Final coaching Flashcards
s/sx for respiratory alkalosis
STD c tingling and numbness
- syncope, tetany, dizziness
s/sx of respiratory acidosis (early and late)
early: HARDy
- Headache, anxiety, restlessness, dyspnea
late: CCS
- confusion, coma, somnolence
s/sx for metabolic alkalosis
WTMD
- ms weakness, early tetany, mental dullness
causes for metabolic alkalosis (4)
excessive intake of bicarb, diuretics, steroids; vomiting
s/sx for metabolic acidosis
(KNAL)
Kussmaul breathing, nausea/vomiting, cardiac arrhythmia, lethargy/coma
causes for metabolic acidosis
DARS
diabetes, alcohol, renal failure, starvation
order and percent of disc pressure percent
cough:
laugh:
walking:
side bending:
small jumps:
bending forward:
rotation:
lifting c back straight knees bent:
lifting c back bent knees straight:
CWRSLSLBL
cat was running, sliding, landing so lucy bit lol
cough: 5-35%
walk: 15%
rotation: 20%
side bending: 25%
lifting c back straight knees bent: 73%
small jumps: 40%
laugh: 40-50%
bending forward: 150%
lifting c back bent knees straight: 169%
SLR 1
FED/ST
hip flexion
knee ext
foot DF
sciatic, tibial
SLR 2
FEDEE/T
hip flexion
knee ext
ankle DF, Ev
toe ext
tibial
SLR 3
FEDIS
hip flex
knee ext
ankle DF, inv
sural
SLR 4
FEPIC
hip flex
knee ext
ankle PF, inv
CPN
SLR 5 (well leg)
PED
hip flex
knee ext
ankle DF
nerve prolapse (done on unaffected leg)
primary antibody response
IgM
most common antibody receptor, only antibody that crosses the placenta
IgG
antibody responsible for allergic reaction
IgE
most abundant antibody, found in saliva tears breast milk
IgA
antibody that activates B cells
IgD
epimysium
muscle
perimysium
fascicle
endomysium
ms fiber
renin
angiotensinogen -> A1
ACE
A1 -> A2
A2
release aldosterone
zona glomerulosa
mineralocorticoid aldosterone release
zona fasciculata
glucocorticoid cortisol release
zona reticulata
androgen
be careful to see my new face book
bone, cartilage, tendon, skin, muscle, nerve, fat, blood
protein: most to least
fluid: least to most
stage 2 dermal wound
(intensity, frequency, DC, tx time, area)
0.2-1 W/cm2; 3 MHz; 20% DC; 1-2min per area; around wound’s edges
stage 3 & 4 dermal wound
(intensity, frequency, DC, tx time, area)
0.2-1 W/cm2; 1 MHz; 20% DC; 1-2min per area; around wound’s edges
madelung’s deformity
ulnar prominence, radius and wrist volarly displaced
scaphoid fx
preiser dse
lunate fx
kienboch dse
patella fx
kohler dse
navicular fx.
kohler dse
talus fx
mouchet dse
vertebral epiphysis fx
scheuermann
calcaneal apophysis fx
sever’s dse
accessory tarsal navicular OR os tibiale externum
haglund dse
2nd MTT fx
freiberg
proximal tibial epiphysis
blount dse
tibial tuberosity
osgood schlatter
secondary patellar center
sinding-larsen-johansson dse
distal epiphysis of ulna or distal lunate
burns dse
capitulum of humerus
panner
bennett’s fx
1st MC
boxer’s fx
5th MC
baseball finger
DIP dorsal avulsion fx of base of distal phalanx
bunk bed fx
intraarticular fx. of 1st MTT fx in children
chance fx
lap type seat belt fx.
vert body compression
colle’s fx.
radius fx. dorsal displacement
clay shovelers
cervical vertebrae spinous process fx.
duverney fx
iliac wing fx
essex lopresti
comminuted fx of radial head with dislocation of distal RU jt
galeazzi fx
radial fx. c radial head d/L
jefferson fx
C1 burst fx.
jones fx
5th MTT fx
maisonnueve fx.
prox 1/3 of fibula + torn syndesmosis
malgaigne fx.
double vertical fx ant& post pelvic ring
march fx
2nd MTT
monteggia fx
ulnar fx.
pilon fx
tibial plafond fx
rolando fx
1st MC comminuted fx.
runner’s fx
distal fibula fx.
segond fx
avulsion fx, of lat tibial condyle at gerdy’s tubercle (ITB insertion)
ski boot fx
distal third of tibia and fibula
smith fx
fracture of distal radius c volar displacement
steida fx
medial femoral condyle fx at MCL
teardrop fracture
comminuted vertebral body fx c ant displacement
cotton fx
trimalleolar fx
torus fx
compression fx of long bone in or near metaphysis
MOI and mx of trimalleolar fx
MOI: abduction/ER force; adduction force
mx: ORIF
4 autonomic/parasympathetic ganglia (location- CN)
ciliary ganglion - CN3
(hay fever) pterygopalatine/sphenopalatine - CN7
submandibular ganglion - CN7
otic ganglion - 9
norepinephrine site of production
loecus coereleus
dopamine site of production/release
substantia nigra pars compacta
serotonin site of production/release
raphe nucleus
acetylcholine site of production/release
nucleus basalis of Meynert
MS variant with isolated optic N affectation
Devic’s
denial of blindness
anton’s syndrome
benign GBS (triad: ataxia, opthalmoplegia, areflexia)
miller-fisher
type of PD involving severe autonomic failure
shy-drager syndrome (AKA multiple system atrophy MSA)
congenital facial palsy
moebius syndrome
limbic system components
HATCH
hypothalamus, amygdala, thalamus, cingulate gyrus, hippocampus
other term for the hippocampus
ammon’s horn (cornu ammonis)
dysfunction of the amygdala; hypersexuality
kluver bucy syndrome
inability to recognize the form and shape of objects by touch
astereognosis/tactile agnosia
painful burning sensations, usually along nerve distribution
causalgia
loss of light touch sensibility
thigmanesthesia
vascular lesion of the thalamus resulting in sensory disturbances and partial or complete paralysis of one side of the body, associated with severe boring-type pain; sensory stimulus = exaggerated, prolonged, painful response
thalamic syndrome/dejerine-roussy
specific part of thalamus for temp regulation
ant hypothalamus and preoptic area
paleo cerebellum (3)
PASP
ant., spinocerebellum, postural tone
neo cerebellum (3)
Large NPoCor
largest, posterior, coordination
archi cerebellum (4)
BAFOV
oldest, flocculonodular, vestibulocerebellum, balance
CSF flow
Choroid plexus
lateral ventricles
foramen of Monroe
3rd ventricle
Sylvian/cerebral aqueduct
4th ventricle
2 Luschka, 1 Magendie
Subarachnoid space (to S2)
Arachnoid villi
Dural venous sinuses
peak torque of quads (deg)
60 deg of flexion
peak activity of quads + common compensation
HS -> FF
forward lurch
peak activity GMax + common compensation
HS/IC
backward lurch
peak activity GMed + common compensation
MStance
Trendelenburg -> lat lurch or list
ACL/PCL orientation, tautest/laxest during?
ACL - PLS; ExIR taut, 30-60flex lax
PCL - SAM; 30flex taut; early flex lax
peak activity Hams + common compensation
TSwing / decceleration
intrinsic foot muscles layers
1: ADM, FDB, Abd Hallucis
2: Lumbricals, quadratus plantae; master knot of henry: FHL & FDL tendons
3: FHB, FDMB, Add Hallucis
4: interossei; TP, P
master knot of henry comprised of what tendons?
FHL & FDL tendons
weber syndrome lesion, affected (2)
medial basal midbrain
CN 3 - I/L CN3 palsy
CST - C/L hemiplegia
benedikt syndrome lesion, affected (5)
tegmentum of the midbrain
CN 3 - I/L CN3 palsy
STT - C/L body P/T
DCP - C/L prop
sup. cerebellar peduncle - C/L ataxia
red nucleus - C/L chorea
locked-in syndrome lesion, affected (2), spared
B basal pons
CST - quadriplegia
CBT - face and neck paralysis
spared: upward gaze
millard-gubler syndrome lesion, affected (3)
lateral pons
CN 6 - I/L CN 6 palsy
CN 7 - I/L CN 7 palsy
CST - C/L hemiplegia
wallenberg syndrome lesion, affected (5)
lateral medulla
CN 5 - I/L facial pain and temp
STT - C/L body P/T
nucleus ambiguus - dysphagia, dysphonia
vestib nuclei - I/L nystagmus
spinocerebellar - I/L ataxia
frontal gaze palsy (type of stroke syndrome)
ACA
asymptomatic stroke (type of stroke syndrome)
ACA
amaurosis fugax (type of stroke syndrome)
ICA or optic nerve lesion
grasp reflex (type of stroke syndrome)
ACA
sucking reflex (type of stroke syndrome)
ACA
disconnection apraxia (type of stroke syndrome)
ACA
akinetic mutism/abulia (type of stroke syndrome)
ACA
dysphagia (type of stroke syndrome)
MCA
C/L HH (type of stroke syndrome)
MCA d/t impaired macula
agnosia (type of stroke syndrome)
R MCA
aphasia (type of stroke syndrome)
L MCA
coma/LOC (type of stroke syndrome)
VBA
cerebellar signs (type of stroke syndrome)
VBA
quadriplegia (type of stroke syndrome)
VBA
visual impairment (type of stroke syndrome)
PCA
CN involvement (type of stroke syndrome)
VBA
memory impairment (type of stroke syndrome)
PCA
thalamic pain syndrome (type of stroke syndrome)
PCA
hemiballismus (type of stroke syndrome)
PCA
weber syndrome (type of stroke syndrome)
PCA
locked in syndrome (type of stroke syndrome)
basilar artery
benedikt syndrome (type of stroke syndrome)
paramedian penetrating branches of the basilar artery
millard gubler syndrome (type of stroke syndrome)
penetrating branches of basilar artery
wallenberg syndrome (type of stroke syndrome)
PICA
pathology of small subcortical spaces of grey and white matter
lacunar stroke
pure motor lacunar stroke lesion, blood supply
post limb of int capsule; LSA
pure sensory lacunar stroke lesion, blood supply
thalamus; PCA
MC lacunar stroke
pure motor lacunar stroke
sensory motor lacunar stroke lesion
jxn of int capsule and thalamus
2nd MC lacunar stroke
sensory motor lacunar stroke
dysarthria clumsy hand lacunar stroke lesion, blood supply
ant limb of int capsule
recurrent art of Huebner
ataxic hemiparesis lacunar stroke lesion, blood supply
PICC
pons, int capsule, cerebellum, corona radiata
LC aphasia
global aphasia
global aphasia lesion (2)
MCA, perisylvian area
mixed transcortical aphasia lesion (2)
watershed or unlocalized area
common sites of DAI
CPP
corpus callosum (MC)
parasagittal white matter
pons and MB
glasgow coma scale scoring per item verbal, motor, eyes (grading)
verbal (5)
no - 1
inappropriate sounds - 2
inappropriate speech - 3
confused - 4
oriented x3 - 5
motor - 6
no - 1
decerebrate, ext tone - 2
decorticate, flexor tone - 3
withdraws - 4
localizes - 5
commands - 6
eyes
no - 1
pressure/pain - 2
speech - 3
spontaneous - 4
the great crippler of young adults
MS
MC sites affected by MS (5)
PCCOP
periventricular white matter
cerebellum
CST
optic N
posterior white column of SC
medication for ALS
riluzole (rilutek, exservan, Tiglutik)
superior continuation of PLL
tectorial membrane
congenital elevation of scapula
sprengel’s deformity
wheelchair ambulation energy expenditure
10%
crutch walking energy expenditure
60%
single BKA energy expenditure
10-40%
single AKA energy expenditure
65%
double BKA energy expenditure
41%
double AKA energy expenditure
110%
1 AKA 1 BKA energy expenditure
75%
prosthetic fitting in children
above/below elbow
3-6 months
prosthetic fitting in children
below/above knee jt
8-10 months
prosthetic fitting in children
active terminal device
2 yo
prosthetic fitting in children
elbow unit
2-3 yo
prosthetic fitting in children
fxnal hand
3 yo
prosthetic fitting in children
actively controlled knee jt
3-4 yo
GMFCS: walks c restriction, limited in AGMS
GMFCS 1
GMFCS: walks s AD, limited outdoor and comm amb
GMFCS 2
GMFCS: walks c AD, limited, limited outdoor and comm amb
GMFCS 3
GMFCS: limited self-mob; use of powered/mobility W/C outdoors & comm
GMFCS 4
GMFCS: severely limited self-mob even c AD
GMFCS 5
other name for grand mal seizures
tonic-clonic
5 minutes or more of continuous or clinical electrographic seizure activity or recurrent seizure activity s recovery in between seizures
status epilepticus
other name for petit mal seizures
absence seizures
other name for atonic seizures
drop seizures
blank stare seizure
petit mal seizure
