotation in sitting?

A. Superior and anterior glide on the right T7 transverse process.
B. Superior and anterior glide on the left T7 transverse process.
C. Superior and anterior glide on the left T6 transverse process.
D. Superior and anterior glide on the right T6 transverse process.

Answer 574

C. Superior and anterior glide on the left T6 transverse process.

Question 575

A physical therapist is working on transfers with a patient who had a brainstem cerebrovascular accident. The patient has ataxia in all four extremities and a high level of extensor tone in the lower extremities. The patient has fair to good trunk control. Which of the following transfers is BEST for this patient?

A. Squat pivot
B. Sliding board
C. Standing pivot
D. Dependent tuck

Answer 575

A. Squat pivot

prevents lower extremity ext tone

Question 576

IRR vs UV pigmentation

Answer 576

IRR mottled
UV slightly red pigmentation

Question 577

A patient had knee surgery 4 weeks ago. Which of the following neuromuscular electrical stimulation parameters would be MOST appropriate to use for strengthening the patient’s quadriceps muscle?

A. 1 to 4 pps, 100 microseconds
B. 1 to 4 pps, 350 microseconds
C. 40 to 50 pps, 350 microseconds
D. 100 pps, 100 microseconds

Answer 577

C. 40 to 50 pps, 350 microseconds

1-4 pps tetany, but no ms contraction
100pps rapid fatigue

Question 578

A supracondylar fracture of the humerus would most likely cause a peripheral nerve injury involving

A. Axillary nerve
B. Radial nerve
C. Median nerve
D. Musculocutaneous nerve

Answer 578

C. Median nerve

Question 579

An involucrum is

A. Sheath of new bone
B. Pyogenic lesion of a joint
C. Condition caused by premature closure of an epiphysis
D. Tumor metastasis to bone

Answer 579

A. Sheath of new bone

Question 580

An elevated lesion of skin or mucous membrane that penetrates into the underlying tissues. It is less than 1 cm in its greatest diameter

A. Macule
B. Papule
C. Nodule
D. Bulla

Answer 580

C. Nodule

Question 580

When considering special tests for orthopedic assessment of a client, the validity of a test is important because the:

A. results of the test can be standardized
B. results of the test are reproducible
C. test measures what it is supposed to measure
D. test can be accurately performed by someone else

Answer 580

C. test measures what it is supposed to measure

B. and D. are reliability

Question 581

All of the following are manifestations of atopic dermatitis EXCEPT

A. Bronchial asthma
B. Allergic eczematous
C. Allergic rhinitis
D. Hay fever

Answer 581

B. Allergic eczematous

Question 582

Wavelength of short ultraviolet radiation is

A. 700-1500 mµ
B. 1600-12,000 mµ
C. 180-290 mµ
D. 0.1-3 mm

Question 583

The concept of current dosage in iontophoresis refers to the

A. Current density as determined by the size of the delivery electrode
B. Current amplitude (intensity) multiplied by treatment time
C. Current polarity in relation to the medication’s polarity
D. Difference between the phase charge and the treatment time

Answer 583

B. Current amplitude (intensity) multiplied by treatment time

Question 584

Which of the following benzodiazepine medications is most properly indicated for outpatient-based treatment of convulsive disorders?

A. Xanax
B. Klonopin
C. Valium
D. Dalmane

Answer 584

B. Klonopin

Question 585

ER status epilepticus drug
A. Xanax
B. Klonopin
C. Valium
D. Dalmane

Answer 585

C. Valium

Question 586

The translatoric gliding mobilization technique attempts to follow

A. Parallel joint surfaces
B. Oblique joint surfaces
C. Parallel treatment plane
D. Articular surfaces

Answer 586

C. Parallel treatment plane

Question 587

A physical therapist is examining the integumentary system of a patient with dark skin pigmentation and notices a deepening of the skin color over the left posterior aspect of the calcaneus. Which of the following findings would indicate a Stage I pressure ulcer at that site?

A. Increased skin temperature, compared to the surrounding tissue
B. Blanching with applied pressure that returns to previous coloring within 30 seconds after the removal of pressure
C. Decreased skin temperature, compared to the surrounding tissue
D. Blanching with applied pressure that returns to previous coloring 1 hour after the removal of pressure

Answer 587

C. Decreased skin temperature, compared to the surrounding tissue

The onset of a Stage I pressure ulcer is characterized by nonblanching erythema and decreased skin temperature over the site of the ulcer. Because blanching is difficult to ascertain in patients with dark skin, use of skin temperature for assessment of pressure ulcers is preferred.

Question 588

Which of the following joint mobilizations would be MOST effective for improving a patient’s ability to progress into terminal stance?

A. Posterior glide of the talus on the tibia
B. Posterior glide of the calcaneus on the talus
C. Plantar glide of the 1st proximal phalanx on the metatarsal
D. Dorsal glide of the 1st proximal phalanx on the metatarsal

Answer 588

D. Dorsal glide of the 1st proximal phalanx on the metatarsal

Question 589

osteitis deformans

Answer 589

paget’s

Question 590

A physical therapy note states: “A patient ambulates independently with crutches on level surfaces and on stairs. The patient lacks endurance to walk up more than one floor at a time; however, this should increase with practice. The patient says he lives on the fourth floor and there is no elevator. Will work to increase endurance prior to discharge.” In the SOAP format, the “A” of the note is:

A. will work to increase endurance
B. patient lives on the fourth floor with no elevator
C. patient ambulates independently with crutches
D. endurance should increase with practice

Answer 590

D. endurance should increase with practice

Question 591

primary degeneration of the pyramidal tracts

A. huntington’s chorea
B. jacksonian epilepsy
C. alzheimer’s disease
D. multiple sclerosis
E. motor neuron disease

Answer 591

E. motor neuron disease

Question 592

MCP hyperextension and MTP flexion degrees

Answer 592

MCP hyperext: 0-30
MTP flexion: 30-45

Question 593

The following statements are true, EXCEPT:
a. Abnormal range for acid-base balance is + or 0.5 from the normal pH of 7.4
b. Paralysis may develop if calcium concentration falls to less than 1/3 of the normal
c. Tetanic concentration of muscles may develop if calcium ion concentration falls below 1/2 the normal due to spontaneous generation of nerve impulses in the peripheral nerve
d. A 6 to 7 degree temperature increase above normal may lead to increased cellular metabolism that destroys cells

Answer 593

b. Paralysis may develop if calcium concentration falls to less than 1/3 of the normal

paralysis if potassium falls

Question 594

Which of the following statements about the Gluteus Maximus is true?
a. It is a rotator of the extended thigh though it losses power if the thigh is flexed
b. All of these
c. None of these
d. It is an extensor of the hip but is used only
when the joint has to be extended with power

Answer 594

b. All of these

Question 595

Nerve supply to the intrinsic muscle of the larynx are branches from:
A. Accessory nerve
b. Vagus nerve
c. Hypoglossal nerve
d. Glossopharyngeal nerve

Answer 595

b. Vagus nerve

Question 596

Resting cell membrane:
a. More permeable to K than Na
b. More permeable to Na than K
c. Not permeable to Na and K
d. Equally permeable to Na and K

Answer 596

a. More permeable to K than Na

Question 597

The Radial Nerve innervates the following muscles, EXCEPT:
a. Extensor Indicis Propius
b. Abductor Pollicis Brevis
c. Extensor Digitorum
d. Two radial Lumbricals

Answer 597

b. Abductor Pollicis Brevis
d. Two radial Lumbricals

Question 598

A sudden increase in the membrane potential in a large nerve will cause the development of
the action potential. This is termed as:
a. Positive feedback
b. None of these
c. Threshold for stimulation
d. Propagation of the action potential

Answer 598

c. Threshold for stimulation

Question 599

This matrix is composed of intracellular constituents where myofibrils are suspended inside
the muscle fiber:
a. Sarcoplasm
b. Z disk
c. Sarcolemma
d. A band

Answer 599

a. Sarcoplasm

Question 600

A lesion of the supramarginal gyrus of the dominant parietal lobe resulting in the subject’s
inability to do what he on she wants to do:
a. Kinetic apraxia
b. Ideational apraxia
c. Ideomotor apraxia
d. Gait apraxia

Answer 600

c. Ideomotor apraxia

supramarginal gyrus = ideomotor apraxia

Question 601

This ligament supports the head of the talus, and when over-stretched will reduce the
amount of longitudinal are resulting in flatfoot deformity:
a. Calcaneonavicular ligament
b. Deltoid ligament
c. Calcaneofibular ligament
d. Talofibular ligament

Answer 601

a. Calcaneonavicular ligament

PlaCaNA = spring = plantar calcaneonavicular ligament

Question 602

The Ulnar Nerve innervates the following muscles, EXCEPT:
a. Adductor Pollicis
b. Palmaris Longus
c. All Hypothenar
d. All interossei

Answer 602

b. Palmaris Longus

median N

Question 603

The only tarsal bone with no muscle attachment:
a. Cuboid
b. Talus
c. Navicular
d. Calcaneus

Answer 603

b. Talus

Question 604

This muscle draws the mandible forward and toward the midline:
a. Pterygoid
b. Temporalis
c. Masseter
d. Orbicularis oris

Answer 604

a. Pterygoid

pterygoid - protrusion
temporalis - retrusion

Question 605

The vagal system includes the following, EXCEPT:
a. VI cranial nerve
b. Cranial portion of XI cranial nerve
c. IX cranial nerve
d. X cranial nerve

Answer 605

a. VI cranial nerve

Question 606

kehr’s sign

Answer 606

L shoulder pain d/t spleen rupture

Question 607

The Size Principles of Recruitment is best described as follows:
a. The smallest motor neurons are the first recruited and the largest motor neurons are never recruited
b. None of these
c. The largest motor neurons are the first recruited and the smallest motor neurons are recruited last
d. The smallest motor neurons are the first recruited and the largest motor neurons are recruited last

Answer 607

d. The smallest motor neurons are the first recruited and the largest motor neurons are recruited last

Question 608

The following statements are true of the hip joints, EXCEPT:
a. There is a slight iliacus activity when standing at ease
b. Subjects with bilateral KAFC are supported at the hips by the iliofemoral ligaments when standing
c. Collapse at the hip is likely in subjects with bilateral lower extremity paralysis when the center of gravity of HAT moves behind the hip axis
d. Backward tilting the pelvis to decrease the lumbar curve could cause an artificial knee to buckle

Answer 608

c. Collapse at the hip is likely in subjects with bilateral lower extremity paralysis when the center of gravity of HAT moves behind the hip axis

Question 609

This terms refers to the use of sensory input from receptors in muscle spindles, tendons and joints to discriminate joint position, and joint movement, including direction, amplitude and speed, and relative tension with tendons:
a. All of these
b. Kinesthesia
c. none of these
d. Proprioception

Answer 609

d. Proprioception

Question 610

May result from lesion in the dominant parietal lobe of the corpus callosum in which the
subject fails to carry out sequences of acts even if individual movements are correct:
a. Ideomotor apraxia
b. Kinetic apraxia
c. Gait apraxia
d. Ideational apraxia

Answer 610

d. Ideational apraxia

can do separate tasks but not whole

kinetic - inability to perform fine, coordinated, sequenced movement

Question 611

When the first metacarpal rotates on the trapezium to place the thumb against the fingers,
this motion is called:
a. Adduction
b. None of these
c. Opposition
d. Abduction

Answer 611

c. Opposition

Question 612

This type of joint is formed by the talus and tibia:
a. Pivot
b. Saddle
c. Hinge
d. Ball and Socket

Answer 612

c. Hinge

Question 613

Factors responsible to maintain a potential difference across the cell membrane:
a. None of these
b. Cell can actively move ions across the membrane to maintain a required resting potential
c. Cell membrane is relatively permeable to certain ions
d. Both of these

Answer 613

b. Cell can actively move ions across the membrane to maintain a required resting potential

cell membrane is relatively impermeable to certain ions

Question 615

In ulnar nerve paralysis, the following happens, EXCEPT:
a. The hypothenar group does not function
b. The 4th and 5th digits cannot be extended due to the absence of intrinsic muscles
c. Abduction and adduction of all digits are not affected
d. The extensor digitorum is capable of extending the IP joints if the MCP joints are stabilized in a flexed position.