sudden falling down and drop head seizure
drop seizure/atonic
repeated jerking muscle seizure
clonic seizure
sudden brief jerks or twitches of the arms and legs; no LOC
myoclonic seizure
classification of intraventricular hemorrhage with pre/definite CP
Pre-CP:
I. subependymal hemorrhage
II. bleeding into ventricles s dilation
Definite CP:
III. bleeding into ventricles c dilation
IV. periventricular hemorrhage
lentiform nucleus components and blood supply
putamen, globus pallidus
recurrent artery of Huebner (AKA cerebral artery of apoplexy)
neostriatum/striatum components and blood supply
caudate nucleus, putamen
LSA
AD, orthosis to use: T6-T12
parapodium THKAFO
W/C for ALL fxnal mob
AD, orthosis to use, functional prognosis: L1, L2
RGO + HKAFO
W/C most fxnal mob; short HA
AD, orthosis to use, functional prognosis: L3, L4
KAFO
W/C for CA; HA
AD, orthosis to use, functional prognosis: L5-S1
AFO + ground reaction AFO
limited CA; ind HA
AD, orthosis to use, functional prognosis: S2 down
supramalleolar orthosis
HA, CA s difficulty
important crutch walking shoulder depressors (3)
pecs minor
lats dorsi
lower traps
important crutch walking shoulder adductors (2)
pecs major
lats dorsi
important crutch walking shoulder FAbER (1)
deltoids
important crutch walking elbow ext. (2)
triceps, anconeus
important crutch walking wrist ext. (3)
ECRL, ECRB, ECU
important crutch walking finger and thumb flexors (4)
FDS, FDP
FPL, FPB
push handle to floor
36”
armrest to floor
30”
total length W/C
46”
total width W/C
23”
W/C reach forward
48”
W/C reach down
15”
W/C reach side to side
24”
T6-T12 deformity
kyphoscoliosis
L1, L2, L3 deformity
severe hip d/L
L4, L5 deformity (2)
mild hip d/L, calcaneovarus
S1 deformity
calcaneocavus
S2 deformity
clawing of toes
S3, S4 deformity
sphincter control prob
surprise muscle
occipitofrontalis
frowning muscle
corrugator supercilli
eye closing ms
orbicularis oculi
eye opening ms
levator palpebrae superioris
expression of distaste
procerus
compression/dilation of nostrils ms (2)
nasalis - compressor and dilator nares
smiling ms
zygomatic major
sneering ms
levator anguli oris
protrusion of upper lip ms
zygomaticus minor
protrusion of lower lip ms
depressor labi inferioris
grimace
risorius
kissing muscle
orbicularis oris
blowing, sucking, whistling ms
buccinator
pouting ms
mentalis
egad
platysma
3 ways of measuring scoliosis severity, landmarks to use
cobb’s - MC used
- superior and inferior end vertebra
risser-ferguson
- superior and inferior vertebra; apical vertebra
nash-moe
- pedicle method
dorsal column pathway functions (3) and components and fxns (2)
DC: discriminative touch, epicritic sensation, proprioception
fasciculus cuneatus (UE), gracilis (LE)
1st, 2nd and 3rd order neurons location
1st: DRG
2nd: substantia gelatinosa
3rd: thalamus
apprehension test indication
patellar dislocation; movement is forced d/L of patella
sit to stand
reciprocal innervation
horizontal plane lateral SCC angle
30deg
MAS: Slight increase in muscle tone, manifested by a catch and release or by minimal resistance at the end of the range of motion when the affected part(s) is moved in flexion or extension
1
MAS: Slight increase in muscle tone, manifested by a catch, followed by minimal resistance throughout the remainder (less than half) of the ROM (range of movement)
1+
damages the epidermis and part of the dermis. Symptoms include blisters, redness, swelling, and pain. The burned area may appear wet and shiny, and the skin may be white or discolored in an irregular pattern
deep partial thickness
destroys the epidermis, dermis, and often the underlying subcutaneous tissue. Symptoms include a white or blackened and charred appearance,
full partial thickness
The examiner applies axial compression through the fourth and fifth metacarpals
TFCC compression test
alternative TFCC compression test
axial load ulnar deviate
True of the anatomic snuffbox:
I. Bounded medially by the EPL (ext. pollicis longus)
II. Contains the radial artery and the superficial radial nerve
III. Laterally bound by the EPB (extensor pollicis brevis) and APL (adductor pollicis longus)
IV. The floor is made up of the scaphoid and triquetrum bone
V. Tenderness within the snuffbox may lead to suspicion of scaphoid fracture
A. All of these
B. I, II, III
C. I, II, III, V
D. I, II, V
E. I, III, V
D. I, II, V
toileting degrees of shoulder abduction
40deg
All of the following describes the period of rapid filling of the ventricles, Except
A. The semilunar valves are closed, the AV valves are opened
B. The turbulent flow of blood into the ventricles produces a third heart sound
C. Continuous ventricular filling occurs during the middle one third of diastole
D. The ventricles relax, but ventricular volume does not change
D. The ventricles relax, but ventricular volume does not change
What fissure/s can be found in the right lung?
A. Horizontal Fissure
B. Oblique Fissure
C. Both a and b
D. NOTA
C. Both a and b
Which of the following describes the continuous breath sounds?
A. most prominent during inspiration
B. caused by vibrations of air passing through the narrowed airways
C. present in CHF Atelectasis
D. caused by the sound of gas bubbling through secretions
B. caused by vibrations of air passing through the narrowed airways
This type of end feel occurs sooner or later in the ROM than is usual, or in a joint that normally has a firm or hard end. This may feel boggy with fluid shift
A. Springy
B. Empty
C. Hard
D. Soft
D. Soft
The patient requires moderate assistance and expends 50-75 % of the effort. What is the patient’s FIM level?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
B. 3
This reflex is elicited by flicking the terminal phalanx of the index, middle or ring finger. A positive sign indicates increased irritability of sensory nerves in tetany and pathology in the pyramidal tract
A. Rossolimo
B. Schaeffer
C. Piotrowski
D. Hoffman
D. Hoffman
Rossolimo - tap/percuss ball of foot
- exaggerated flexion
- pyramidal lesion
Schaeffer - pinch Achilles
- foot and toe flexion
Piotrowski - tap TA
- PF + inv/sup
Hoffman index middle ring finger; pyramidal tract pathology
What is the normal range of flexion of the distal interphalangeal joints?
A. 90 degrees
B. 100 degrees
C. 150 degrees
D. 180 degrees
A. 90 degrees
MCP, DIP - 90
PIP - 100
This tests the structures around the PIP joint. The proximal interphalangeal joint is held in a neutral position while the DIP is flexed by the examiner. If the DIP joint does not flex, the retinacular ligaments or the PIP capsule are taut. If PIP joint is flexed and DIP is flexed easily, the retinacular ligaments are taut and the capsule is normal.
A. Haines-Zancolli Test
B. Bunnel Littler Test
C. Sweater Finger Sign
D. Froment Sign
A. Haines-Zancolli Test
Allen, Adson, Halstead rotation
allen - same
halstead - opposite
adson - both sides
The fluids outside and inside the cell is important to maintain the homeostasis. Which of the following is true about extracellular fluids and intracellular fluids?
A. The intracellular fluids contain large amount of potassium, magnesium, chloride ions. The extracellular contain sodium, bicarbonate ions and phosphate ions
B. The intracellular fluids contain large amount of potassium, magnesium, sodium. The extracellular contain sodium, bicarbonate ions and phosphate ions
C. The intracellular fluids contain large amount of potassium, magnesium, phosphate ions. The extracellular contain sodium, bicarbonate ions and chloride ions
D. NOTA
C. The intracellular fluids contain large amount of potassium, magnesium, phosphate ions. The extracellular contain sodium, bicarbonate ions and chloride ions
Which of the following describes the diffusion?
I. Diffusion through the cell membrane is divided into two subtypes, called simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion
II. Simple Diffusion means that kinetic movement of molecules or ions through a membrane opening or through intermolecular spaces without any interaction with carrier proteins in the membrane
III. Facilitated diffusion requires interaction of a carrier protein.
IV. The carrier protein in facilitated diffusion aids passage of the molecules or ions through the membrane by binding chemically with them.
A. I,II,III
B. I,II,III
C. I,II,III,IV
D. Only I
C. I,II,III,IV
_________ migration of each set of chromosomes is complete. The chromosomes unravel to become less distinct chromatin threads. The nuclear envelope forms from the endoplasmic reticulum. The nucleoli form, and cytokinesis continues to produce two cells.
A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase
D. Telophase
(+) mitotic spindle (-) nuclear envelope
prophase
midline
metaphase
(-) centromere, centromere separation
anaphase
(+) nuclear envelope (-) mitotic spindle
telophase
Erythropoietin
A. inhibits the production of red blood cells.
B. production increases when blood oxygen decreases.
C. production is inhibited by testosterone.
D. All of these are correct.
B. production increases when blood oxygen decreases.
Each muscle fiber contains several hundred to several thousands_________
A. myofilament
B. myofibrils
C. muscle fiber
D. fascicle
B. myofibrils
All of the following are true about the skeletal muscle fiber, EXCEPT
A. A cross-bridge forms when the myosin binds to the actin.
B. muscle fiber is a single cell consisting of a plasma membrane (sarcolemma), cytoplasm (sarcoplasm), several nuclei, and myofibrils
C. Sarcomeres are bound by Z disks that hold actin myofilaments.
D. NOTA
D. NOTA
Sacral pain occurs when _________ is stimulated such as during a bowel movement or when passing a gas and relieved after each of these events
A. Stomach
B. Rectum
C. Esophagus
D. Small intestine
B. Rectum
All of the following are true about the nephron, EXCEPT
I. Proximal tubular membranes are highly permeable to water
II. As fluid flows down the descending loop of Henle, water is absorbed into the cortex
III. The thin ascending limb is essentially impermeable to water but reabsorbs some sodium chloride
IV. The thick part of the ascending loop of Henle is also virtually impermeable to water, but large amounts of sodium, chloride, potassium, and other ions are actively transported from the tubule into the medullary interstitium
V. The concentration of fluid in the medullary collecting ducts also depends on ADH
A. II,III,IV
B. II,III
C. Only IV
D. Only II
E. NOTA
D. Only II
Areas of reabsorption (c and s ADH)
PCT
Thin descending LOH
Thin ascending LOH
Thick ascending LOH
DCT
CCT
MCT
PCT - concentrated
Thin descending LOH - concentrated
Thin ascending LOH - diluted
Thick ascending LOH - diluted
DCT - diluted (ADH: concentrated)
CCT - diluted (ADH: concentrated)
MCT - diluted (ADH: concentrated)
most concentrated c ADH
MCT
most concentrated s ADH
thin descending LOH
most diluted c ADH
thick ascending LOH
most diluted s ADH
MCT
The following are contraindications of traction, EXCEPT:
A. Vascular conditions
B. Patients with subacute state of degenerative joint disease
C. Hypermobility
D. Local and systemic disease affecting joints, ligaments, bones and muscles such as tumors and infections
B. Patients with subacute state of degenerative joint disease
ACUTE state of DJD - CI
Which ultrasound treatment parameter is recommended for a stage 3 chronic dermal wound?
A. 1 MHz at 1.5 watt.cm2
B. 3 MHz at .2-1 watt/cm2
C. 3 MHz at 1.5 watt/cm
D. 1 MHz at .2-1 watt/cm2
D. 1 MHz at .2-1 watt/cm2
Stage 2: 3 MHz at .2-1 watt/cm2; 20% duty cycle; around edges 1-2min per area
Ultraviolet radiation within this range that will cause anti-rachitic effect is _______
A. 2400-3000
B. 4600-4970
C. 3000-4000
D. 3600-3900
A. 2400-3000
antirachitic purpose
treating ricketts - lack of vit D; osteomalacia in kids
MC subluxed vertebral level in RA:
A. C1-C2
B. C2-C3
C. C4-C5
D. C5-C6
A. C1-C2
True about Volkmann’s ischemic contracture:
A. FPL and FDP are spared
B. Affects the radial artery
C. Involves fracture of the forearm, radius, or ulna
D. Commonly seen in weightlifter and clerical jobs
C. Involves fracture of the forearm, radius, or ulna
neer stage 3 vs 4
stage 3: >40yo; partial tendon tear; osteophyte formation
stage 4: >40yo; multiple tendon tear
AdCaps 3-9 months, most painful
freezing
AdCaps 1-3 months
pre-adhesive
AdCaps 9-15months; most significant LOM
frozen
AdCaps 15-24 months
thawing
A patient with a crush injury to the foot developed reflex sympathetic dystrophy. Now, two months into the RSD, the clinical presentation you would expect is:
A. Edema and osteoporosis with decreased sweating and nail growth
B. A cool, dry extremity with the beginning of ankylosis
C. Causalgia with vasomotor reflex spasm resulting in warm, dry skin with increased nail growth
D. Pain on motion with trophic skin changes and osteoporosis
C. Causalgia with vasomotor reflex spasm resulting in warm, dry skin with increased nail growth
A mother complains of sharp pain on radial styloid when carrying her baby. The pain increases with extension of the thumb against resistance. What is the likely diagnosis?
A. Osteoarthritis of radial styloid
B. De Quervain Tenosynovitis
C. Dupuytren’s contracture
D. Scaphoid fracture
B. De Quervain Tenosynovitis
Dupuytren’s contracture involves flexion contractures of the _______________ digits of the hand, MP, and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints.:
A. 2nd and 3rd
B. 3rd and 4th
C. 4th and 5th
D. 1st and 2nd
C. 4th and 5th
Upon examination of your patient with quadriceps contusion, you note that he has deep bruising, pain, swelling, and discoloration along the injury site. His active knee ROM is recorded to be 45 degrees. You classify his injury as:
A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. Severe
D. Malingering
B. Moderate
severe: <45
moderate: 45-90
mild: >90
The following treatments are helpful for plantar fasciitis during the initial stages. Which should be done in the subacute and more chronic stages?
A. Stretching of the Achilles tendon and plantar fascia
B. Icing and deep massage
C. Cortisone injection
D. Taping
C. Cortisone injection
other choices for acute
Diagnostic Criteria for Hand Osteoarthritis include the following, EXCEPT?
A. All of the choices
B. Joint space narrowing in any finger joint
C. Age > 40 years old
D. Presence of heberden’s nodes
E. None of these
E. None of these
Upon extraction of synovial fluid in the knee of OA patient, what is the characteristic of the synovial fluid if it is gray, cloudy, and opaque?
A. Normal
B. Hemorrhagic
C. Inflammatory
D. Non-inflammatory
C. Inflammatory
absence of 2nd to 4th MC
lobster claw or ectodactyly
absence of wrist and hand
acheiria
absence of phalanges
aphalagia
The x-ray of a patient diagnosed with Poland syndrome revealed skin union between the digits of the hand. This is called:
A. Syndactyly
B. Camptodactyly
C. Clinodactyly
D. Macrodactyly
E. Simian Hand
A. Syndactyly
Among the elderly, humeral fractures at the surgical neck are common where this nerve is in direct contact.
A. Ulnar
B. Axillary
C. Median
D. Radial
B. Axillary
On palpation of the foot, tenderness at the articular surface of the talus is a common finding in:
A. Deltoid strain
B. Bursitis
C. Tendonitis
D. Osteoarthritis
D. Osteoarthritis
talus is a WB joint
Rheumatoid arthritis: Limited in ability to perform usual self-care, vocational, and avocational activities
A. class I
B. class II
C. class III
D. class IV
D. class IV
The following statements are correct concerning the facial nerve:
I. The muscles of facial expression including the buccinator is supplied by the facial nerve
II. It supplies the stylohyoid, posterior belly of the digastric muscles of the neck and the stapedius muscles of the middle ear
III. It emerges as two roots from the anterior surface of the hindbrain between the pons and the medulla oblongata
IV. Injury to the facial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen will result in facial palsy, hyperacusis, impaired lacrimation and loss of taste on anterior 2/3 of the tongue.
V. Lesion of the facial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen presents with inability to close the eye on the side of the paralysis
A. All of these
B. I, II and III
C. I, II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and V
E. I, III and V
D. I, II, III and V
True about the trigeminal nerve, EXCEPT:
A. It is a mixed nerve supplying the muscles of mastication and divides into three major branches, ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular.
B. Mediates the reflex arc in the jaw reflex involving the masseter and temporalis muscles
C. If the motor root of the trigeminal nerve is injured, paralysis occurs in the tensor tympani, mylohyoid and anterior belly of the digastric.
D. Taste impulses from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is mediated by the trigeminal nerve
E. None of these
D. Taste impulses from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is mediated by the trigeminal nerve
CN 7 fxn
The vagus nerve is the great parasympathetic nerve that innervates the thorax and the abdomen. These statements correctly describe this nerve, EXCEPT:
I. Stimulation of the vagus nerve may result to vasodilation and bradycardia
II. Branches from the vagus nerve supply the intrinsic muscles of the larynx
III. Dysphagia, dysphonia and regurgitation of food into the nose on swallowing is a result of bilateral lesion to this nerve
IV. In testing for phonation by having the patient say “AH”, deviation of the uvula to the right suggests involvement of the right vagus nerve
A. I and IV
B. II and IV
C. All of these
D. None of these
E. Only IV
E. Only IV
The following are key muscles represented by the C5, C6 myotomes
I. Biceps
II. ECRL
III. ECRB
IV. ECU
V. FCR
A. All of these
B. I, II and III
C. I, II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and V
E. II, III, IV and V
B. I, II and III
Cavities within the brain filled with cerebrospinal fluid:
A. Subarachnoid space
B. Ventricles
C. Meninges
D. Sinuses
B. Ventricles
ventricles are lined with ependymal cells
pharmacokinetics vs. pharmacodynamics
kinetics - body to drug
dynamics - drug to body
Which of the following medications block receptors of the sinoatrial node and myocardial cells, thereby decreasing the force of contraction of the heart as well as the heart rate?
A. Thiazide diuretics
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. Alpha-blockers
D. Beta-blockers
E. ACE-inhibitors
D. Beta-blockers
cancer with worst prognosis
lung cancer
lowest survival rate cancer
pancreatic cancer
CPP of hip
ExAbIR
The following statements are true about the gluteus maximus, except:
A. it works as a force couple with the abdominal muscles to posteriorly tilt the pelvis on the femur and flatten the lumbar spine, decreasing lumbar lordosis
B. it works with the three hamstring muscles to extend the hip
C. it is the most powerful hip extensor, regardless of knee position
D. in the prone position with the knee in flexion, strong action is required of the gluteus maximus to move the hip into extension
E. none of these
E. none of these
Actions of the gluteus medius include:
I. hip flexion
II. hip abduction
III. hip medial rotation
IV. hip extension
A. All of these
B. I, II, III
C. I and III
D. II and IV
E. Only IV
A. All of these
think delts
anterior: FlexIR
middle: abd
posterior: ExER
The menisci are attached to the tibia to deepen the joint’s socket, improving the joint’s congruency. Which of these attachments to the menisci is incorrect?
A. Deep fibers of the mcl attach to the medial meniscus
B. The tendon of the semimembranosus muscle sends fibers to the posterior edge of the medial meniscus
C. The meniscofemoral ligament extends form the medial meniscus to the inside of the medial condyle near the posterior cruciate ligament
D. The popliteus muscle sends fibers to the posterior edge of the lateral meniscus
E. Each meniscus is anchored along its lateral rim to the tibia and joint capsule by a loose coronary ligament
C. The meniscofemoral ligament extends form the medial meniscus to the inside of the medial condyle near the posterior cruciate ligament
extends forming the LATERAL meniscus
meniscofemoral: wrisberg, humphrey
The gastrocnemius and soleus belong to the superficial posterior group of the leg. these two muscles together are also called the triceps surae. The following descriptions are correct, except:
A. the soleus has been found to contain a higher proportion of slow twitch muscle fibers than the gastrocnemius
B. the soleus is more concerned with stabilization at the ankle and control of postural sway than is the gastrocnemius
C. the gastrocnemius and soleus are both involved in activities requiring forceful plantarflexion of the ankle
D. when the gastrocnemius-soleus group is paralyzed, the individual cannot rise on tiptoes and gait is severely affected
E. none of these
E. none of these
Tibiofibular lateral rotation happens in which of the following foot motions?
A. supination, weight-bearing
B. supination, non-weight bearing
C. pronation, weight bearing
D. pronation, non-weight bearing
A. supination, weight-bearing
SSETT - supination, ext. tibial torsion
While you are treating a T4 level SCI male patient, he suddenly had an autonomic dysreflexia.The following are the signs and symptoms of AD, except:
A. Pounding headache
B. Increased BP
C. Increased HR
D. Miosis
C. Increased HR
A male TBI patient was able to open his eyes upon verbal command, pull the therapist’s hand when the anterior forearm was pinched, and speak inappropriate words when asked about how he was feeling in the past few hours. His GCS score is
A. 10
B. 12
C. 13
D. 11
A. 10
While evaluating the reflexes of your TBI patient, you noticed that the patient’s right eye turns to the right when you suddenly turn his head to the right and turns upward when you suddenly lift his head. What reflex could be impaired in this patient?
A. Pupillary light reflex
B. Vertical/diagonal oculocephalic reflex
C. Doll’s eye reflex
D. Fronto-orbital reflex
C. Doll’s eye reflex
OR horizonal oculocephalic reflex
What happens to the axons after plaque formation in patients with multiple sclerosis?
A. The axons become interrupted and undergo anterograde degeneration
B. The axons become interrupted and undergo retrograde degeneration
C. The axons are not interrupted but undergo anterograde degeneration
D. The axons are not interrupted but undergo retrograde degeneration
B. The axons become interrupted and undergo retrograde degeneration
PD test
apomorphine test
Which of the following signs and symptoms would suggest that the patient is LEAST likely to have amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
A. Spasticity on one extremity
B. Clumsiness
C. Decrease in balance
D. Normal bladder function
D. Normal bladder function
Spared in ALS: bladder fxn, cognition, ocular ms, sensory fxn
ALS meds
riluzole/rilutek
Which of the following is not a characteristic of myasthenic syndrome or LambertEaton myasthenicSyndrome?