Answer 615

c. Abduction and adduction of all digits are not affected

palmar and dorsal interossei = abd add

Question 616

This muscle is a powerful adductor of the arm and a medial rotator. The clavicular head flexes the shoulder joint, and from this position the sterna head extends the shoulder joint:
a. None of these
b. Latissimus Dorsi
c. Pectoralis Minor
d. Pectoralis Major

Answer 616

d. Pectoralis Major

Question 617

This opening is a triangular-shaped defect in the external oblique aponeurosis that lies
above and medial to the public tubercle:
a. Cremasteric Ring
b. Superficial Inguinal Ring
c. Femoral Ring
d. External Spermatic Fascia

Answer 617

b. Superficial Inguinal Ring

Question 618

Since terminal knee extension requires sacral rotation of the tibia on the femur, initiation of knee flexion requires the reverse action of medial rotation of the tibia on the femur. This action is performed by:
a. Popliteus
b. Semitendinosus
c. Articularis Genu
d. Plantaris

Answer 618

a. Popliteus

Question 619

Following is true of myostatic reflex:
a. Capable of increasing tension for postural muscle tone
b. Basic neural mechanism for maintaining tone in muscle
c. Results from inputs to motor neuron pools form groups I and II
D. AOTA

Answer 619

D. AOTA

Question 620

This ligament of the vertebral column is a series of 23 intersegmental ligaments that
connect the lamina of two adjacent vertebrae from C-2 to the sacrum:
a. Supraspinous ligament
b. Intertransverse ligament
c. Ligamentum flavum
d. Interspinous ligament

Answer 620

c. Ligamentum flavum

Question 621

On the medial side of the foot, just distal to the tip of the medial malleolus, this slight
protuberance may be felt:
a. Sustentaculum Tali
b. First Cuneiform
c. Tuberosity of the Navicular
d. Medial tubercle of the Talus

Answer 621

a. Sustentaculum Tali

Question 622

Occlusion of the posterolateral thalamic branches in the thalamic syndrome may result
in the following, EXCEPT:
a. Partial to complete loss of sensation on the same side of the body
b. Severe, burning, constant pain in the regions with limited sensation
c. Cerebellar ataxia and tremor may be produced in the extremities of the opposite side
d. Sensations of touch, pain and temperature are decreased in the affected limbs

Answer 622

a. Partial to complete loss of sensation on the same side of the body

Question 623

In order not to allow side to side play, the sides of the body of the talus are grasped by
these bony flanges:
a. None of these
b. All of these
c. Talocalcaneonavicular joint
d. Medial and lateral malleolus

Answer 623

d. Medial and lateral malleolus

Question 624

In voltage gating, when there is a strong negative charge on the inside of the cell
membrane; the sodium gates remain tightly closed:
a. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
b. Both statements are false
c. Both statements are true
d. The second statements is true, the first statements is false

Answer 624

c. Both statements are true

Question 625

Characteristic of isometric contraction:
a. All of these
b. Performs work
c. Change in muscle tension
d. Change in muscle length

Answer 625

c. Change in muscle tension

no change in distance = no work

Question 626

During mid-stance to terminal stance, the quadriceps perform the following activity:
a. Stabilizes the knee to control swing of the opposite leg
b. Contract eccentrically
c. No required activity
d. Undergo a fast lengthening to stabilized the knee joint

Answer 626

c. No required activity

Question 627

security of ankle jt is a result of an immobile act not rigid union of the ff. jt:

A. inferior tibiofibular joint
B. subtalar joint
C. superior tibiofibular joint
D. calcaneocuboid jt

Answer 627

A. inferior tibiofibular joint

Question 628

the ff statements describe the factors affecting a cell’s rate of diffusion in one direction EXCEPT:

A. difference in pressure across a membrane
B. in ions, the difference in chemical potential between 2 sides of the membrane
C. Permeability and area of the membrane
D. difference in concentration of the diffusing substance between 2 sides of the membrane

Answer 628

B. in ions, the difference in chemical potential between 2 sides of the membrane

ions = electrical potential

Question 629

which of the ff. events are required for the mechanical linkages bet actin and myosin to produce ms contraction?
A. NOTA
B. chemical reaction to provide energy of active tension
C. Both
D. A specific stimulus to trigger the coupling of the 2 filaments

Answer 629

C. Both

Question 630

The ff. statements apply to genu valgum except:

A. abnormalities in calcium metabolism may stimulate this problem
B. Although usually bilateral, it may occur unilaterally
C. Has strong familial tendency and may also be exaggerated by individual traits
D. An angular deformity of the leg in which ankles are separated when knees are in contact
E. May be associated with recurrent dislocation of the patella because of increased medial force on the patella

Answer 630

E. May be associated with recurrent dislocation of the patella because of increased medial force on the patella

Question 631

In flexing the knees and hips and dorsiflexing the ankles, objects may be lifted from the floor. The ff positions of the pelvis and vertebrae are used:

A. post tilt of pelvis c kyphotic position of vert.
B. APT c lordotic position of lumbar spine
C. Both
D. NOTA

Answer 631

C. Both

Question 632

The following statements are true of arthroscopy, EXCEPT:

A. particularly useful in dx-ing conditions (i.e., meniscal d/o and cruciate lig injuries)
B. most useful in dx-ing conditions of post and middle third of med meniscus
C. CI for pt.s c bleeding d/o
D. both a diagnostic procedure and tx and involves very little knee trauma
E. visual examination of jt interior using a fiberoptic lens instrument attached to a light source

Answer 632

C. CI for pt.s c bleeding d/o

Question 632

The spinal cord tapers at the level of the lower border of the 1st lumbar vertebra called
a. Filum terminale
b. Coccyx
c. Conus medullaris
d. Coccygium finale
e. Cauda equine

Answer 632

c. Conus medullaris

Question 633

In a pedal meniscus injury, the ff conditions apply, EXCEPT:

A. Responsible for condition known as “locked knee”
B. Complete extension of the knee joint may be prevented if the torn port of the cartilage between the joint surfaces
C. There may be loosening of the cartilage at its central attachment
D. Lesion may cause a transverse tear through the cartilage
E. Usually caused by sudden internal rotation of the femur upon the fixed tibia, accompanied by abduction and flexion of the knee

Answer 633

C. There may be loosening of the cartilage at its central attachment

loosening at peripheral attachment

Question 633

The ff statements can be applied to the scalenes, EXCEPT:

A. extends the cervical spine
B. produce lateral flexion and rotation to the same side with unilateral contraction
C. Increase cervical lordotic posture with bilateral contraction in the absence of longus colli
D. elevate the first and second ribs when the cervical spine is stabilized
D.

Answer 633

A. extends the cervical spine
scalenes: neck flexion

Question 634

skin traction weight limit

Answer 634

if more than 10 lbs = skeletal traction

Question 635

afferent component of ms stretch reflex that provides CNS info about length and rate of change in length of striated muscles
A. extrafusal fiber
B. muscle spindle
C. intrafusal fiber
D. NOTA

Answer 635

B. muscle spindle

muscle spindle- aff
intrafusal fiber - eff

Question 636

pt. cant support full weight on either of his legs, which gait pattern?

Answer 636

4-point

4- or 2-point but 4 point has decreased demand on coordination

Question 637

instability with tear of arcuate complex. Result of adduction stress test is positive at 30deg of flexion. As is the result of the external rotation-recurvatum test, lateral tibial condyle has posterior subluxation in this instability:

A. posterolateral instability
B. combined anterolateral and anteromedial instability
C. None of these
D. anterolateral instability
E. anteromedial instability

Answer 637

A. posterolateral instability

Question 639

“Motor neuron disease” is a rather broad term applied to disorders characterized by the following, EXCEPT:
a. Fasciculation are common and are often found generally before diffuse atrophy is evident.
b. These are painless disorders except for muscle cramping, and there are no sensory deficits.
c. Onset is often symmetric, with wasting of a hand, arm of shoulder girdle.
d. Bulbar involvement may occur early or later and leads to fatal respiratory complications.
e. Signs of progressive motor neuron loss with or without the paresis and spasticity of corticospinal tract degeneration.