A. Paraneoplastic syndrome associated with small cell lung cancer
B. Involves antibodies to presynaptic Calcium ion channels
C. Proximal muscle weakness that improves with further exertion
D. Extraocular weakness
D. Extraocular weakness
- affected in MG and botulism
MG - ACh
LEMS - calcium
botulism - nerve block
Hoehn- Yahr classification: patient experiencing unsteadiness when turning or rising from chair.
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
C. Stage 3
In which position is a person with a herniated disc in the low back usually most comfortable?
A. Standing
B. Lying prone with a pillow under the head
C. Lying supine with support under the knees
D. Sitting
C. Lying supine with support under the knees
positioning in prone may cause ms spasm; prone can be uncomfy
A patient was diagnosed to have spondylolisthesis with a forward displacement of his upper lumbar vertebra by 40%. He has a:
A. Grade I spondylolisthesis
B. Grade II spondylolisthesis
C. Grade III spondylolisthesis
D. Grade IV spondylolisthesis
B. Grade II spondylolisthesis
A 42-year-old patient is experiencing TMJ dysfunction. He stated that there is a (+) click upon mouth opening. As a therapist, you might give an expression that the patient is suffering from:
A. Disc displacement
B. TMJ displacement
C. TMJ synovitis
D. TMJ capsulitis
A. Disc displacement
TMJ displacement - click with closing
Which of the following are responsible for mandibular protrusion?
I. Masseter
II. Lateral pterygoid
III. Medial pterygoid
IV. Temporalis
V. Digastric
VI. Infrahyoid muscle
A. I and III
B. II and IV
C. I, II and III
D. I, II, III and IV
E. V and VI
F. All are correct
C. I, II and III
Which of the following is/are considered innervated structure/s of the spine?
A. All of these
B. Transversospinalis
C. Inner of annulus
D. Intertransverse ligament
E. Zygapophyseal joint
E. Zygapophyseal joint
ALL, PLL, interspinous ligament, joint capsule, outer of annulus
ES, multifidi
All of the following statements describe the joints of Von Luschka, EXCEPT:
A. Are called uncovertebral joints
B. Are called uncinate process
C. No synovium; so not considered as true joints
D. Not present at birth; develop by end of first decade
E. Unique articulation seen in upper cervical vertebrae
E. Unique articulation seen in upper cervical vertebrae
C3-C7
Patients with a poking chin or forward head posture is a result of them following EXCEPT: (Tidy’s page 225)
A. overactivity of the SCMs
B. weakness of the deep cervical flexors
C. overactivity of the levator scapulae
D. overactivity of the deep cervical flexors
D. overactivity of the deep cervical flexors
overactivity of deep cervical EXTENSORS
All of the following are true regarding stretching of the thoracic and lumbar spine in lumbar aquatic therapy, except:
A. Patient is in supine, buoyancy supported
B. PT grasps the patient’s abducted arm with fixed hand, while the movement hand is at the lateral aspect of the lower extremity of the side to be stretched
C. Stabilization is placed by the patient’s hip, while the pulling the patient in lateral flexion
D. The patient’s stretch side arm is adducted to end range to facilitate stretch
E. None of these
D. The patient’s stretch side arm is adducted to end range to facilitate stretch
ABDUCTED
Knee capsular tightness has limited a patient’s ability to attain full flexion. An initial intervention a physical therapist can employ to restore joint motion should emphasize sustained mobilization in the loose packed position using:
A. Posterior glide of the tibia and internal rotation of the tibia
B. Anterior glide of the tibia and internal rotation of the tibia
C. Posterior glide of the tibia and external rotation of the tibia
D. Anterior glide of the tibia and external rotation of the tibia
A. Posterior glide of the tibia and internal rotation of the tibia
Which modality causes the greatest increase in tissue temperature?
A. Infrared
B. Ultrasound
C. Diathermy
D. Hot moist pack
C. Diathermy
FOOSH is the MOI. Your patient was referred for an x-ray. There is still pain and swelling. What bone commonly manifests with this type of presentation?
A. Distal radius
B. Scaphoid
C. Trapezium
D. Ulna
B. Scaphoid
(-) X-ray findings - usually later
(+) pain, swelling
Which of the following is bicipital tendonitis LEAST frequently involved in?
A. Anterior laxity of the humerus
B. AC joint sprain
C. Rotator cuff pathology
D. Posterior laxity of the humerus
D. Posterior laxity of the humerus
Is a variation of a typical KAFO, which is designed to help spinal cord injured patients to stand & walk?
A. Parapodium
B. Scott-Craig orthoses
C. Denise-Brown splint
D. A-frame orthosis
B. Scott-Craig orthoses
Transtibial standard
20-50%
transfemoral standard
35-60%
This is a pressure tolerant area of the leg in prosthetic fitting:
A. Tibial crest
B. Medial tibial flare
C. Fibular head
D. Hamstring tendons
B. Medial tibial flare
For a transfemoral amputee who ambulates with circumduction of the prosthesis during swing, one may think of causes and this may include which of the following?
A. Prosthesis too short
B. Weak hip flexors
C. Weak hip abductors
D. Inadequate suspension
D. Inadequate suspension
The nurse teaches parents how to help their children learn impulse control and cooperative behaviors. This would occur during which of the stages of development defined by Erikson?
A. Trust vs mistrust
B. Initiative vs guilt
C. Industry vs inferiority
D. Autonomy vs. Shame and doubt
B. Initiative vs guilt
In what stage is anal sphincter control present?
A. Autonomy vs shame and doubt
B. Initiative vs guilt
C. Industry vs inferiority
D. Identity vs identity confusion
A. Autonomy vs shame and doubt
2-3 yo; toilet training at 3
A therapist is ordered to evaluate and treat a full-term infant. After reviewing the chart, the therapist discovers that at 1 minute after birth the infant exhibited the following symptoms. Acrocyanosis, heart rate of 105 beats per minute, slow respirations, slight response to reflex irritability, and some resistance of the extremities to movement. What was the infant’s APGAR score at 1 minute after birth?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
C. 6
Acrocyanosis: 1
HR 100<: 2
slow respi: 1
slight response: 1
some resistance: 1
The nurse knows that an infant’s birth weight should be tripled by:
A. 9 months
B. 1 year
C. 18 months
D. 2 years
B. 1 year
5 months x 2 birth wt
1 year x 3
In terms of gross motor development, what would the nurse expect a 5-month-old infant to do?
A. Roll from abdomen to back.
B. Roll from back to abdomen.
C. Sit erect without support.
D. Move from prone to sitting position.
A. Roll from abdomen to back.
Prone to supine - 4mo (Por - prone)
Supine to prone 5-7 mons (Supine- Seven)
Most infants begin to fear strangers at age:
A. 2 months
B. 4 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
C. 6 months
7 months - sepanx (Seven -Sepanx)
A 5-year-old child with a T10 level spina bifida is now ready for ambulation training having good sitting balance. The best orthosis for him is:
A. RGO
B. Parapodium
C. KAFO
D. Supramalleolar orthosis
B. Parapodium
T6-T12: parapodium + THKAFO
L1-L2: RGO + HKAFO
L3-L4: KAFO
L5-S1: AFO / Ground reax AFO
S2 down: supramalleolar orthosis
A patient with spina bifida has various manifestations/ orthopedic complications. What is the lowest limit of level with severe hip dislocation?
A. T12
B. L1
C. L2
D. L3
D. L3
A therapist recommends a wheelchair for a patient rehabilitating from a CVA with the goal of independent mobility. The left upper and lower extremities are flaccid and present with edema. There is normal strength on the right, however, the patient’s trunk is hypotonic. The patient is cognitively intact. The MOST appropriate wheelchair for the patient is: (Giles p. 926)
A. Sling seat, sling back, arm board, and elevating leg rests
B. Light weight, solid seat, solid back, arm board, and standard footrests
C. Solid seat, solid back, elevating leg rests, and anti-tippers
D. Lightweight, solid seat, solid back, arm board, and elevating leg rests
D. Lightweight, solid seat, solid back, arm board, and elevating leg rests
You have been asked to provide an assistive device to a 90-year-old female who lives alone and is partial weight bearing on the right lower extremity. Her upper extremity strength is 3+/5. Which assistive device would you recommend for this patient?
A. Lofstrand crutches
B. Walker
C. Large base quad cane
D. Axillary crutches
B. Walker
A patient has a complete SCI at the level of L1. His primary goal is to walk again. The therapist describes it would be MOST appropriate to recommend that this patient use:
A. A RGO and walker
B. A wheelchair, because ambulation is unrealistic
C. Bilateral KAFOs with thoracolumbosacral extension control
D. Bilateral AFOs and Loftstrand crutches
A. A RGO and walker
To prepare a patient with an incomplete T12 paraplegia for ambulation with crutches, the upper quadrant muscles that would be MOST important to strengthen include the:
A. Upper trapezius, rhomboids, and levator scapulae
B. Deltoid, triceps, and wrist flexors
C. Middle trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and triceps
D. Lower trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and triceps
D. Lower trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and triceps
What is the appropriate assistive device for a patient provided that he/she carries 80% of his/her body weight?
A. Walker
B. Cane
C. Axillary crutches
D. Forearm crutches
B. Cane
floor of anatomic snuffbox
scaphoid (1), trapezium
The following are intrinsic muscles of the hand, except:
I. Abductor pollicis brevis
II. Flexor pollicis brevis
III. Palmaris brevis
IV. Extensor pollicis brevis
A. All of these
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. Only IV
E. I, II, III
D. Only IV
Manual muscles testing for Sartorius the lower extremity is placed into a position of?
I. Lateral rotation of the hip
II. Hip abduction
III. Hip flexion
IV. Knee flexion
A. All of these
B. None of these
C. I, II, III
D. II, IV
A. All of these
During a postural examination of a patient with a right thoracic scoliotic curve,the therapist should find that the:
I. Ribs are pushed anteriorly on the right
II. Paraspinal muscles are tight on the right
III. Scapula is prominent on the left
IV. Spinous processes are rotated to the left
A. Only IV
B. All are correct
C. All are incorrect
D. I, II, III
E. II, IV
A. Only IV
Features of the sympathetic nervous system:
I. Fight or flight response
II. Short preganglionic fibers
III. Norepinephrine as the post-ganglionic neurotransmitters
IV. Central nuclei in cranial and spinal portions of the spinal cord
A. I, II, III
B. All of these
C. Only IV
D. I, III
E. II, IV
A. I, II, III
Which of the following describe intrinsic minus position?
I. MCP flexion
II. Interossei and lumbricals are shortened
III. Often found in rheumatoid arthritis
IV. IP extension
A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. II, IV
D. All of these
E. None of these
E. None of these
The most common earliest physical sign of HO
a. Erythema and swelling
b. Limitation of motion
c. Muscle spasm
d. Pain
a. Erythema and swelling
Avascular necrosis of the knee most commonly affects the
a. Patella
b. Fibular head
c. Tibial tuberosity
d. Lateral femoral condyle
c. Tibial tuberosity
The joint that is most commonly affected in septic arthritis
a. Elbow
b. Shoulder
c. Knee
d. Hip
c. Knee
Most common level of ulnar nerve injury
a. Neck
b. Upper arm
c. Wrist
d. Elbow
d. Elbow
. The most common level of stenosis in the low back is
a. L5-S1
b. L4-L5
c. L2-L3
d. L3-L4
b. L4-L5
Trigger finger affects most commonly the:
a. Second and third digits
b. Third and fourth digits
c. The little finger
d. Thumb
b. Third and fourth digits
Most common cause of trigger finger
a. Malunited phalangeal fracture
b. Slip of long extensor tendons
c. Lax collateral ligaments of fingers
d. Swelling of sublimis tendon sheath
d. Swelling of sublimis tendon sheath
The most common site of stress fracture in athletes is the
a. Femoral neck
b. Metatarsal
c. Navicular
d. Tibia
d. Tibia
The most common cause of lower extremity amputation is
a. Trauma
b. Congenital defects
c. Infection
d. Vascular disease
d. Vascular disease
The most common site of intra-cerebral hemorrhage:
a. Caudate nucleus
b. Putamen
c. Fornix
d. Anterior limb of internal capsule
b. Putamen
After the hip, the next most commonly involved joint in HO in SCI patients is:
a. Elbow
b. Ankle
c. Shoulder
d. Knee
d. Knee
Rupture of the Achilles tendon most commonly occurs in the narrowest portion of
the tendon which is how many inches above its point of attachment?
a. 5
b. 3
c. 2
d. 4
c. 2
Most common cranial nerve affected in MS
a. II
b. IV
c. III
d. VII
a. II
The most common deformity of the shoulder in RA
a. Flexion, Abduction
b. Adduction, Internal Rotation
c. Flexion, External Rotation
d. Extension, Internal Rotation
b. Adduction, Internal Rotation
RA-ADIR
The most common site of lacunar infarct
a. Parietal lobe
b. Basal ganglia
c. Temporal lobe
d. Internal capsule
d. Internal capsule
. The most common congenital skeletal deficiency in the upper limb is
a. Absence of distal 2/3 of forearm
b. Amelia
c. A longitudinal deficiency
d. Pocomelia
a. Absence of distal 2/3 of forearm
The most common pattern of injury in supracondylar fracture of the humerus is
a. Internal rotation
b. External rotation
c. Flexion
d. Hyperextension
d. Hyperextension
The most common spinal deformity in myelomeningocele is
a. Scoliosis
b. Lordosis
c. Rigid malformation
d. Kyphosis
a. Scoliosis
The nerve most commonly involved in Hansen’s Disease
a. Common Peroneal Nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
c. Great Auricular nerve
d. Median Nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
leprUsy
prolonged PR, fluctuating P wave, widened QRS
hyponatremia
prolonged QT, flat T wave
hypokalemia
hypoTalemia
prolonged ST & QT
hypocalcemia
shortened QT, peak T wave
hyperkalemia
hyperTalemia
pincer grasp age
10 months
parallel play vs playing near each other age
parallel play: 2yo
playing near each other: 18mo
following 1 step vs 2 step commands age
1 step: 18 mo
2 step: 2yo
The success of ankle joint arthroplasties is dependent on the health of what ankle joint?
a. Talonavicular
b. Talofibular
c. Subtalar
d. Talotibial
c. Subtalar
Airway resistance may be decreased by:
a. Increasing airway diameter and length
b. Increasing airway diameter
c. Decreasing flow rate
d. Decreasing airway length
e. Increasing airflow speed
b. Increasing airway diameter
When does the first fetal movement typically occur?
a. 12 weeks
b. 16 weeks
c. 20 weeks
d. 24 weeks
e. 18 weeks
c. 20 weeks
18 weeks - light fetal movement felt by those prev pregnant before
Which of the following is considered the best exercise for individuals with Huntington’s
disease?
a. Tai Chi
b. High-intensity interval training (HIIT)
c. Yoga
d. Aerobic exercise like walking and cycling
e. Resistance training
d. Aerobic exercise like walking and cycling
.You are treating a patient for low back pain. You have established a good relationship
and even joked around with him. However, a few weeks later, the patient has shown
only slight improvement and suddenly starts yelling at you unprovoked. What behavior
is he exhibiting?
a. Projection
b. Displacement
c. Compensation
d. Substitution
e. Regression
b. Displacement
Which of the following types of cancer primarily occurs in the intracellular space?
a. Leukemia
b. Lymphoma
c. Sarcoma
d. Carcinoma
e. neuroblastoma
a. Leukemia
bacteria most commonly assoc with meningitis
- streptoccocus pneumoniae
- haemophilus influenzae
- nisseria meningitidis
.What is the most common complication in a patient with diabetes mellitus (DM)?
a. Diabetic neuropathy
b. Diabetic retinopathy
c. Diabetic nephropathy
d. Cardiovascular disease
e. Diabetic foot ulcers
d. Cardiovascular disease
Where are norepinephrine receptors located in the body?
a. Cytoplasm
b. Plasma membrane
c. Cytosol
d. Nucleus
e. Mitochondria
b. Plasma membrane
A 40-year-old patient presents with increased lumbar lordosis and a forward head
posture. Which muscle is most likely shortened?
a. Upper trapezius
b. Erector spinae
c. Hip flexors
d. Rectus abdominis
c. Hip flexors
Which type of receptor demonstrates after discharge?
a. Vision
b. Phasic
c. Golgi tendon organ
d. Olfactory
e. Tonic
e. Tonic
tonic - adapts slowly to stimulus
The substantia gelatinosa is located in which part of the spinal cord?
a. Anterior horn
b. Posterior horn
c. Lateral column
d. Dorsal root ganglion
e. White matter
b. Posterior horn
What structure separates the cerebral cortex and the cerebellum?
a. Falx cerebri
b. Tentorium cerebelli
c. Dura mater
d. Pia mater
e. Arachnoid mater
b. Tentorium cerebelli
Which of the following muscles will
be affected in a tunnel of guyon
compression neuropathy?
I. Adductor pollicis
II. 4th and 5th lumbricals
III. Flexor digiti minimi
IV. Interossei
V. 4th and 5th FDP
a. All of these
b. I, II, III, and IV
c. I, II, and III
d. I, III, and V
e. II, IV, and V
force output
FE > SE > isom > SC > FC
The components of flexor
synergy for shoulder includes:
a. Scapular adduction, depression, shoulder adduction and IR
b. Scapular adduction, elevation, shoulder Abduction and ER
c. Scapular abduction, protraction, shoulder Adduction and IR
d. Scapular abduction, retraction and shoulder Abduction
b. Scapular adduction,
elevation, shoulder
Abduction and ER
The following are included under
perception, except:
I. Right/left discrimination
disorder and vertical orientation
II. Stereognosis and 2-pt discrimination
III. Tactile localization and vibration
IV. Hemianopsia and neglect
a. All of these
b. I, II, and III
c. I and III
d. Only IV
e. None of these
If the rhomboids major, rhomboids minor and pectoralis minor are paralyzed, which movement will be hard for the patient to perform?
a. Upward rotation
b. Protraction
c. Downward rotation
d. Retraction
c. Downward rotation
The volar surfaces of the forearm, wrist and hand, are divided into five flexor zones which when lacerated, can present with symptoms that are consistent with the structures injured in that specific zone. Which of the following would BEST describe the consequences of an injury to Zone II?
a. Inability to complete a full fist due
to rupture of the flexor digitorum
profundus
b. Loss of wrist and digital flexion,
with damage to the ulnar and median nerves
c. Disruption of MCP flexion due to
rupture of the lumbricales
d. Inability to flex the PIP and DIP due to injury to extrinsic finger flexors
d. Inability to flex the PIP and DIP due to injury to extrinsic finger flexors
You were endorsed with a patient who
sustained a laceration injury to the
hand. The surgeon informed you that it was most challenging to perform the surgery owing to poor vascular supply of this severed zone of the hand. Which of the following best describes this region?
a. It is located from the distal FDP
insertion to the level of distal palmar
crease
b. It is located from the distal
insertion of the FDS to the level of the distal palmar crease
c. It is the area under the transverse
carpal tunnel
d. It is from the neck of the metacarpals to the distal carpal tunnel
e. It is the area proximal to the wrist
b. It is located from the distal
insertion of the FDS to the level of the distal palmar crease
The neurological basis for sexual
dysfunction in men with spinal cord
injury (SCI) are as follows: EXCEPT:
a. The parasympathetic spinal outflow originating from the S-2 to S-4 spinal segments is primarily
responsible for mediating reflexogenic erection
b. The T-10 to S-2 spinal segments
contain the reflex arc that receives
sensory afferents from the genitals
c. The neural output from the
hypothalamus to the sexual organs
courses in the anterolateral columns
to terminate in the intermediolateral
cell columns of T-10 to L-3
d. In men, the sympathetic output is
primarily responsible for regulating
ejaculation and psychogenic component of penile erection
e. Supraspinal component of the motor pathways descends with the
corticospinal tracts to the S-2 to S4 segments of the sacral cord
b. The T-10 to S-2 spinal segments
contain the reflex arc that receives
sensory afferents from the genitals
S2-S4 bulbocavernosus reflex
Following are measurable determinants of gait, EXCEPT:
a. The knee should remain flexed during all components of stance phase
b. The body’s center of gravity lies two inches in front of the second sacral vertebrae and oscillates no more than two inches in a vertical direction
c. The pelvis and trunk shift laterally
approximately one inch to the weightbearing side
d. The width of the base should not be more than two to four inches from heel to heel
a. The knee should remain flexed during all components of stance phase
The following muscles arise from the
medial epicondyle of the humerus and bounds the medial side of the
antecubital fossa:
a. Flexor Carpi Radialis, Palmaris
Longus and Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
b. Flexor Digitorum Sublimis, Flexor
Digitorum Profundus and Flexor
Pollicis Longus
c. None of these
d. Pronator Teres, Palmaris Longus, and Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
d. Pronator Teres, Palmaris Longus, and Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
Paralysis of the left gluteus maximus
is compensated for during the stance phase by:
a. Increased ankle plantarflexion of the affected extremity
b. Hyperextension of the spine
c. External tibial torsion at heel
strike
d. Maintenance of knee flexion of
affected extremity
b. Hyperextension of the spine
You are treating a patient on the field who has the following clinical features: demonstrates weakness,
fatigue, and loss of motor tone, with blurred vision and elevated body temperature. Which of the following heat disorders is this patient most likely experiencing?
a. Heat cramps
b. Heat syncope
c. Heat exhaustion
d. Heat hyperpyrexia
c. Heat exhaustion
A 67-year-old male with long-standing cardiac pathology is
referred to physical therapy. The medical record indicated
the patient is taking Nitrostat. The primary function of
nitrates is:
a. To strengthen the heart’s pumping force
b. To produce a general vasodilation of vascular structures
c. To increase the excretion of sodium and water
d. To decrease electrical conduction
b. To produce a general vasodilation of vascular structures
A physical therapist attempts to prevent alveolar collapse in
a patient following thoracic surgery. Which breathing technique would be the most beneficial to achieve the
established goal?
a. Diaphragmatic breathing
b. Pursed-lip breathing
c. Incentive respiratory spirometry
d. Segmental breathing
c. Incentive respiratory spirometry
A physical therapist performs rescue breathing on a patient
who collapsed in the physical therapy gym. Which of the
following is not accurate when performing rescue breathing
on an adult?
a. Maintain open airway with head-tilt/chin-lift
b. Give one breath every five seconds
c. Pinc nose shut
d. Continue for 30 seconds; approximately six breaths
d. Continue for 30 seconds; approximately six breaths
cont. for 60s
A patient positioned in standing completes shoulder medial
and lateral rotation exercises using a piece of elastic tubing.
Which plane of the body is utilized in this activity?
a. Coronal
b. Frontal
c. Sagittal
d. Transverse
d. Transverse
vertical axis
A patient is referred to physical therapy after sustaining a
lower extremity injury. The physical therapist examines the
patient and identifies several postural abnormalities
including genu varum. Which of the following motions or
postures is not often correlated with genu varum?
a. Lateral patellar subluxation
b. Excessive hip abduction
c. Ipsilateral hip lateral rotation
d. Medial tibial torsion
a. Lateral patellar subluxation
A physical therapist performs a variety of special tests on a
patient with a suspected anterior cruciate ligament injury.