Answer 639

c. Onset is often symmetric, with wasting of a hand, arm of shoulder girdle.

asymmetric

Question 640

The following statements are true of the collateral ligaments, EXCEPT:
a. Lateral collateral ligament connects the femur and the fibula
b. These ligaments may be easily injured when force is applied to the knee while a person’s leg is extended with his foot
firmly planted on the ground.
c. Medial collateral ligament connects the femur to the tibia.
d. Prevent side-to-side movement by tightening during leg extension
e. The collateral ligaments can tear when the femur is externally rotated on the tibia

Answer 640

e. The collateral ligaments can tear when the femur is externally rotated on the tibia

FIR TER - taut collateral
FER TIR - taut cruciate

Question 641

Nonunion may occur with internal fixation. When this happens, the bone fragments may be stimulated with electrical
current. Which of the following statements does not apply?
a. The electrodes may be implanted either by open incision or percutaneously, using a hand drill
b. The electricity applied either through magnetic coils placed on the skin at the fracture site, or through implanted
electrodes
c. Electrical bone stimulation substitutes for normal piezoelectric effect, in which mechanical stress on a solid object
induces electrical activity
d. A weak current of 20 microamperes is transmitted, because higher level would cause tissue necrosis and a lower level
could fail to stimulate osteogenesis
e. In alternating current stimulation of the bone, electronegativity appear to have the same osteoblastic simulating effect

Answer 641

e. In alternating current stimulation of the bone, electronegativity appear to have the same osteoblastic simulating effect

osteoblastic effect c direct current

Question 642

25. This test flexes the knee into full extension and passively allows it to extend completely with a sharp and point. It is designed to evaluate a lack of full knee extension, most often secondary to a torn meniscus, or an intracapsular joint swelling.
    a. Distraction Test
    b. Apprehension test
    c. McMurray Test
    d. “Bounce Home” Test

Answer 642

d. “Bounce Home” Test

Question 643

The following structures pass between the malleoli, EXCEPT:
a. Extensor digitorum longus tendon
b. Extensor hallucis longus tendon
c. Tibialis anterior tendon
d. Posterior tibial artery and tibial nerve
e. Dorsal pedal artery

Answer 643

d. Posterior tibial artery and tibial nerve

Question 644

The following are true of the femoral triangle, EXCEPT:
a. Defined superiorly by the inguinal crease
b. Defined posteriorly by the Sartorius muscle ridge
c. Defined medially by adductor longus muscle
d. With the subject in supine, the soft tissues of the triangle is best examined with the heel of the leg being examined
resting upon the opposite knee.
e. The floor is formed by portions of the adductor longus, the pectineus and the iliopsoas muscles

Answer 644

b. Defined posteriorly by the Sartorius muscle ridge

laterally by sartorius

Question 645

Hemiplegia or hemiparesis is perhaps the most common physical manifestation of the disease of the brain. The following
conditions describe hemiplegia, EXCEPT:
a. Subjects may suffer severe hemisensory losses and hemianopsia
b. Bilateral mild hemiparesis may pass unnoticed unless Babinski sign is present on both side
c. Due in largest part to the vulnerability of the cortex and its radiations the lesions of vascular disease
d. Ipsilateral weakness can result even when there is no immediate impingement of the motor cortex and its descending radiations
e. Babinski sign is commonly present but the tendon reflexes may be absent, equal to those of the other side or exaggerated

Answer 645

d. Ipsilateral weakness can result even when there is no immediate impingement of the motor cortex and its descending radiations

Question 646

The following statements apply to osteomyelitis, EXCEPT:
a. This infection may occur when phylogenic bacteria invade the patient’s injured bone or soft tissue surroundings the bone
b. The intramedullary abscess generally forms at the tip of a long bone where it exerts pressure inside the bone
c. Accompanied by lowered ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate), leukocytosis, and presence of causative organism in wound or blood culture
d. Occasionally, the new bone will surround the sequestrum completely in an attempt to heal the area, detaching the sequestrum completely and requires surgical removal

Answer 646

c. Accompanied by lowered ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate), leukocytosis, and presence of causative organism in wound or blood culture

inflammation = higher ESR

Question 647

Signs of meningeal irritation include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Kernig sign is elicited when stretching of the lumbar roots consequent to extension of the leg on the thigh produces
painful limitation of this movement
b. The best sign is a demonstration of stiffness of the neck on flexion, usually accompanied by fever
c. In severe meningitis, there may even be a rigid hyper-extension of the neck and back, but generally, it does not limit
lateral rotation of the neck
d. Probably based on a heightened sensitivity of irritated sensory roots to stretching
e. Brudzinski sign is absent when flexion of the knees follows as attempt to flex the neck

Answer 647

e. Brudzinski sign is absent when flexion of the knees follows as attempt to flex the neck

is present/positive

Question 648

In-hospital postoperative care in acute knee instability repair include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Cast change usually on the 5th postoperative day
b. Cast immobilization of the knee at about 60 degrees of flexion
c. Toe-touch weight bearing crutch walking as tolerated
d. Non-weight bearing crutch walking
e. Ankle ROM, quadriceps, femoris muscle setting exercises progressing to straight-leg raising exercises

Answer 648

c. Toe-touch weight bearing crutch walking as tolerated

10wks post op before TTWB is performed

Question 649

The axilla is a quadrilateral pyramidal structure through which vessels and nerves pass to the upper extremity. The
following statements apply to the axilla, EXCEPT:
a. The apex permit the entry of the brachial plexus and axillary artery
b. The medial wall is bound by ribs two to six and the overlaying serratus anterior
c. The anterior and posterior wall can be palpated when the arm is abducted and extended
d. The anterior wall is formed by the pectoralis major and the posterior by the latissimus dorsi
e. The lateral wall is defined by the bicipital groove of the humerus

Answer 649

c. The anterior and posterior wall can be palpated when the arm is abducted and extended

abducted only

Question 650

In the knee, excessive normal forces resulting in overuse syndrome can be caused by the following, EXCEPT:
a. High repetition, high load
b. Low repetition, high load
c. Activity level is greater than the possible physiological repair
d. Poor conditioning
e. Small biomechanical dysfunction that become magnified with high-performance activities

Answer 650

a. High repetition, high load

high rep, low load
low rep, high load

Question 651

Which crutch-walking technique would you choose for patients with leg muscle weakness or spasticity, poor muscular coordination or balance, degenerative leg joint disease, or bilateral prosthesis?
a. Swing-through three-point gait
b. Four-point gait
c. Three-point-and-one-gait (partial-weight-bearing)
d. Three-point-gait (non-weight-bearing)
e. Two-point gait

Answer 651

b. Four-point gait

Question 652

The following statements characterize Moro reflex, EXCEPT:
a. Absence of the response in the neonate definitely indicates brain disease
b. It is normally present from birth until age 3-4 months
c. Loss of the reflex previously present is one of the early signs Kernicterus
d. Is indicative of a significant cerebral disorder if present beyond six months

Answer 652

a. Absence of the response in the neonate definitely indicates brain disease

not necessarily brain dse; may be AHC problem, upper motor neuron lesion

Question 653

Injury to the tibial collateral, middle one-third medial capsular, and posterior oblique ligaments may be determined by the
following test:
a. Adduction stress test at 45 degrees of flexion and the internal rotation posterior drawer sign
b. Abduction stress test at 15 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign
c. Abduction stress test at 30 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign
d. Abduction stress test at 30 degrees of flexion and the internal rotation anterior drawer sign
e. Adduction stress test at 45 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign

Answer 653

c. Abduction stress test at 30 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign

Question 654

In the venous system:
a. Blood vessels have smaller diameters than their corresponding arteries
b. Mean pressures are higher than in the arterial system
c. Blood vessels have greater compliance
d. All of these are true
e. None of these are true

Answer 654

c. Blood vessels have greater compliance

Question 655

The patellar tendon of the quadriceps femoris attaches distally on this large roughened area which is anterior on the tibia and below the tibial condyles. This palpable structure is:
a. None of these
b. Crest of the tibia
c. Tuberosity of the tibia
d. TIbiofemoral joint line

Answer 655

b. Crest of the tibia

Question 656

Characteristics of Fascioscapulohumeral dystrophy of Landouzy and Dejerine are as follows, EXCEPT:
a. Lordosis is exaggerated
b. It progress quickly, resulting in disability years after onset
c. Atrophy of the face become severe
d. Atrophy and weakness of the shoulder-girdle muscles are prominent
e. Usually appears in the second decade of life and in either sex

Answer 656

b. It progress quickly, resulting in disability years after onset

progresses slowly

Question 656

This instability occurs with a tear of the posterior cruciate ligament and both the medial and lateral capsular ligaments. The results of the anterior test, in which both condyles are subluxed anteriorly an equal amount with no rotation is positive.
a. Anterior instability
b. None of these
c. Posterior Instability
d. Lateral Instability
e. Medial Instability

Answer 656

a. Anterior instability

Question 657

Which statement does not apply to the posterolateral drawer sign?
a. When the tibia is in external rotation, the sign is positive
b. The test is performed in the usual drawer fashion with the knee in 70 to 80 degrees of flexion
c. The tibia is internally or externally rotated as well as being positive in neutral position
d. Confirms a posterolateral rotator instability of the knee
e. The sign is negative if the tibia is in internal rotation because of the intact posterior cruciate ligament

Answer 657

c. The tibia is internally or externally rotated as well as being positive in neutral position

(+) tibia ER
(-) tibia IR

Question 658

117.The following may be observed upon examination of the patient’s lumbar spine, EXCEPT:
a. Soft, doughy lipomata appearing as lumps in the area of the low back may be a sign of spina bifida
b. Any reddened dislocation may indicate infection, and skin markings may denote underlying neurologic or bone
pathology.
c. Pedunculated tumors indicate the presence of neurofibromatosis and are often accompanied by café-u-lait spots which
may impinge upon the spinal cord and nerve roots
d. An unusual patch of hair on the back may be evidence of some body defect in the spine such as a congenital bony bar
e. Gibbus deformity may bone present secondary to a herniated disc

Answer 658

e. Gibbus deformity may bone present secondary to a herniated disc

Question 659

118.Which of the following is true of the Hamstring?
a. All of these
b. None of these
c. They extend the hip and/or flex the knee
d. Rotates the knee joint when the joint is fully extended

Answer 659

c. They extend the hip and/or flex the knee

cannot rotate in full ext.

Question 660

119.This method of bandaging is used to accommodate either increasing or decreasing body part circumstances:
a. Spiral turn
b. Figure-eight turn
c. Circular turn
d. Spiral-reverse turn
e. Recurrent turn

Answer 660

d. Spiral-reverse turn

inc circulation - spiral turn
stump - recurrent turn

Question 661

The forces at the pelvis in bilateral stance is an example of:
a. Second Class Lever
b. Fourth Class Lever
c. First Class Lever
d. Third Class Lever

Answer 661

a. Second Class Lever

Question 662

126.The following statements describe the patella, EXCEPT:
a. Originally only a sesamoid bone in the quadriceps tendon
b. The depth of the patella femoral groove and height of the lateral femoral condyle buttress the patella against lateral
dislocation
c. The medial patellofemoral ligaments helps prevent its medial displacement
d. The chief active stabilizer is the vastus medialis oblique (VMO) muscle
e. Passive stabilization is provided by the bony contours of the femoral sulcus and the configuration of the patella as well
as by thickenings of the capsule

Answer 662

c. The medial patellofemoral ligaments helps prevent its medial displacement

Question 663

The cortex is not smooth but is thrown into folds and furrows that markedly increase the total surface area without
demanding greater brain volume. Each fold or grounded elevation is known as:
a. Sulcus
b. Hemisphere
c. Gyrus
d. Lobe

Answer 663

c. Gyrus

Question 664

Following are example of Force Couple, EXCEPT:
a. Abduction at the glenohumeral joint from the deltoid and supraspinatus contracting together
b. None of these
c. Abduction and upward rotation of the scapula from the combined forces of the trapezius, serratus anterior
d. All of these

Answer 664

b. None of these

EXCEPT.