Which special test is not indicative of a one-plane anterior
instability ligamentous test?
a. Lachman test
b. Drawer test
c. Active drawer test
d. Loose test
d. Loose test
A physical therapist completes a dorsal glide of the
humeroradial articulation with a patient in supine. When
performing this mobilization technique, the therapist should
stabilize the:
a. Distal humerus from the lateralside of the patient’s
arm
b. Distal humerus from the medial side of the
patient’s arm
c. Proximal humerus from the lateral side of the
patient’s arm
d. Proximal humerus from the medial side of the
patient’s arm
a. Distal humerus from the lateralside of the patient’s
arm
OKC so stabilize distal
A patient placed on bed rest is examined in physical therapy.
Which effect would not typically be associated with extended
bed rest?
a. A decrease in physical work capacity
b. An increase in lung volume and vital capacity
c. An increase in the heart rate response to activity
d. A negative nitrogen and calcium balance
b. An increase in lung volume and vital capacity
A patient with a transfemoral amputation and an above knee
prosthesis demonstrates forward trunk leaning during the
stance phase of gait with a rolling walker. What is the MOST
LIKELY cause of this gait deviation?
a. Prosthesis is too long
b. Walker is set too high
c. Weak gluteus maximus
d. Unstable knee unit
d. Unstable knee unit
A retired administrative assistant with a history of chronic
neck pain secondary to whiplash associated disorder (WAD)
is referred to physical therapy. The patient denies
experiencing any radiating pain to the upper extremities and
is neurologically intact on examination. Which intervention
should be emphasized in the physical therapy plan of care?
a. Wearing a cervical collar
b. Thoracic manipulation
c. C1-2 self-sustained natural apophyseal glide (SNAG)
d. Submaximal deep neck flexor endurance training
d. Submaximal deep neck flexor endurance training
What is the best position for a patient with disc herniation
lateral to the Left L4 nerve root?
A. Trunk flexion and lateral bending to the left
B. Trunk extension and lateral bending to the right
C. Trunk flexion and lateral bending to the right
D. Trunk extension and lateral bending to the left
B. Trunk extension and lateral bending to the right
I/L trunk bend if medial to nerve root
A physical therapist works with an eight-year-old child who
walks with an equinus gait pattern. Which of the following
interventions would be the MOST appropriate to address the
muscle shortening associated with this gait pattern?
a. side stepping
b. backward stepping
c. activities in single leg stance
d. toe walking
b. backward stepping
A physical therapist treats a patient wearing a shoe that incorporates a rocker bottom. This type of modification would be the MOST beneficial for a patient diagnosed with:
A. Hallux rigidus
B. Achilles tendonitis
C. Plantar fasciitis
D. Posterior tibial tendonitis
A. Hallux rigidus
A note in the medical record indicates that a patient was recently prescribed Lasix. Which condition is MOST commonly associated with the use of this medication?
A. atrial flutter
B. deep vein thrombosis
C. congestive heart failure
D. hyperlipidemia
C. congestive heart failure
A physical therapists works on transfer activities with a patient diagnosed with a complete C5 spinal cord injury. Which of the following muscles would the patient be able to utilize during the training session?
A. Brachioradialis
B. Pronator teres
C. Extensor carpi radialis brevis
D. Latissimus dorsi
A. Brachioradialis
PT - C6-7
ECRB, Lats - C6, C7, C8
a physical therapist notices that a patient with a transfemoral amputation consistently takes a longer step with the prosthetic limb than the contralateral limb. the MOST likely cause of the deviation is
A. hip flexion contracture
B. weak abdominal muscles
C. weak residual limb
D. fear and insecurity
A. hip flexion contracture
A physical therapist treats a patient rehabilitating from a traumatic brain injury by applying approximation to the pelvis to increase bilateral lower extremity weight bearing. The patient exhibits significant hypertonicity and the presence of the positive support reflex. The therapist is MOST likely using the therapeutic ball to
A. Avoid a mass extensor pattern in standing
B. Encourage active assistive range of motion
C. Allow the patient partial weight bearing through the ball
D. Limit range of motion at the shoulder
A. Avoid a mass extensor pattern in standing
A patient diagnosed with patellofemoral syndrome discusses his past medical history with a physical therapist. The patient reports having anterior ruciate ligament reconstruction surgery on his right knee two years ago, however, the therapist is not able to identify a scar over the anterior surface of the right knee. Assuming the surgeon utilized an autograft for the reconstruction, which of the following would be the MOST likely graft site?
A. Semitendinosus and semimembranosus
B. Semimembranosus and gracilis
C. Semitendinosus and biceps femoris
D. Semitendinosus and gracilis
D. Semitendinosus and gracilis
GrafT
A physical therapist assesses the deep tendon reflexes of a patient as part of the lower quarter screening examination. The therapist determines that the right and left patellar tendon reflex and the left Achilles tendon reflex are 2+, while the right Achilles tendon reflex is absent. The clinical condition that could BEST explain this finding is:
A. Peripheral neuropathy
B. Cerebral palsy
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Intermittent claudication
A. Peripheral neuropathy
A physical therapist treats a patient that sustained an acute wound to the anterior surface of the forearm. Which cell component would have been the FIRST to arrive at the injury site immediately following the incident?
A. Endothelial cells
B. Fibroblasts
C. Platelets
D. Leukocytes
C. Platelets
a physical therapist prepares iontophoresis over the anterior surface of patient’s knee. the therapist would like to keep the current density low in order to avoid skin irritation. which of the listed parameters would BEST accomplish the therapist’s objective?
A. current amplitude of 4 mA; electrode with an area of 4 cm2
B. current amplitude of 3 mA; electrode with an area of 6cm2
C. current amplitude of 4mA; electrode with an area of 12 cm2
D. current amplitude of 3 mA; electrode with an area of 4 cm2
C. current amplitude of 4mA; electrode with an area of 12 cm2
A physical therapist attempts to strengthen the lumbricals on a patient with a low metatarsal arch. Which exercise would be the MOST appropriate?
A. resisted extension of the metatarsophalangeal joint
B. resisted abduction of the metatarsophalangeal joint
C. resisted flexion of the metatarsophalangeal joint
D. resisted adduction of the metatarsophalangeal joint
C. resisted flexion of the metatarsophalangeal joint
lumbricals - MTP flexion, IP ext
This effectively raises the COM’s predicted lowest point by approximately 2.0-2.5 cm
Pelvic rotation
If your patient cannot support weight on one leg but has good muscular strength and coordination, which crutch-walking gait would you choose?
Swing-through three-point
A physical therapist reads in the medical record that x-rays confirmed the presence of a SLAP lesion. Which injury would MOST likely be associated with this type of lesion?
biceps tendon rupture
When testing a patient with suspected sacroiliac dysfunction, a cluster of sacroiliac provocative tests is proven to have the highest diagnostic accuracy in detecting sacroiliac dysfunction. These tests are:
A. Compression test, Distraction test, Thigh thrust, Sacral thrust, Gillet’s test
B. Approximation test, Gapping test, Oostagard test, Sacral apex pressure test, Gaenslen’s test
B. Approximation test, Gapping test, Oostagard test, Sacral apex pressure test, Gaenslen’s test
Subjects with pure word deafness _______.
A. Cannot understand or repeat spoken language
B. Can understand written language but cannot repeat spoken language
B. Can understand written language but cannot repeat spoken language
When is the iliopsoas most active during the gait cycle?
A. Toe-off
B. Pre-swing
A. Toe-off
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is a commonly used medication for insomnia for patients with chronic pain. Its mechanism of action is:
A. serotonin reuptake inhibition
B. antihistamine
B. antihistamine
Affectation of both the third convolution and posterior portion of the superior temporal gyrus, in a Middle Cerebral Artery Syndrome will present with:
A. broca’s
B. wernicke’s
C. global
C. global
Rupture of the tendo calcaneus results in inability to do which movement?
A. invert the midfoot
B. plantarflex the ankle
C. evert the midfoot
D. dorsiflex the ankle
B. plantarflex the ankle
Your home care patient of more than 10 years is a 65/M SCI T6 level complete; wheelchair-dependent. You know that aside from regular ROM exercises, maintenance of conditioning and function, other areas need to be checked as well. You remind him about the need to have which of the following organ systems checked?
A. pulmonary and cardiac
B. all systems
C. bowel and bladder
D. integumentary
C. bowel and bladder
Spatial attention is a component process needed for mobility. Its role in mobility is _____________.
A. Necessary for environmental navigation
B. necessary for awareness of both sides of space
B. necessary for awareness of both sides of space
What is necessary during the gait cycle for the 1st MTP joint?
A. 25-40 PF
B. 60-75 DF
C. 25-40 DF
D. 60-75 PF
B. 60-75 DF
This pelvic bone when fractured or dislocated renders the pelvis more unstable and a more complicated injury. What is this pelvic bone?
A. iliac
B. ischium
C. pubis
A. iliac
While exercising on the ergometer, an amazing therapist thinks of the cardiovascular effects of exercise on your body which include which one of the following?
A. decreased heart rate and hypertension
B. increased VO2 max
B. increased VO2 max
On examination of a female elderly patient with ankle pain, she complains that her ankle pain had been there for several years, and is described as stiffness and discomfort especially on ambulation. With just this information, what do you consider?
A. ankle OA
B. posterior tibial tendonitis
Most important vitamins that play vital roles in bone formation and remodelling include Vitamins:
A. A, C, D
B. A, D, E, K
The 40-year-old female patient who sustained a tibial condyle fracture of the knee has a dark swelling of the affected knee. You advise the patient to elevate the extremity when lying or sitting. After 1 week, the swelling decreases. What is the most likely cause of the knee swelling?
A. hemarthrosis
B. synovitis
B. synovitis
sensation preserved in S4-S5; more than half the key muscles below the neurological level of injury less than Grade 3/5
ASIA impairment scale C
Which of the following is allowable in patients on inpatient cardiac rehabilitation program?
HR inc of 20
haracterized by a steady deterioration in disease from onset but with occasional acute attacks. This type of MS is
A. PPMS
B. SPMS
A. PPMS
SCI patient A: Deficits are 0/5 both biceps and the entire UE; 0/5 both LEs; sensory 50% over neck area only. Orthosis?
A. Cervicothoracic orthosis
B. TLS orthosis
C. Halo vest
D. None of this
C. Halo vest
Orthoses are used in DMD for several reasons. Which one of the following may NOT be what orthoses are used for in Duchenne muscular dystrophy patients?
A. stretching of LE ms
B. continuous fxnal ambu
C. prolonged standing
B. continuous fxnal ambu
In a patient with spastic hypertonia, any of the following may be used EXCEPT:
A. Diazepam
B. Captopril
C. Baclofen
D. Dantrolene sodium
B. Captopril
ACE inhibitor
Which of the following would be the end-stage of Cor Pulmonale and Congestive Heart failure in COPD?
A. pulmonary HTN
B. heart failure
C. LV failure
C. LV failure
What is the most common indication for joint arthroplasties?
A. fractures
B. OA
C. RA
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
The type of Idiopathic Scoliosis which will usually NOT spontaneously resolve is __.
A. adult onset
B. adolescent onset
C. infant onset
D. juvenile onset
D. juvenile onset
The greatest amount of flexion in the cervical spine occurs at the level of
A. C2-C3
B. C4-C5
C. C6-C7
D. C7-C8
B. C4-C5
Strong opiates may be used for chronic pain patients with _______.
A. Cancer pain
B. Neurogenic pain
C. Cancer, neurogneic, nociceptive pain
D. Nociceptive pain
C. Cancer, neurogneic, nociceptive pain
On examination of a patient with foot and ankle pain, on history she notes she has had several incidences of ankle sprain. When she walks on rocky ground, the ankle feels unstable and times, gives away. On P.E., you note especially the poor proprioception in the affected leg. What does the patient have?
A. lateral ligament sprain
B. lengthened lateral ligaments
B. lengthened lateral ligaments
The following are classified under the Primary neurodegenerative disorders causing Parkinsonism, EXCEPT
A. Multiple systems atrophy
B. Progressive supranuclear palsy
C. multiple cerebral infarctions
D. cortico-basal degeneration
C. multiple cerebral infarctions
In Myelomeningocoele, this level of lesion is most often associated with flaccid lower limbs and frog-leg positioning. What level is this?
A. high lumbar (L1-L2)
B. Sacral
C. low lumbar (L3-L5)
D. thoracic
D. thoracic
Airy, your patient withFascioscapulohumeral dystrophy has affectation of the following muscles: orbicularis oris, zygomaticus, orbicularis oculi. She will have difficulty in the following activities EXCEPT:
A. drinking from a straw
B. frowning when angry
C. closing her eyes
D. puckering her lips
B. frowning when angry
FEV1 of at least 80% of the predicted value
mild COPD
FEV1 between 50% and 80% of the predicted value
moderate
FEV1 between 30% and 50% of the predicted value
severe
FEV1 of less than 30% of the predicted value
very severe
FEV1/FVC < 70%; FEV1 <30% predicted or FEV1 <50% predicted. Plus chronic respiratory failure
very severe COPD
Psychosocial benefits of exercise in chronic heart disease patients include most importantly which of the following?
A. improved sex live
B. return to work
C. improved well being
C. improved well being
Pre-prosthetic stage of the Rehab management of amputees include the following. Which does NOT belong to the pre-prosthetic stage?
A. fitness or cardiovascular assessment
B. pre-ambulation training
C. psychological assessments
C. psychological assessments
Treatment in the early stages of COPD include which of the following?
increased ____.
increased/maintain exercise tolerance
Indifference, cognitive slowness, “pseudo-depression” are manifestations of which neurobehavioral syndrome?
A. temporolimbic syndrome
B. dorsolateral convexity frontal syndrome
B. dorsolateral convexity frontal syndrome
During swing phase, weak hip flexors causes which of the following gait deviations?
A. hip hiking
B. lumbar hyperextension** (not sure)
C. circumduction
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
Which of the following is NOT an Intrinsic risk factor which predispose to the development of pressure ulcers?
A. muscle atrophy
B. smoking substance abuse
B. smoking substance abuse
Which of the following actions of steroids are used for chronic pulmonary disease?
A. increases inflammatory response
B. decreases inflammatory response
C. bronchodilation
B. decreases inflammatory response
Hunter, a post coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) patient, who’s on maintenance phase of a Cardiac Rehab program, a moderate intensity program will have a target heart rate of ______________.
A. 60-70% HRmax
B. 70-80% HRmax
C. 50-60% HRmax
D. 80-90% HRmax
A. 60-70% HRmax
recommended calcium intake for 14-18 and >70yo
1200 mg/day
recommended calcium intake for 19-50 and 51-70yo
1000mg/day
A 30-year-old sustained a tri-malleolar fracture of the ankle. The forces involved in this type of fracture include abduction/lateral rotation force and ____________.
A. PF
B. DF
C. adduction
C. adduction
HLA-B27 is specific for
A. psoriatic arthritis
B. reactive arthritis
C. AS
C. AS
Tarsometatarsal disarticulation is also called ______________.
Lisfranc
ankle disarticulation
syme
Your female friend is noted to have scapular winging. You make a mental note that the muscles that may be involved are the following EXCEPT:
A. pec minor
B. trapezius
C. SA
D. NOTA
D. NOTA
Though evidence remains inconclusive, the use of this group of medications is suggested to interfere with fracture healing, thus it is used sparingly in post fracture patients. This is the _________
A. NSAIDs
B. corticosteroids
A. NSAIDs
Your 69-year-old aunt with severe Deg OA of both knees, is hypertensive and has heart disease. She also has a history of peptic ulcer and has been taking Paracetamol for pain relief but still has pain. Other drugs allowable for her include which one?
A. intraarticular steroids
B. opioid analgesics
C. NSAIDs
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
Physical therapy/ Vestibular Rehab may not be indicated or not appropriate for:
A. BPPV
B. UVH
C. centrally located lesions
D. Meniere’s disease
D. Meniere’s disease
Spasticity declines, movement combinations are mastered during which Brunnstrom Stage of Stroke recovery?
stage 4
The following prosthetic causes may result in rotation of forefoot at heel strike of an amputee EXCEPT
A. rigid SACH heel cushion
B. excessive suspension
B. excessive suspension
Patient figured in a traction injury to the anterior division of the brachial plexus. PT expected to see weakness of the elbow flexors, wrist flexors and forearm proration. The PT would also expect to find more weakness in
A. wrist extension
B. thumb abduction
B. thumb abduction
A post stroke patient can maintain standing without any external support and has some sway. If he can remain standing while turning his head or trunks, the functional grade is
Good static and fair dynamic standing balance
At what phase of the gait cycle would a PT expect to notice an everted posture of the calcaneus
A. from midstance through heel off (toe off)
B. from initial contact: (heel strike) through loading response (foot-flat)
B. from initial contact: (heel strike) through loading response (foot-flat)
first 15% of gait calcaneus everts
A physical therapist identifies a number of substances that influence circulation. Which of the following substances is stimulated by decreased arterial pressure and acts as a vasoconstrictor?
A. Angiotensin
B. Histamine
A. Angiotensin
A patient diagnosed with Meniere’s disease presents with vertigo. Which sign or symptom is inconsistent with this medical condition?
A. vertigo
B. nystagmus that resolves in 30s
C. tinnitus
D. head tilt to one side
D. head tilt to one side
A physical therapy works with a patient diagnosed with congestive heart failure who presents with dyspnea during ambulation. The patient has an ejection fraction of less than 55 percent. Which of the following interventions would be the MOST appropriate?
A. instruction in pursed lip breathing
B. Education on energy conservation
B. Education on energy conservation
Tiny red or purple hemorrhagic
spots appearing in clusters, may
be a sign of thrombocytopenia.
a. Petechiae
b. Ecchymosis
c. Jaundice
d. Bruise
a. Petechiae
Bluish-purple to greenish-yellow
bruising or bleeding under the
skin often caused by trauma:
a. Petechiae
b. Ecchymosis
c. Jaundice
d. Bruise
b. Ecchymosis
Pain medication recommended for
peptic ulcer
a. Ibuprofen
b. Ketorolac
c. Aspirin
d. Diclofenac
b. Ketorolac
Which of the following is a
leukotriene receptor blocker?
a. Alprostadil
b. Aspirin
c. Montelukast
d. Ibuprofen
c. Montelukast
Severe headache for almost 2 hours
followed by a sudden loss of
consciousness
a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
b. Viral encephalitis
c. Migraine
d. Brain tumor
a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Severe headache with
photosensitivity, neck stiffness,
and abrupt onset of symptoms
a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
b. Viral encephalitis
c. Migraine
d. Brain tumor
b. Viral encephalitis
If you are rubbing a salt to
stimulate the taste receptors, you
increase the sensitivity of
sweetness. This principle is known
as:
a. Simultaneous contract
b. Accommodation
c. Compensation
d. Successive contrast
d. Successive contrast
Lesion to the third frontal
convolution will result to the
following, except:
a. Broca’s aphasia
b. Non-fluent speech with good
comprehension
c. Poor repetition, naming,
writing and reading
comprehension
d. All of these
e. None of these
c. Poor repetition, naming,
writing and reading
comprehension
global aphasia
A 28-year-old man presents with
suicidal thoughts for the last 2
weeks. Patient states that voices
have been telling him to “kill
himself” and “finish it”. He
believes that these voices are
part of a conspiracy at work to
get him to leave his job.
According to him, he first noticed
his coworkers were starting to
plot against him 7 months ago when
they started to blame him to work
that wasn’t done. He started to
hear voices 2 months after that.
He has also been feeling very sad
since the voices started and now
feels depressed most days. Two
weeks ago, he started to seriously
think about suicide and developed
a plan to hang himself but then
decided to come seek help. On
physical exam, he has restricted
affect and is fearful at times. He
has suicidal ideation, auditory
hallucinations, and appears to be responding to internal stimuli
(looks over his shoulder, saying
“Stop”). Patient is most likely
suffering from:
a. Schizophrenia
b. Major bipolar disorder
c. Minor bipolar disorder
d. Schizoaffective disorder
d. Schizoaffective disorder
schizophrenia + mood disorder (e.g. BPD or depression)
A 21-year-old man presents with 2
months of paranoia and odd
behavior. He reports that someone
planted a microchip in his brain
and his thoughts are being
intercepted. He hears their voices
for most of the day and believes
the voices are CIA officers. His
family reports that the odd
behavior started 7 months ago,
which they thought was due to
school stress. On physical exam,
he is paranoid, disheveled,
malodorous, nervous, and has flat
affect. His thoughts are illogical
and disorganized with thought
blocking. Patient has:
a. Schizophrenia
b. Major bipolar disorder
c. Paranoid disorder
d. Schizoaffective disorder
a. Schizophrenia
- A 45-year-old man has always
experience co-occurring symptoms
of depression – including feeling
“down in the dumps,” having poor
appetite, feeling hopeless, and
suffering from insomnia – during
his episodes of active psychosis.
These depressive symptoms occurred only during his psychotic
episodes. After his psychotic
episodes were successfully
controlled by medication, no
further symptoms of depression
were present. The patient has
never met full criteria for major
depressive disorder at any time.
What is the appropriate DSM-5
Diagnosis?
a. Schizophrenia
b. Schizoaffective disorder
c. Persistent depressive disorder
(dysthymia)
d. Schizophrenia and persistent
depressive disorder
(dysthymia)
e. Unspecific schizophrenia
spectrum and other psychotic
disorder
a. Schizophrenia
Refers to frequent and persistent
pattern of angry/irritable mood,
argumentative behavior, or
vindictiveness.
a. Intermittent explosive
disorder
b. Oppositional defiant disorder
c. Conduct disorder
d. Violent behavior
b. Oppositional defiant disorder
. Discrete episodes of failure to
resist aggressive impulses that
result in serious assaultive acts
or destruction of property.
a. Intermittent explosive
disorder
b. Oppositional defiant disorder
c. Conduct disorder
d. Violent behavior
a. Intermittent explosive disorder
A 28-year-old woman presents to
her physician with abdominal pain
that has persisted intermittently
for a decade. The pain has been
particularly intense for the past
several weeks. She is unable to
sleep at night and has “tried
everything for the pain but it
won’t go away.” She reports
nausea and diarrhea. She also has
longstanding complaints of
chronic headaches, muscle spasms,
and dyspareunia (painful sexual
intercourse). Her chart shows
multiple visits over the years
for similar symptoms with only
vague physical examination
findings and no laboratory
findings. She has had several
investigative surgeries and
procedures without results. She
asks if she should have another
surgery to find out what is
wrong.
a. Body dysmorphic disorder
b. Conversion disorder
c. Illness anxiety disorder
d. Somatic symptom disorder
e. Malingering
d. Somatic symptom disorder
. A 19-year-old woman is
hospitalized for dehydration
caused by severe, laxativeinduced diarrhea. She is depressed about the recent breakup of a romantic
relationship. She admits that she
uses laxatives because she has
been binge- eating frequently and
is worried about gaining weight.
Although the woman has BMI 16,
she believes that she is overweight. Which of the following most likely diagnosis?
a. Anorexia nervosa
b. Bulimia nervosa
c. Binge-eating disorder
d. Major depressive disorder
e. Brief psychotic disorder
a. Anorexia nervosa
“Although the woman has BMI 16,”
First-line treatment for panic
disorder:
a. SNRIs
b. SSRIs
c. Alprazolam
d. Bezodiazipines
b. SSRIs
fluoxetine, sertraline, escitalopram
prozac, zoloft, lexapro
A high school student complains
of fatigue and a sore throat.