Question 665

133.Which crutch-walking technique would you choose for patients with spina bifida, paraplegia or myelomeningocele?
a. Two-point gait
b. Four-point gait
c. Swing-through three-point gait
d. Three-point-gait (non-weight-bearing)
e. Three-point-and-one-gait (partial-weight-bearing)

Answer 665

c. Swing-through three-point gait

Question 666

137.This crease lies at the base of the fingers and marks the location of the proximal pulley.
a. Distal palmar crease
b. Hypothenar crease
c. Proximal interphalangeal crease
d. Thenar crease
e. Proximal palmar crease

Answer 666

e. Proximal palmar crease

Question 667

138.This instability occurs with a disruption of all of the lateral compartment capsular ligaments. The iliotibial band may be
torn. The posterior cruciate ligament remains intact. The result of the adduction test is positive with the knee at 30 degrees of flexion.
a. Combined anterolateral and posterolateral rotatory instability
b. Combines posterolateral and anterolateral rotator instability
c. None of these
d. Combines anterolateral and anteromedial rotatory instability
e. Anterior instability

Answer 667

a. Combined anterolateral and posterolateral rotatory instability

b. Combines posterolateral and anterolateral rotator instability

same answer pero rule of boards

Question 668

140.Which of the following statements is true when testing for rigid or supple flat feet?
a. While standing on feet and seated, if medial longitudinal arch absent in some positions, subject has flat feet. If present and absent only when he stands, flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports.
b. While standing on toes and seated, if medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If arch is absent and present only when he stands, flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports.
c. While standing on toes, if medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If present and absent only when he stands, his flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports.
d. While standing on toes and seated, if the medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If present and absent only when he stands, his flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports
e. While standing on toes and seated, if medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If arch is present and absent only when he stands, flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports

Answer 668

d. While standing on toes and seated, if the medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If present and absent only when he stands, his flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports

Question 669

142.During the Stance Phase of Gait, subject may exhibit the following, EXCEPT:
a. Subjects with weakness of L5 distribution may have an abductor lurch
b. Subject with S1 distribution weakness may have an abductor lurch
c. Subject with muscle weakness of S1 and S2 distribution may have a flat foot with no forceful toe-off
d. Subject with a L2-L4 distribution weakness may walk with a back knee gait to lock their knees in extension

Answer 669

b. Subject with S1 distribution weakness may have an abductor lurch

no toe off

Question 670

147.In polyradiculoneuropathy, the following statements are true, EXCEPT:
a. In acute post infection polyradiculoneuropathies the early weakness may be more evident in the girdle musculature
b. Hands and feet may become quite sensitive and painful to squeezing, slapping and temperature changes
c. Sweating is lost when parasympathetic denervation is complete
d. Signs may be somewhat asymmetric

Answer 670

c. Sweating is lost when parasympathetic denervation is complete

sympa sweating

Question 671

148.The following are characteristics of the lateral collateral ligament of the ankle joint, EXCEPT:
a. The anterior talofibular ligament has a high incidence of sprain because it is the first to undergo stress when the ankle
is inverted and plantar flexed
b. The posterior talofibular ligament is the strongest of the lateral collateral ligaments, and its primary function is prevent
forward slippage of the fibula onto the talus
c. The calcaneofibular ligament stretches plantarward to its insertion into the lateral wall of the calcaneus
d. The peroneous longus and brevis tendons are the primary foot evertors and they assist in plantar flexion
e. In severe ankle sprain, the calcaneofibular ligament may be torn, but only after the anterior talofibular ligament has
also been torn

Answer 671

d. The peroneous longus and brevis tendons are the primary foot evertors and they assist in plantar flexion

di naman sila part ng LCL of the ankle.

Question 672

156.A fracture with cord transaction at the C6 level will produce the following, EXCEPT:
a. The subject is parasympathetic, ileus appears and the urinary bladder distends
b. Breathing is diaphragmatic
c. There is complete sensory loss below the C6 or C7 dermatome
d. An immediate flaccid paralysis of the trunk and extremities sparing some shoulder movement and flexion at the elbows
e. At a later stage, reflexes in this zone will be reduced or absent, whereas those mediated through intact cord segment
below will be hyperreflexic

Answer 672

a. The subject is parasympathetic, ileus appears and the urinary bladder distends

Question 673

169.The following statements apply to the femoral nerve, EXCEPT:
a. Proximal lesions will result in weakness of thigh extension but most prominently loss of knee flexion
b. Sensory distribution include the anteromedial thigh and the anteromedial leg to the foot
c. Most common syndrome involving this nerve is a painful mononeuritis which occurs in diabetics
d. The quadriceps muscle atrophies quickly, the knee jerk is lost early
e. Arises from L1 to L4 spinal roots, and innervates the iliopsoas, Sartorius and quadriceps femoris muscle.

Answer 673

a. Proximal lesions will result in weakness of thigh extension but most prominently loss of knee flexion

hip flexion, knee ext.

Question 674

171.The following statements are true of the ulnar styloid process, EXCEPT:
a. It articulates with the proximal carpal row to take part in wrist articulation
b. It does not extend as far distally and it is more prominent and thicker than its radial counterpart
c. The external carpi ulnaris tendon runs through its groove
d. In the anatomic position, it is both medially and posteriorly located in the wrist
e. It is most easily palpated when the hand is radially deviated and the tendon is contracted

Answer 674

a. It articulates with the proximal carpal row to take part in wrist articulation

radials + proximal carpals =wrist

Question 675

177.Accurate diagnosis forms the cornerstone for any discussion of ligamentous knee problems. The pertinent tests for anteromedial rotatory instability are the:
a. Adduction stress test at 45 degrees of flexion and the internal rotation posterior drawer sign
b. Adduction stress test at 45 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign
c. Abduction stress test at 30 degrees of flexion and the internal rotation posterior drawer sign
d. Abduction stress test at 30 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign
e. None of these

Answer 675

d. Abduction stress test at 30 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign

Question 676

178.The following statements apply to the median nerve, EXCEPT:
a. Sensory loss involves the palmar surface of the hand and fingers
b. These is conspicuous atrophy of the thenar eminence with flattening of the pal
c. Partial injuries are often painful and paresthetic and causalgia may occur
d. Interrupt at the elbow produces weakness of wrist flexion with median deviation
e. Carries fibers from the C6, C7, C8 & T1 roots

Answer 676

d. Interrupt at the elbow produces weakness of wrist flexion with median deviation

ulnar dev ang weakness

Question 677

179.The following characterizes straight anterior knee instability, EXCEPT:
a. Injury is sustained while twisting, decelerating of changing direction
b. May involve external rotation of the tibia with knee flexed
c. May involve forward rotation of the tibia with knee extended or slightly flexed
d. Subject usually hears a pop at the time of injury but still able to continue the activity
e. Gross swelling develops within 12 hours

Answer 677

d. Subject usually hears a pop at the time of injury but still able to continue the activity

CANNOT continue activity

Question 678

191.The following positions describe the examination the reflexes, EXCEPT:
a. With the subject standing, the hands are placed on hips with arms akimbo, tests for the triceps reflex
b. With the subject kneeling, the triceps surae stretch reflex is tested with one hand positioned on the ball of the foot stretching the muscle slightly and tapping quickly and gently
c. With the subject’s feet flat on the floor, hold one hand on the distal thigh and strike the tendon just below patella to test for quadriceps stretch reflex
d. IN the ankle joint, clonus is elicited by briskly but gently dorsiflexing the ankle increasing pressure against the sole
e. Striking the examiner’s thumb on the biceps tendon with the elbow flexed at varied degrees for best response is assumed for biceps stretch reflex

Answer 678

d. IN the ankle joint, clonus is elicited by briskly but gently dorsiflexing the ankle increasing pressure against the sole

maintained pressure!!

Question 679

195.The following statements are true in Reduction Click, EXCEPT:
a. The test is done by flexing the knee while it is rotated both internally and externally, then rotating and flexing the leg until the meniscus slips back and a characteristic “click” is hear
b. This is similar to the McMurray test in that it can also unlock the knee joint and produce the reduction click
c. Applicable to those patients having a locked knee due to a torn, dislocated, or “heaped up” meniscus
d. The test will unlock the knee caused by a torn meniscus and permit full extension
e. The object of the procedure is to reduce the displaced or torn portion of the meniscus by clicking it back into place

Answer 679

a. The test is done by flexing the knee while it is rotated both internally and externally, then rotating and flexing the leg until the meniscus slips back and a characteristic “click” is hear

flex then extend

Question 680

200.The following describes the medial meniscus, EXCEPT:
a. Situated on top of the tibia on the medial plateau
b. Its anterior end attaches to the nonarticular portion of the top of the tibia, in feat of the anterior cruciate ligament
c. Normally there is no specific sulcus between the margin of the meniscus and the joint capsule anywhere along the
medial joint line
d. Has a firm attachment to the top of the tibia and a less firm one to the femur through the coronary ligament
e. The anterior attachment seems to slip under the anterior cruciate ligament, attaching to the bone beneath.

Answer 680

e. The anterior attachment seems to slip under the anterior cruciate ligament, attaching to the bone beneath.

Question 681

What motions should not be stretched early in rehabilitation after an open rotator cuff repair?

A. Horizontal abduction, extension, and internal rotation
B. Horizontal abduction, flexion, and internal rotation
C. Horizontal abduction, extension, and external rotation
D. Horizontal adduction, extension, and internal rotation

Answer 681

D. Horizontal adduction, extension, and internal rotation

Question 682

A 22-year-old male rehabilitating from a motor vehicle accident is referred to physical therapy for galt training. The patient sustained multiple injuries including a fractured tibia and a traction Injury to the brachial plexus. The patient is partial weight bearing and has good upper extremity strength. The MOST appropriate assistive device is:

A. Axillary crutches
B. Walker with platform attachment
C. Loftstrand crutches
D. Cane

Answer 682

C. Loftstrand crutches

Question 683

In a child who has sustained a submersion injury, the physical therapist needs to be aware of neurologic and _______ system changes before initiating treatment.

A. Integumentary
B. Orthopedic
C. Cardiopulmonary
D. Renal

Answer 683

C. Cardiopulmonary

Question 684

Which of the following factors are pathogenetic of the edema resulting from congestive heart failure?

A. Increased blood supply to various organs and tissues
B. Increased excretion of sodium by the kidneys
C. Decreased cardiac output
D. Decreased blood volume and elevated venous pressure

Answer 684

C. Decreased cardiac output

Question 685

A patient with chronic pulmonary dysfunction is placed on a corticosteroid medication to reduce mucosal edema and inflammation. The MOST common cardiovascular side effect of corticosteroids is:

A. Palpitations
B. Increased blood pressure
C. Arrhythmias
D. Tachycardia

Answer 685

B. Increased blood pressure

Question 686

Which hip-repair surgical procedure is indicated for pain in early stages of degenerative joint disease before motion has
been lost?
a. Double-cup arthroplasty
b. Femoral Prosthesis
c. Muscle Release
d. Arthrodesis
e. Displacement Osteotomy

Answer 686

e. Displacement Osteotomy

Question 687

The goal of postural regulation is to stabilize the head with respect to the vertical. The following statements describe this
stabilization concept, EXCEPT:
a. None of these
b. Predetermined response appears to be formed through experience with self-initiated goal-directed activity
c. Motor input is used primarily for “knowledge of response” to make appropriate adjustments in subsequent anticipatory postural actions
d. Geocentric frame of reference enable anticipation or prediction of center of force displacements that are induced by voluntary motion
e. Corrections of head position occur in advance of a voluntary change in body position

Answer 687

c. Motor input is used primarily for “knowledge of response” to make appropriate adjustments in subsequent anticipatory postural actions

sensory input = knowledge of response

Question 688

The following statements characterize flexion in the lumbar spine, EXCEPT:
a. Flexion in the low back produces kyphosis
b. Involves relaxation of the anterior longitudinal ligament and stretching of the supraspinal and interspinal ligaments the
ligamentum flavum and the posterior longitudinal
c. To test, the subject bends as far forward as he can with knees straight, and try to touch the toes
d. There is no reversal of the normal lordosis during flexion, the low back merely flattens out
e. Limited by the size of the vertebral bodies

Answer 688

a. Flexion in the low back produces kyphosis

straightens out

Question 689

Subjects who have menisectiomies follow the following program, EXCEPT:
a. Flexion-to-extension exercises are used when there is a partial ROM with very little swelling or discomfort in or about the knee
b. Resistance is kept low but is raised as the subject becomes able to handle the resistance with good exercise technique
c. Subjects with arthroscopic menisectomies are started on a much more vigorous exercise program much earlier
d. Hamstring stretching exercises and flexion exercises are begun about 10 days after surgery
e. Subjects are allowed to begin straight-leg-raise exercises at day one and progress to about eight sets of 10 repetitions
in a very short period of time

Answer 689

a. Flexion-to-extension exercises are used when there is a partial ROM with very little swelling or discomfort in or about the knee

when there is full ROM

Question 690

This test makes it possible to determine whether or not the radial and ulnar arteries are supplying the hand to their full
capacities:
a. Bunnel-Littler Test
b. Tinel Test
c. None of these
d. Allen test
e. Retinacular test

Answer 690

d. Allen test

Question 691

In lateral epicondylitis, repetitive stress may result in injury to the following muscles:
a. All of these
b. Proximal attachments of the extensor radialis brevis
c. Extensor Carpi Radialis Longus
d. Extensor Digitorum

Answer 691

b. Proximal attachments of the extensor radialis brevis

Question 691

In getting a laminectomy patient out of bed, the following procedures are observed, EXCEPT:
a. Raise herself to a standing position by pushing against the bed with her palm, reminding to keep the back straight and to look straight ahead
b. The incision site need not be splinted
c. Help lower herself slowly into a chair, keeping the back straight; make sure the knees are elevated to hip level or slightly higher to avoid stress on the lumbar spine
d. Raise the head of the bed to low Fowler’s position.
e. Raise herself into sitting position by pushing against the mattress with her upper hand as she swings her legs over the side of the head

Answer 691

c. Help lower herself slowly into a chair, keeping the back straight; make sure the knees are elevated to hip level or slightly higher to avoid stress on the lumbar spine

Question 692

The following statements apply to the ulnar nerve, EXCEPT:
a. Innervates the hypothenar, all interossei, two medial lumbricals, the adductor pollicis and part of the flexor pollicis brevis via its deep palmar branch in the hand
b. Innervates the flexor carpi ulnaris and the flexor digitorum profundus to the 4th and 5th digits in the forearm
c. Carries fibers from the C8 and T1 roots.
d. In early or minimal lesions of the ulnar nerve, there is atrophy of the first dorsal interosseus and sensory loss distally in the fifth digit
e. Paralysis causes the grip to be fairly weak but finger abduction and adduction will be nearly lost

Answer 692

e. Paralysis causes the grip to be fairly weak but finger abduction and adduction will be nearly lost

Question 693

There is a greater frequency of tears of the medial semilunar cartilage, a common athletic injury. This is due to:
a. The medial meniscus which is fixed to the tibia front and back by its two horns as well as around its periphery
b. The posterior cruciate ligament which is attached to the tibia so far back as to allow some of its fibers to arise from the back of the bone below the upper surface.
c. Tightness of the medial coronary ligament of the knee that prevents back-and-forth movements of the medial
d. None of the above

Answer 693

c. Tightness of the medial coronary ligament of the knee that prevents back-and-forth movements of the medial

Question 694

The following muscles arise from the medial epicondyle of the humerus and bounds the medial side of the antecubital fossa:
a. Flexor Carpi Radialis, Palmaris Longus and Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
b. Flexor Digitorum Sublimis, Flexor Digitorum Profundus and Flexor Pollicis Longus
c. None of these
d. Pronator Teres, Palmaris Longus, and Flexor Digitorum Superficialis

Answer 694

a. Flexor Carpi Radialis, Palmaris Longus and Flexor Carpi Ulnaris

arise from the medial epicondyle of the humerus and bounds the medial side of the antecubital fossa

Question 695

Home exercise program following open reduction internal fixation include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Basic ROM and strengthening exercises to prevent contracture and reduce atrophy while non ambulatory
b. Subject’s full weight bearing status may be achieved at 3 months post surgery
c. Subjects perform isometric exercises, ROM exercises, and upper extremity exercise until fatigued
d. Even as pain increases or weakness develops, full active ROM must be performed
e. Resistive exercises are encouraged with the lower extremities because of the subject’s non-weight bearing status

Answer 695

e. Resistive exercises are encouraged with the lower extremities because of the subject’s non-weight bearing status

DO NOT give resistive

Question 696

The following statements are true of the primary dorsiflexor of the foot, EXCEPT:
a. The extensor digitorum longus tendon is perceptible on the dorsum of the foot, crossing in front of the ankle mortise and fanning out to insert, by slips into the dorsal surfaces of the middle and distal phalanges of the four lateral toes
b. The tendon of the extensor hallucis longus is perceptible to its insertion at the proximal end of the distal phalanx of the great toe
c. The primary dorsiflexor of the foot lie in the anterior tibial compartment and share a common innervations, the deep peroneal nerve
d. The muscle belly of the extensor digitorum brevis can be palpated where it bulges out from the sinus tarsi and therefore can be isolated for muscle testing
e. The tendon of the tibialis anterior can be seen where it crosses the anteromedial portion of the ankle joint

Answer 696

d. The muscle belly of the extensor digitorum brevis can be palpated where it bulges out from the sinus tarsi and therefore can be isolated for muscle testing

Question 697

This tendon can be isolated by holding the subject’s fingers in extension and flexing the finger in question at the IP joint. If the finger can be flexed at the specified joint, the tendon is intact:
a. Interossei
b. Flexor digitorum profundus
c. Lumbricals
d. Flexor digitorum superficialis
e. None of these

Answer 697

d. Flexor digitorum superficialis

Question 698

The stability and integrity of the transverse arch is maintained by:
a. Hypothenar and thenar muscles
b. Extrinsic muscles of the hands
c. Interossei and lumbricals
d. tendons
e. ligaments

Answer 698

a. Hypothenar and thenar muscles

Question 699

During isovolumentric contraction phase:
a. The aortic and tricuspid valves are closed
b. The aortic valve is open while the pulmonic valve is closed
c. The mitral valve is open but the tricuspid valve is closed
d. The mitral valve is open while the aortic valve is closed
e. The mitral and aortic valves are closed

Answer 699

e. The mitral and aortic valves are closed

Question 700

The following statements are true of the Swing Phase of gait, EXCEPT:
a. The ankle dorsiflexor are active during the entire swing phase to clear the ground by holding the ankle neutral
b. The knee reaches its maximum degree of flexion approximately 65 degrees between toe-off and midswing
c. Steppage gait occurs when the ankle dorsiflexor do not work properly
d. If the subject has poor quadriceps strength, he may rotate the pelvis posteriorly in an exaggerated motion to provide
forward thrust for the leg
e. If the hamstrings are weak, heel strike may be excessively harsh and the knee may hyperextend

Answer 700

d. If the subject has poor quadriceps strength, he may rotate the pelvis posteriorly in an exaggerated motion to provide

APT!!

Question 701

115.Thrombus formation in the legs, particularly in patients following surgery may be prevented in the following manner,
EXCEPT:
a. Gentle mobilization and modified exercises after thrombi have resolved
b. Increase movement and activity to negate sequelae of restricted mobility and recumbency on oxygen transport
c. Specially designed stockings in conjunction with pneumatic compression devices to stimulate the normal action of the muscle pump in the leg
d. Stockings that are applied with uniform pressure along the leg, and removed frequently for 10 minute periods and reapplied.
e. Compression stockings to prevent peripheral blood pooling and augment venous return

Answer 701

b. Increase movement and activity to negate sequelae of restricted mobility and recumbency on oxygen transport

may DVT na so CI ang movement muna

Question 702

117.This muscle is active in foot inversion if accompanied by dorsiflexion:
a. Extensor hallucis longus
b. Tibialis anterior
c. Tibialis posterior
d. Extensor digitorum longus

Answer 702

b. Tibialis anterior

Question 703

124.Which of the following statements is true in forefoot adduction correction test?
a. If forefoot can be fully corrected to less than neutral, foot will probably not correct itself, and cast correction is necessary
b. If forefoot can only be partially corrected to neutral or less, foot will still correct itself and cast correction is not necessary
c. If you can manually correct adduction and abduct forefoot greater than the neutral position, no treatment is necessary as foot will partially correct itself.
d. If forefoot can be fully corrected to neutral or greater, foot will probably not correct itself, and cast correction is not necessary
e. If you can manually correct adduction and abduct forefoot beyond neutral position, no treatment is necessary as foot will partially correct itself.

Answer 703

a. If forefoot can be fully corrected to less than neutral, foot will probably not correct itself, and cast correction is necessary

if can be corrected beyond neutral no need for cast

Question 704

126.Characteristic of patellofemoral pain syndrome include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Can be used by malalignment of the lower extremity
b. Most frequently recommended treatment is exercise
c. Surgical treatment is rarely indicated
d. Pain results in decreased force by knee extensors
e. Consists of anterior knee pain excluding intra-articular pathology, peripatellar tendinitis and bursitis.

Answer 704

a. Can be used by malalignment of the lower extremity

overloading rather than malalignment

Question 705

132.The following statements apply to lower lumbar root compression, EXCEPT:
a. Atrophy of the gastrocnemius may be seen
b. Severe foot drop is unlikely, but toe drop is common with atrophy of the anterior compartment
c. Percussion by fist or hammer over the lower lumbar segments may aggravate pain in the thigh or leg
d. Ankle jerk reflex is commonly diminished or absent in S1 root impingement but may be normal in L5 root syndromes
e. Test of straight-leg-raising frequently shows marked limitation in range of thigh flexion on the good side

Answer 705

e. Test of straight-leg-raising frequently shows marked limitation in range of thigh flexion on the good side

involved side

Question 706

137.The following relationships are true of the low back, EXCEPT:
a. Lumbar lordosis I unrelated of hip and trunk flexibilities
b. Longer abdominal muscles and shorter erector spinae muscles are associated with an increased lumbar curve
c. Individuals with exaggerated lumbar curvature while standing tend to have short hamstrings, rotating the pelvis posteriorly, resulting in concurrent reduction of lumbar lordosis
d. There is no correlation among hip extension ROM, standing pelvic tilt, standing lumbar lordosis and abdominal muscle
performance variables
e. The length of the hamstring muscles are negatively related to the lumbar curve

Answer 706

c. Individuals with exaggerated lumbar curvature while standing tend to have short hamstrings, rotating the pelvis posteriorly, resulting in concurrent reduction of lumbar lordosis

flatback

Question 707

139.Within the depression between the medial malleolus’ posterior aspect and the Achilles tendon lie several soft tissue
structures, EXCEPT:
a. Flexor hallucis longus tendon
b. Flexor digitorum longus tendon
c. Posterior tibial artery and tibial nerve
d. Tibialis posterior tendon
e. Tibialis anterior tendon

Answer 707

e. Tibialis anterior tendon

Question 708

Some of the eight basic techniques which can be used to safety perform most lifting tasks include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Golfer’s lift
b. Diagonal lift
c. Tripod lift
d. Full squat lift
e. Deep squat lift

Answer 708

d. Full squat lift

Question 709

141.The following are effects of cardiac transplantation on cardiovascular and pulmonary variables, EXCEPT:

a. The peak heart rate achieved during maximal exercise is markedly lower in cardiac transplant patients than in age-matched subjects thereby limiting the usefulness of exercise prescriptions based on target heart rate
b. Peak systolic blood pressure of cardiac transplant recipient is less than that of individuals without, but diastolic blood pressure is not much different
c. Resting stroke volume of patients following cardiac transplantation is less than that of individuals without, but diastolic blood pressure is not much different
d. At rest, cardiac recipients exhibit lower heart rates than do individuals without cardiac transplants due to the loss of vagal tone associated with the surgical procedure
e. Oxygen consumption at anaerobic threshold is markedly lower than that of individuals without cardiac transplants, partially due to skeletal muscle weakness

Answer 709

d. At rest, cardiac recipients exhibit lower heart rates than do individuals without cardiac transplants due to the loss of vagal tone associated with the surgical procedure

loss of vagal tone = inc HR

Question 710

144.In this knee instability, the mechanism of injury is a forceable blow against the front of the tibia with the leg externally rotated and planted in a varus position:
a. Anterior lateral rotatory instability
b. Combined rotatory instability
c. Anterior medial rotator instability
d. posterior lateral rotatory instability
e. straight lateral instability

Answer 710

d. posterior lateral rotatory instability
varus = lat instab

Question 711

145.The following are true of the types of breathing exercises, EXCEPT:
a. Use of a flutter valve, the forced-expiration technique and autogenic drainage are beneficial in patients with cystic fibrosis, although efficacy has not been determined.
b. Following coronary artery bypass of gall-bladder surgery, breathing exercises offer no advantage over early patient mobilization
c. Incentive spirometry is no more advantageous or cost-effective than instruction in deep breathing and coughing
d. Diaphragmatic breathing and lateral costal and segmental costal and segmental costal expansion exercises are used most often post-operatively
e. Inspiratory muscle training and resistive diaphragmatic breathing exercises are not beneficial in weaning the patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Answer 711

e. Inspiratory muscle training and resistive diaphragmatic breathing exercises are not beneficial in weaning the patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Question 712

151.The following conditions can result from excessive and repetitive end-range motions, excessive force, and stretching
leading to chronic soft tissue inflammation, muscle spasm and postural imbalance, EXCEPT:
a. Repetitive sprain injuries
b. None of these
c. Cumulative trauma disorders
d. Repetitive strain injuries
e. Repetitive motion injuries

Answer 712

a. Repetitive sprain injuries

strain not sprain

Question 713

155.The following describe patellar misalignment, EXCEPT:
a. May be either permanent or recurrent
b. Release of the tight lateral restraining structures that cause excessive pressure and patellar subluxation (lateral
release) may correct the problem
c. Eventual outcome of many cases of chronic patellar medial alignment is patellofemoral arthrosis
d. Vastus medialis advancement with tightening of lax medial restrains (medial reefing) may treat the problem
e. Correction of the varus angle of the patellar tendon (distal realignment) may help resolve the problem

Answer 713

e. Correction of the varus angle of the patellar tendon (distal realignment) may help resolve the problem

Question 714

159.In anterolateral rotator instability of the knee, healing requires:
a. Six to eight weeks of cast immobilization with the knee flexed 90 degrees and leg maximally externally rotated
b. Four to five weeks of cylinder cast immobilization of the knee at about 60 degrees of flexion
c. None of these
d. A long leg cast over a bulky compressive dressing with the knee positioned 60-70 degrees of flexion and the tibia is
internally rotated on the femur for five to eight weeks
e. Cast immobilization with the knee flexed at 60-70 degrees and the tibia internally rotated to prevent the postero-lateral
subluxation of the tibia for six to eight weeks.

Answer 714

a. Six to eight weeks of cast immobilization with the knee flexed 90 degrees and leg maximally externally rotated

Question 715

176.Metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joint extension is primarily the action of:
a. Interossei and lumbricals
b. Extensor digitorum communis
c. Extensor digitorum, lumbricals and interossei
d. Extensor carpi ulnaris and extensor carpi radialis

Answer 715

b. Extensor digitorum communis

Question 716

178.The following statements are true of the hinged type of total knee prosthesis, EXCEPT:
a. Rotation places a great stress on the prosthesis/bone interfaces which will eventually loosen
b. Indicated for completely destroyed knee joint
c. Includes a hinge, which functions on one axis, and the hinged pieces are continually articulated
d. Patient must have functioning ligaments in the knee
e. Long, thin intermedullary portions hold the prosthesis in place, without the aid of methyl mathacrylate

Answer 716

d. Patient must have functioning ligaments in the knee

Question 717

179.The following statements characterize percussion in chest PT, EXCEPT:
a. For patients with rib and sterna fracture, controlled mechanical ventilation may even stabilize the fracture site by minimizing negative intrathoracic pressure
b. Used during both the inspiratory and expiratory phases or respiration
c. Pneumathorax and hemothorax that develop as a result of the initial injury is considered a contraindicated to percussion
d. Not indicated for the spontaneously breathing with rib fractures who is responding to breathing exercises and assistive coughing techniques
e. Fast percussion (240 cycles/min) demonstrated the greatest sputum production, although slow percussion (6-12 cycles/min) was more effective than no percussion
f. None of the above

Answer 717

c. Pneumathorax and hemothorax that develop as a result of the initial injury is considered a contraindicated to percussion

not CI if it’s not the main prob; but if it is, CI

Question 718

183.The following statements allow soft tissue palpation of certain structures, EXCEPT
a. The flexor carpi radialis may be palpated radial to the Palmaris longus proximally toward its origin at the medial epicondyle when making a tight fist and then to radially deviate and flex the wrist
b. The wrist flexors may be palpated as a unit and individually as you move from their origin at the medial epicondyle and supracondylar line down the forearm and toward the wrist
c. The ulnar nerve may be palpated as it is rolled gently under the index and middle fingers in the sulcus between the medial epicondyle and the olecranon process
d. The medial collateral ligament, a basic stabilizer of the humeroulnar articulation, rises from the medial epicondyle and extends to the medial margin of the ulna’s trochlear notch may be palpated directly
e. To facilitate palpation of the triceps, the subject may lean on the table where it will stand out on the posterior aspect of
the arm

Answer 718

d. The medial collateral ligament, a basic stabilizer of the humeroulnar articulation, rises from the medial epicondyle and extends to the medial margin of the ulna’s trochlear notch may be palpated directly

CANT BE directly palpated

Question 719

186.Which of the following statements is true of the Na+/ K+ATPase pump?
a. All of these
b. It is an example of an ionic channel
c. It pumps sodium out and potassium in
d. It is an example of facilitated diffusion
e. It is an example of facilitated osmosis

Question 720

The following are causes of cardiac muscle dysfunction, EXCEPT:
a. Pulmonary embolus
b. Hypotension
c. Renal insufficiency
d. Spinal cord injury
e. Cardiomyopathy

Answer 720

b. Hypotension

HYPERTENSION

Question 721

fissuring/fragmentation chondromalacia patella degree

Answer 721

2nd

Question 722

198.The following statements apply to the radial nerve, EXCEPT:
a. Extension of the distal phalanges, which appears to be absent in wrist drop, will be found to be possible if ulnar and median nerves are intact
b. Classically paralyzed by ischemia from pressure in the drunken and comatose and also in lead poisoning
c. Abduction and adduction of fingers are not weakened
d. Partly mediates flexion and supination at the elbow through innervations of the bronchioradialis muscle
e. A “finger drop” may result when a penetrating injury of the dorsal forearm spares branches that mediate dorsiflexion of the wrist but sever the posterior interosseus branch that mediates extension of the thumb and fingers

Answer 722

c. Abduction and adduction of fingers are not weakened

apparently weakened

Question 723

pelvic rotation
pelvic list

Answer 723

pelvic list decreases vert. rise
pelvic rot increases vert rise

rot up list down

Question 724

When developing a treatment program, the caregiver

A. Base the treatment goals on the outcome and function
B. Establishes the functional diagnosis and outcome goals
C. Prepares a written home program for the client and family member
D. Evaluates the patient’s response to treatment determines progress towards functional outcomes
E. Gathers data and information for documentation

Answer 724

A. Base the treatment goals on the outcome and function

Question 725

Immediate postoperative care following cardiac transplantation include the following EXCEPT:

A. Oral diet is begun as soon as patient can tolerate it
B. Most patients are weaned from mechanical ventilator assistance within 24 to 36 hours
C. Typically, heart rate is maintained at about 80 beats per minute for the first 72 hours and then tapered off
D. First endomyocardial biopsy is performed 7 to 10 days after transplantation
E. Endotracheal and orogastric tubes are removed within 24 to 36 hours

Answer 725

C. Typically, heart rate is maintained at about 80 beats per minute for the first 72 hours and then tapered off

Question 726

In evaluating the client, the caregiver:

A. Initiate planning for extended treatment as necessary.
B. Determines the client’s current conditions his functional abilities and limitations
C. Prepare and document the treatment plan and program
D. Documents client’s condition and functional outcome abilities
E. Determines and selects the appropriate treatment techniques and equipment

Answer 726

B. Determines the client’s current conditions his functional abilities and limitations

Question 727

Abdominal muscle exercise during pregnancy and at least 8 weeks post birth should be chosen with care because of the following reasons, EXCEPT:

A. There is a noted increase in rectus abdominis muscle separation width, length, and angles of insertion
B. Decrements in abdominal muscle function can parallel in time the structural adaptations as pregnancy progressed
C. The ability to stabilize the pelvis against resistance can be decreased as pregnancy progresses and remain compromised postbirth
D. Continued functional deficits may be found in parallel with incomplete resolution of structural adaptations post birth
E. No reversal in rectus abdominis muscle separation may be found by 4 weeks postbirth

Answer 727

E. No reversal in rectus abdominis muscle separation may be found by 4 weeks postbirth

Question 728

The following are true of palmar prehension pattern, EXCEPT:

A. Large objects may be held by widening the grip.
B. This grasp is used to pick up small objects.
C. The thumb opposes one or more of the other digits.
D. In a glass jar, the entire palmar surface of the hand grasps around it, and the thumb closes in over the glass.

Answer 728

D. In a glass jar, the entire palmar surface of the hand grasps around it, and the thumb closes in over the glass.

Question 729

Junction formed by the terminal branches of the basilar artery and the two internal carotid arteries:

A. Anterior communicating arteries
B. Posterior communicating arteries
C. None of these
D. Circle of Willis

Answer 729

B. Posterior communicating arteries

Question 730

This vertically-directed device acts as the privet round which the rotation occurs and which brings this lateral rotation of the tibia (or medial rotation of the femur) to a halt.
A. Lateral collateral ligament
B. Posterior cruciate ligament
C. Medial ligament
D. Anterior cruciate ligament
E. Semilunar cartilages

Answer 730

D. Anterior cruciate ligament

Question 731

The following statement characterize De Quervain’s disease, EXCEPT:

A. Combinations of hand twisting and forceful gripping can cause the disease
B. Repetitive friction accounts for the absorb thickening of the fibrous sheath and resultant contraction of the tendons
C. Attributed to excessive friction between two thumb tendons and their common sheath
D. Affects the tendons on the side of the wrist and at the base of the thumb
E. The tendons affected are connected to the muscles on the back of the forearm that contract to pull the thumb back and away from the hand.

Answer 731

B. Repetitive friction accounts for the absorb thickening of the fibrous sheath and resultant contraction of the tendons

Question 732

Plantar-flexion contractures can interfere with the performance of functional tasks through the following, EXCEPT:

A. Decrease the plantar flexor moment when the ankle is in dorsiflexed positions.
B. There is knee hyperextension during the stance phase
C. There is decreased ankle dorsiflexion during the swing phase
D. There is decreased peak hip extension in late stance phase

Answer 732

A. Decrease the plantar flexor moment when the ankle is in dorsiflexed positions.

Question 733

In as much as the knee extensor mechanism is involved, the following statements apply, EXCEPT:

A. The exercise is increased according to subject’s tolerance
B. Straight-leg exercises are progressed slowly
C. Resistance is seldom added to the exercise
D. By the time of discharge (about seven days), the subject should be doing 2-3 sets of 5 leg raises
E. Repetitions should be aggressively increased until about 8 sets of 10 sets raises daily are performed over the next three weeks after discharge

Answer 733

C. Resistance is seldom added to the exercise

Question 734

A solute with a high portion coefficient is

A. Moves through the cell membrane with difficulty
B. Where saturation can occur
C. More soluble in fat than in water
D. Directed against a chemical gradient
E. More soluble in water than in fat.

Answer 734

C. More soluble in fat than in water

Question 735

Gait patterns between young (20-40 y.o.) and old (60-80 y.o.) people differ in their gait performance as follows, EXCEPT:

A. Stride time is shorter for the young than the old
B. Ankle dorsiflexion is slightly increased in older, while ankle plantar flexion was decreased in older people.
C. Peak hip flexion exhibit a slightly increase in the older persons.
D. Peak knee extension is significantly less in the older persons.
E. Stride length is significantly greater in the younger persons.

Answer 735

A. Stride time is shorter for the young than the old

Question 736

The following are actions of the upper fibers of the Trapezius:

A. Steady the scapula at the very beginning of the movement of raising the arm above the head
B. Pull the medial end of the scapula downwards
C. Cooperative with the horizontal fibers to rotate the glenoid, cavity upwards
D. Shrugs the shoulders, maintain shoulder level but in fatigue allow the shoulders to droop
E. Retract the scapula

Answer 736

D. Shrugs the shoulders, maintain shoulder level but in fatigue allow the shoulders to droop

Question 737

HYPOTHALAMIC RELEASING AND INHIBITING HORMONES: * Corticotropin releasing hormone= stimulates release of ACTH * Thyrotropin releasing hormones= stimulates release of TSH * Gonadotropin releasing hormone= stimulates release of LH and FSH * Prolactin inhibiting hormone (dopamine)= inhibits release of prolactin * Growth hormone inhibiting hormone= inhibits release of growth hormone transection of pituitary stalk (infundibulum) will break the connection of hypothalamus to pituitary gland and hypothalamus is unable to do it’s function. Therefore, it will become the opposite: DECREASED TSH, FSH, LH, ACTH INCREASED PROLACTIN.

Question 738

If exercise tightness of the hip ligaments, muscles, or fasciae prevents complete extension of the hip joints, an individual commonly compensates for this limitation by:

A. Lengthening the vastus group
B. Accentuating the anterior tilt of the pelvis and lumbar lordosis
C. Increasing the posterior tilt of the pelvis
D. Lumbar kyphosis

Answer 738

C. Increasing the posterior tilt of the pelvis

Question 739

If your patient can’t support his full weight on his legs but does have a reasonably good muscular coordination and arm strength, which crutch walking gait would you choose?

A. Two-point gait
B. Swing-through three-point gait
C. Four-point gait
D. Three-point-and-one gait (partial-weight-bearing)
E. Three-point-gait (non weight bearing)

Answer 739

A. Two-point gait

Question 740

Which of the following statements is true of individuals without cardiopulmonary abnormalities?

A. The increases in ventilation (VE) and CO are inversely proportional to the increase in metabolic rate, allowing venous blood gas and pH levels to remain close to baseline values during exercise
B. The decrease in ventilation (VE) and CO are closely matched to the decrease in metabolic rate allowing venous blood gas and pH levels to remain close to baseline values during exercise
C. The decrease in ventilation (VE) and CO are closely matched to the increase in metabolic rate, allowing venous blood gas and pH levels to remain close to baseline values during exercise
D. The increases in ventilation (VE), and CO are closely matched to the increase in metabolic rate, allowing arterial blood gas and pH levels to remain close to baseline values during exercise
E. The increase in ventilation (VE) and CO are closely matched to the decrease in respiratory rate, allowing arterial blood gas and pH levels to lower than baseline values during exercise

Answer 740

D. The increases in ventilation (VE), and CO are closely matched to the increase in metabolic rate, allowing arterial blood gas and pH levels to remain close to baseline values during exercise

directly proportional ang ventilation and CO with metabolic rate

Question 741

BI-AXIAL (4)

Answer 741

condyloid, ellipsoid, saddle, hinge

biax CESH

Question 742

Denervation hypersensitivity

A. Is due to a decrease in the sensitivity of receptors
B. Is due to an increased in the number of receptors
C. Is due to an increase in the amount of neurotransmitters released
D. Results from avulsion of the nerve
E. Is due to an increased sensitivity to neurotransmitter

Answer 742

B. Is due to an increased in the number of receptors

Question 743

The Ulnar Nerve innervates the following structures, EXCEPT:

A. All interossei
B. Medial half of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus
C. Adductor Pollicis
D. Palmaris Longus
E. All Hypothenar

Answer 743

D. Palmaris Longus

median

Question 744

Suggested dimension (in feet) for an extremity whirlpool in Hydrotherapy area is:

A. 8 x 8
B. 5 x 7
C. 10 x 8
D. 8 x 10
E. 7 x 8

Answer 744

E. 7 x 8

Question 745

A patient points to the lateral aspect of the thigh as his source of pain. This may indicate that underlying problem may be due to

A. Trochanteric bursitis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Gluteal bursitis
D. Sacroiliac stenosis
E. Lumbar spinitis

Answer 745

A. Trochanteric bursitis

Question 746

Postoperative rehabilitation of acute-posterolateral instability of the knee consist of the following, EXCEPT:

A. The long-leg brace dial lock is adjusted to allow full flexion but to limit extension to about 60 degrees
B. After the cast is removed, a knee-ankle-foot-orthosis with a dial lock is applied
C. Active extension is controlled because the arcuate complex has been advanced
D. Orthosis is worn at all times and the dial lock is adjusted to allow extension of an additional 15 degrees each week
E. The subject begins partial weight bearing when the lock prevents only the final 15 degrees of extension

Answer 746

A. The long-leg brace dial lock is adjusted to allow full flexion but to limit extension to about 60 degrees

Question 747

The following characterizes straight posterior knee instability, EXCEPT:

A. May be caused by hyperextension, when some other force is directed against the extended knee
B. May be caused by hyperextension, when a weight falls on the extended joint
C. Structures involved are the anterior cruciate ligament and the miniscotibial portions of the capsule
D. Rupture is caused by a force directed against the flexed knee that strikes the anterior aspect of the tibial head and drives it rearward
E. Primary structures involved are the posterior cruciate ligament and the posterior part of the capsule

Answer 747

C. Structures involved are the anterior cruciate ligament and the miniscotibial portions of the capsule

Question 748

Assistive devices are often used and prescribed to facilitate the process of gait training. The following statements are true, EXCEPT:

A. When a person using an assistive device has compromised cardio respiratory function, the increased demand may not be within the limits of his or her reserve capacity
B. Ambulating while using an assistive device is known to create a metabolic demand different from that for unassisted ambulation
C. The decreased metabolic demand with the use of assistive devices is at least in part due to the slower speed
D. Assistive devices are used as transitional aids towards the goal of independent ambulation
E. These devices may be used as permanent functional aids the can be used for home or community ambulation.

Answer 748

C. The decreased metabolic demand with the use of assistive devices is at least in part due to the slower speed

increased metabolic demand

Question 749

In this lifting technique the individual establishes a wide, solid base of support with one foot positioned in front of the other. The body is slightly over the load with the knees bent in half squatting position. No bending at the waist takes place. In beginning the lift, the head moves first, followed by the straightening of the legs.

A. Golfer’s lift
B. power lift
C. Deep squat lift
D. Tripod lift
E. Partial squat lift with support

Answer 749

B. power lift

Question 750

Depolarization is initiated when this moves inside the cell.

A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Magnesium
D. Chloride
E. Permanganate

Answer 750

B. Sodium

Question 751

The combined action of these muscles is vertebral extension, are continuous from the sacrum to the occiput:

A. None of these
B. Transversopinal
C. Erector Spinae or Sacrospinalis
D. Quadratus Lumborum

Answer 751

C. Erector Spinae or Sacrospinalis

Question 752

Splints that incorporate some elastic component such as springs of rubber bands that exerts a force on the joint but allow for some change of joint position.

A. Dynamic
B. Dynamic-progressive
C. Static-progressive
D. Static

Answer 752

A. Dynamic

Question 753

This joint is primarily responsible for inversion/eversion and abduction/adduction of the foot.

A. Talonavicular
B. Talocrural
C. Subtalar
D. Transverse tarsal
E. Calcaneocuboid

Answer 753

D. Transverse tarsal

TRANSVERSE TARSAL / CHOPART’S JT/ MIDTARSAL JT / SURGEON JT =Multiaxial (inv-ever; abd-add) =TALONA, CC pa TALOCRURAL=hinge joint (DF-PF) SUBTALAR/TALOCALCANEAL= pronation-supination; inversion-eversion

Question 754

The following statements describe repair of acute instability, EXCEPT:

A. Advancement of the posterior oblique ligament is a reconstructive procedure that is almost always used
B. Peripheral tears of the medial meniscus is salvaged buy suturing the structure to the capsular ligaments
C. Repair of an acute case by direct suture is usually avoided
D. Ligament stapling is avoided because it tends to “strangle”
E. The need to drill holes in bone to reattach ligaments is seldom necessary inasmuch as the periosteum is usually intact and will hold sutures well

Answer 754

E. The need to drill holes in bone to reattach ligaments is seldom necessary inasmuch as the periosteum is usually intact and will hold sutures well

Question 755

Excursion and increase in tension of the lumbosacral roots may be accomplished by the following demonstrations, EXCEPT:

A. Straight leg with medial rotation of the hip
B. Dorsiflexing the ankle at the end of straight leg raising
C. Flexing the trunk during straight leg raising
D. Lateral rotation of the hip on straight leg raising
E. Straight leg raising

Answer 755

D. Lateral rotation of the hip on straight leg raising

Question 756

The Continuing Professional Education (CPE) Council for PT and OT exercise powers and functions that include the following, EXCEPT:

A. Accept, evaluate and approve applications for exemptions from CPE requirements.
B. To present periodic assessment and upgrade criteria for accreditation of CPE providers and CPE programs to the Commission for approval.
C. Periodically monitors the implementation of programs, activities or sources.
D. Accept, evaluate and approve applications for accreditation of CPE providers
E. Accept, evaluate and approve applications for accreditation of CPE programs, and determine the number of CPE credit units.

Answer 756

B. To present periodic assessment and upgrade criteria for accreditation of CPE providers and CPE programs to the Commission for approval.

Question 757

In carpal tunnel syndrome, alteration in the size of the structures under the transverse carpal tunnel ligament such as occurs with inflammation, edema or fascial scarring can affect the perineural vasculature. This inflammation process can result in the following conditions, EXCEPT:

A. Tingling in one or more digits in the median nerve distribution when the patients actively maintain maximal wrist flexion for one minute
B. Fibroblastic proliferation secondary to chronic edema my result in interneural fibrosis of the median nerve
C. Self perpetuating cycle of hypoxia
D. Leakage of edema from damaged capillary endothelium

Answer 757

A. Tingling in one or more digits in the median nerve distribution when the patients actively maintain maximal wrist flexion for one minute

phalen’s is done passively

Question 758

The following statements are true of the cruciate ligaments of the knee, EXCEPT:

A. External rotation of the leg reduces forward movement of the tibia on the femur even if the anterior cruciate ligament is torn
B. If the amount of forward movement of the tibia on the femur in internal rotation is equal to than in the neutral position, both the anterior cruciate ligament and the posterolateral portion of the joint capsule may be torn
C. If the tibia is pushed posteriorly and it moves backward on the femur, posterior draw sign in positive
D. If forward movement with the leg in the neutral position both posterior cruciate ligaments and the posteromedial portion of the joint capsule may be damaged
E. The anterior cruciate may be torn if anterior draw sign positive

Answer 758

D. If forward movement with the leg in the neutral position both posterior cruciate ligaments and the posteromedial portion of the joint capsule may be damaged

Question 759

Which of the following statements are TRUE:
I. All of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus is supplied by the median nerve.
II. The median nerve supplies all of the Flexor Pollicis Longus.
III. Adjoining half of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus is supplied by the median nerve
IV. The ulnar nerve supplies the lateral half of the Profundus.
V. Medial half of Profundus is supplied by the ulnar nerve.

A. II, III and IV
B. I, II and V
C. II, III and V
D. I and III only
E. III and IV only

Answer 759

C. II, III and V

Question 760

Parkinson syndrome is a sign and symptom indicating this dysfunction

A. Extrapyramidal
B. Spinal cord
C. Pyramidal
D. Basal ganglia
E. Cerebellar

Answer 760

A. Extrapyramidal

syndrome is extrapyramidal

BG is for PD

Question 761

Patients with anemia fatigue easily and treatments are modified accordingly. PT management include the following, EXCEPT:

A. If exercise is indicated, pacing and training that distribute the intensity of the workload can be used to promote physiological recovery
B. Mobilization in conjunction with gravitational stimulus to elicit hemodynamic responses to gravity
C. Progressive training by alternating high-intensity exercise and low intensity exercise or rest
D. Progressive training through low intensity but not by high intensity exercise
E. Exercise stimuli such as walking and transferring to optimize ventilation, perfusion and to promote mucociliary transport

Answer 761

D. Progressive training through low intensity but not by high intensity exercise

Question 762

The following statements describe carpal tunnel syndrome, EXCEPT:

A. Numbness or pain that can radiate distally
B. Weakness of the hand.
C. The pathophysiology remains unknown although mechanical and vascular factors can play a major role
D. Often seen as the cause of progressive numbness or paresthesia of the fingers in the median nerve distribution
E. Nocturnal burning pain or hypesthesia

Answer 762

A. Numbness or pain that can radiate distally

proximally

Question 763

Which of the following statements describe the Thyroid Gland?
I. It produces thyroxin, a very important iodine compound.
II. It regulates the relative amounts of calcium in the blood and bones.
III. Absence of the thyroid gland results in a mentally defective dwarf known as a cretin.
IV. Its anemic blood supply is derived from the two superior thyroid arteries only.
V. It derives its profuse blood supply from the two superior thyroid arteries and two inferior thyroid arteries.

A. II, IV and V
B. II, III and IV
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and V
E. I, III and V

Answer 763

E. I, III and V

Question 764

Intervertebral joint palpation provides the clinician valuable information about joint behavior to apply a force to a joint and to evaluate the joint’s response to that force. In the process, he/she must appreciate the following, EXCEPT:

A. The amount of movements produced at the joint and presence activity evoked during the movement
B. The pain produced by the movement
C. The speed and direction at which it is applied
D. The way in which the joint moves or resists movement in response to the given force
E. The amount of force applied to the muscle inserting into the joint

Answer 764

B. The pain produced by the movement

Question 765

The segment of nephron which is permeable to water is the:

A. Thin descending limb of the loop of Henle
B. Thin ascending limb of the loop of Henle
C. Distal convoluted tubules
D. Proximal tubule
E. Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle

Answer 765

D. Proximal tubule

65%

Question 766

In Thomas test, shortened two-joint muscles are diagnosed when

A. The leg is able to maintain contact with the table but the knee cannot flex past 70 degrees.
B. The thigh rises off the table and the knee is unable to flex past 70 degrees d
C. The posterior thigh of the first leg can lay flat on the table with approximately 80 degrees of knee flexion.
D. The knee flexion ability is good but the thigh rises up off the table.
E. None of these

Answer 766

D. The knee flexion ability is good but the thigh rises up off the table.

Patient lies supine, performs knee to chest. (+) straight leg rises (+) increased lordosis even when the leg is pushed down (if leg abducts, it is called J-SIGN/J-STROKE indicating tight ITB)

Question 767

The following joint receptors provide the subcortical nuclei and cortex with constant information about position and movement, EXCEPT:

A. Golgi mazzoni corpuscles
B. Type III Golgi type endings
C. Ruffini corpuscles
D. Merkel’s disks

Answer 767

D. Merkel’s disks

Question 768

The entire flexor pronator can be surgically removed from its common origin and transferred proximally onto the humerus to substitute for a weak or absent:

A. Triceps
B. Brachioradialis
C. Coracobrachialis
D. Biceps muscle
E. Brachialis

Answer 768

D. Biceps muscle

Question 769

During muscle contraction, they slide towards each other.

A. Actin
B. A-band
C. H-zone
D. Myosin
E. Z-discs

Answer 769

A. Actin

Question 770

During ambulation, the leg is brought into the trailing position by the following, EXCEPT:

A. Extension of the hip
B. Tightening of the rectus abdominis
C. Anterior tilting of the pelvis
D. Extension of the lumbar spine

Answer 770

B. Tightening of the rectus abdominis

Question 771

Electrical stimulation affects sensory and motor nerves in the following manner, EXCEPT:

A. Varying the waveform has not meaningful influence on their responses.
B. Sensory excitation always precede motor excitation irrespective of waveform
C. Motor nerve thresholds are higher than sensory
D. Motor excitation can precede sensory excitation depending on site of stimulation
E. Both respond in a seemingly identical way to transcutaneous stimulation.

Answer 771

E. Both respond in a seemingly identical way to transcutaneous stimulation.

sensory stim ang TENS

Question 772

These neurons carry motor impulses from the brain to the motor neurons in the spinal cord:

A. Interneuron
B. First-order Neuron
C. Upper Motor Neuron
D. Lower Motor Neuron

Answer 772

C. Upper Motor Neuron

Question 773

glucose and amino acids transport

Answer 773

faci diffusion

Question 774

The following statements characterize the hip abductors (HA), EXCEPT:

A. The HA muscles must produce a torque large enough to match the torque produced by the body weight to achieve frontal plane stability.
B. The main function of the muscles is to provide sagittal place stability for the hip during the single-limb support phase of walking.
C. Reducing the need for excessive forces from the HA muscles should minimize the forces produced across he hip
D. The sum of the HA muscle derived force plus the force of body weight may reach 3 to 3.5 times body weight during mid stance
E. The force produced by the HA muscles is the largest contributor to the prosthetic hip reaction force

Answer 774

B. The main function of the muscles is to provide sagittal place stability for the hip during the single-limb support phase of walking.

FRONTAL plane stab

Question 775

In patients with movement dysfunction, feedback on a patient’s movement performance is an integral approach to rehabilitation, and may be provided in the following manner, EXCEPT:

A. As the patient attempts to perform a movement, feedback may be provided initially
B. Via augmented visual feedback
C. Center of pressure information during balance activities
D. Verbally, through the tactile cues transmitted by the therapist’s hands

Answer 775

A. As the patient attempts to perform a movement, feedback may be provided initially

not initially

Question 776

Which of the following statement describe the heart?
I. During development, the heart undergoes rotation so that its right side is carried backwards and its left side forwards.
II. It is about the size of a clenched fist and occupies central position in the thoracic cavity.
III. It lies behind the body of the sternum and in front of the middle four thoracic vertebra (T. 5,6,7 and 8)
IV. The left ventricle forms the posterior surface and occupies most of the superior border.
V. The right ventricle occupies most of the anterior surface and forms all but the extremities of the inferior border.

A. II, III and V
B. II and V only
C. I, II and IV
D. I and IV only
E. II, III and IV

Answer 776

E. II, III and IV

Question 777

This uncovering of the reactive site in the actin filament will result in

A. Flexion of myosin cross bridge
B. Release of calcium from SR site
C. Attraction and lengthening of myosin cross bridge
D. Deformation of troponin
E. Sliding of actin and myosin

Answer 777

C. Attraction and lengthening of myosin cross bridge