She has swollen, tender lymph
nodes and a fever. Blood test
results show an increased white
blood cell count with many
atypical lymphocytes; the
number and appearance of the
erythrocytes are normal. This
student is likely to have
a. Acquired Immunodeficiency
Syndrome
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Infectious mononucleosis
d. Hodgkin disease
e. Factor VIII deficiency
c. Infectious mononucleosis
A 30-year-old patient has been
anemic for several years. The
patient now complains of poor
vision and hearing loss. It is
determined that the patient lost function of some of the
cranial nerves. Based on these
findings, the patient might be
having:
a. Acromegaly
b. Osteopetrosis
c. Osteoporosis
d. Osteomalacia
e. Rickets
b. Osteopetrosis
How do you differentiate heat
exhaustion from heat stroke?
a. Heat stroke does not
present with altered
mental status,
delirium, seizures
b. Body temperature for heat
exhaustion goes beyond 104
degrees Fahrenheit
c. Exhaustion presents with
decreased sympathetic
activity resulting to
diaphoresis, flushing
d. Heat stroke can lead to heat
exhaustion of not promptly
treated
c. Exhaustion presents with
decreased sympathetic
activity resulting to
diaphoresis, flushing
A patient who reports falling
on the shoulder during a biking
competition came to the
emergency room. According to
the chart made by the residentin- duty, the patient presented
with a “step-off deformity” and
the clavicle appears to be
completely higher than the tip
of the shoulder. Imaging studies
show that both the
coracoclavicular and
acromioclavicular ligaments
have been torn. How would you
document these findings?
a. (+) AC joint dislocation, Type II
b. (+) AC joint dislocation, Type III
c. (+) AC joint dislocation, Type IV
d. (+) AC joint dislocation, Type V
b. (+) AC joint dislocation, Type III
1: AC sprain, CC normal
2: AC torn, CC sprain
3: AC torn, CC torn
- 25-100%
4: AC torn, CC torn
- skin tenting; posterior displacement of clavicle (Por=posterior)
5: AC torn, CC torn
- >100%
6: AC torn, CC torn
- inferior displacement of clavicle
motor stimulation (frequency, stimulation)
long phase stim, low frequency
sensory stimulation (frequency, stimulation)
short phase stim, high frequency (think TENS)
cubital tunnel syndrome
ulnar neuropathy
A patient in an acute care hospital has a catheter inserted into the internal jugular vein. The catheter travels through the superior vena cava and into the right atrium. The device permits removal of blood samples, administration of medication, and monitoring of central venous pressure. The device is BEST termed
A. Arterial line
B. Central Venous pressure catheter
C. Hickman catheter
D. Swan-Ganz Catheter
C. Hickman catheter
A physical therapist is treating a patient in an acute care setting with a hematologic disorder. The MOST appropriate profile to monitor on a daily basis in order to ensure patient safety during physical therapy would be:
A. Complete blood count
B. Hemoglobin
C. Arterial blood gas
D. Blood glucose
A. Complete blood count
A physical therapist uses a self-care assessment to examine change over time in rehabilitation programs. The assessment uses a seven point scale to examine 18 items. The collected information is based on observations of patient performance. This type of assessment MOST closely describes the:
A. Functional Status Index
B. Physical Self-Maintenance Scale
C. Katz Index of Activities of Daily Living
D. Functional Independence Measure
D. Functional Independence Measure
A physical therapist directs a patient in a stretching maneuver as part of a home exercise program. Based on the depicted image (ankle plantarflexed with knees flexed), which muscle is being stretched?
A. rectus femoris
B. biceps femoris
C. soleus
D. gastrocnemius
C. soleus
A physical therapist observes a patient during gait training. The patient has normal strength and equal leg length. As the patient passes midstance he slightly vaults and exhibits early toe off. The MOST likely cause of this deviation is:
A. Limited dorsiflexion
B. Weakness of the dorsiflexors
C. Weakness of the hip abductors
D. Limited plantarflexion
A. Limited dorsiflexion
A patient with limited elbow and forearm range of motion is referred to physical therapy. When mobilizing the humeroradial articulation, the treatment plane is considered to be:
A. in the concave radial head, parallel to the long axis of the radius
B. In the convex radial head, parallel to the long axis of the radius
C. in the convex radial head, perpendicular to the long axis of the radius
D. in the concave radial head, perpendicular to the long axis of the radius
D. in the concave radial head, perpendicular to the long axis of the radius
radius is concave!!
a physical therapist prepares to perform manual vibration as a means of airway clearance with a patient diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. when performing vibration the MOST appropriate form of manual contact over the affected lung segment is
A. contact with a cupped hand
B. contact with the ulnar border of the hand
C. contact with the entire palmar surface of the hand
D. contact with the distal phalanx of the middle finger
C. contact with the entire palmar surface of the hand
a therapist conducts a goniometric assessment of a client’s upper extremities. which of the following values is most indicative of normal passive glenohumeral abduction?
A. 80 degrees
B. 120 degrees
C. 155 degrees
D.180 degrees
B. 120 degrees
phase 2 cardiac rehab start and end test
start: low level treadmill test
end: maximal treadmill test
A patient recovering from stroke walks with limited tibial advancement during stance on the more affected lower extremity. The therapist next examines the patient for a compensatory gait deviation. What is the MOST LIKELY deviation?
A. Trendelenburg
B. Exaggerated flexion synergy
C. Exaggerated extension synergy
D. Circumduction
D. Circumduction
Primary diseases of muscle include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Progressive muscular dystrophy
B. Infantile spinal muscular atrophy (Werdnig-Hoffman syndrome)
C. Myasthenia gravis
D. Myotonia congenital
B. Infantile spinal muscular atrophy (Werdnig-Hoffman syndrome)
Which is a characteristic of a dysthymic disorder?
A. Recurrent, mild moods of hypomania and depression
B. Chronic severe depression
C. Poor response to psychotherapy
D. Absence of psychomotor symptoms
B. Chronic severe depression
A therapist is assisting a patient in gaining lateral stability of the knee joint. The therapist is using strengthening exercises to strengthen muscle groups that will increase active restraint on the lateral side of the joint. Which of the following offers the least amount of active lateral restraint?
A. Popliteus
B. Biceps femoris
C. Iliotibial band
D. Gastrocnemius
D. Gastrocnemius
more post. restraint
A patient complains of pain in the ear, what structure does not refer to the ear?
A. Anterior digastric trigger point
B. Sternocleidomastoid trigger point
C. Deep masseter trigger point
D. Temporomandibular joint
A. Anterior digastric trigger point
incisors of mandible
In iontophoresis, vasodilating drugs would be used in
A. Both “Rheumatic diseases” and “Peripheral vascular affections”
B. Rheumatic diseases
C. Peripheral vascular affections
D. Neither “Rheumatic diseases” nor “Peripheral vascular affections”
A. Both “Rheumatic diseases” and “Peripheral vascular affections”
When comparing the means between two groups of subjects, you discover that there is a significant difference between the variances of your outcome measure in those groups. What does this result tell you?
A. You are more likely to have committed a type I statistical error.
B. You are more likely to have committed a type II statistical error.
C. You need to run some additional post hoc tests.
D. You should use a nonparametric statistical test to analyze your data.
D. You should use a nonparametric statistical test to analyze your data
heterogeneity of data
The nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs impede COX-2 activity. COX-2 produces inflammatory prostaglandins via biosynthesis of what substance?
A. Serotonin
B. Substance P
C. Arachidonic acid
D. Gamma butyric acid
C. Arachidonic acid
What is the most effective form of diagnostic imaging for patients with multiple sclerosis (MS) to help determine level of disease activity?
A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
B. Position emission tomography (PET)
C. Computed tomography (CT)
D. Transcranial sonography
A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
A patient presents with pain radiating down the posterior hip and thigh as a result of a herniated disc in the lumbar spine. The therapist decides to apply mechanical traction. If the patient can tolerate it, what is the preferred patient position?
A. Supine with one knee flexed
B. Prone with pillow under the abdomen
C. Supine with both knees flexed
D. Prone with no pillow
D. Prone with no pillow
The triad described by Korsakoff included all of the following EXCEPT
A. Amnesia
B. Confabulation
C. Peripheral neuropathy
D. Ataxia
D. Ataxia
- under wernicke’s syndrome
supracondylar fracture of the humerus would most likely cause a peripheral nerve injury involving
A. Median nerve
B. Axillary nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
A. Median nerve
A PT receives a referral from an acute care therapist to treat a patient with right hemiparesis in the home. The referral indicates that the patient demonstrates good recovery: both involved limbs are categorized as stage 4 (some movements out-of-synergy). The patient is ambulatory with a small-based quad cane. The activity that would be MOST beneficial for a patient at this stage of recovery is:
A. Supine, bending the hip and knee up to the chest with some hip abduction
B. Standing, lifting the foot up behind and slowly lowering it
C. Standing, small-range knee squats
D. Sitting, marching in place with alternate hip and flexion
B. Standing, lifting the foot up behind and slowly lowering it
Stage 4 recovery is characterized by some movement combinations that do not follow paths of either flexion or extension obligatory synergies. Knee flexion in standing is an out-of-synergy movement.
All of the following cardiopulmonary function variables will increase in children in response to training except
A. Heart volume
B. Stroke volume
C. Respiratory rate
D. Tidal volume
C. Respiratory rate
Ultrasound causes the greatest rise in temperature in tissues with
A. adipose
B. protein
C. cartilage
D. tendon
B. protein
muscle
A therapist is evaluating a patient with traumatic injury to the left hand. The therapist asks the patient to place the left hand on the examination table with the palm facing upward. The therapist then holds the second, third, and fifth digits in full extension. The patient is then asked to flex the fourth digit. What movement would be expected by a patient with an uninjured hand, and what muscle or muscles is the therapist restricting?
A. the fourth finger would flex at the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint only, and the muscle being restricted would be the flexor digitorum superficialis
B. The fourth finger would flex at the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint only, and the muscle being restricted would be the flexor digitorum profundus.
C. The fourth finger would flex at the DIP joint only, and the muscles being restricted would be the lumbricals
D. The fourth finger would flex at the PIP joint only, and the muscles being restricted would be the palmar interosseous
B. The fourth finger would flex at the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint only, and the muscle being restricted would be the flexor digitorum profundus.
If you wanted to determine how well the items on a test or survey related to each other, you would be analyzing that instrument’s
A. Content validity
B. Intrarater reliability
C. Stability
D. Internal consistency
D. Internal consistency
Which of the following positions should be avoided in the right upper extremity with a patient who has a diagnosis of right hemiplegia secondary to a stroke?
A. Prolonged shoulder adduction, internal rotation, and elbow flexion
B. Prolonged finger and thumb flexion
C. Prolonged shoulder abduction, internal rotation, and elbow flexion
D. Prolonged wrist flexion and finger adduction
A. Prolonged shoulder adduction, internal rotation, and elbow flexion
A patient with CHF is on digitalis to improve myocardial contraction. The patient is a new participant in a phase 2 outpatient cardiac rehabilitation program. What should the PT expect the effects of the medication to include?
A. Reduced exercise capacity
B. Decreased BP
C. Increased resting HR
D. Depressed ST segment on ECG with QT and T wave changes
D. Depressed ST segment on ECG with QT and T wave changes
A physician discusses a patient’s plan of care with a physical therapist. The patient is a 29-year-old male that sustained deep partial-thickness burns to the anterior surface of his lower extremities. The physician discusses the possibility of discontinuing use of the topical antibiotic silver sulfadiazine after identifying an irregularity in the patient’s laboratory results. Which finding could be MOST related to the use of silver sulfadiazine?
A. peripheral edema
B. hypokalemia
C. altered pH balance
D. leukopenia
D. leukopenia
Long-wave infrared
A. Nonluminous infrared radiation
B. Luminous infrared radiation
C. None
D. Both
A. Nonluminous infrared radiation
A physical therapist evaluates a patient with a recent stroke involving the cerebellar arteries. When evaluating the patient, the therapist would MOST likely expect to find the presence of:
A. Chorea
B. Dysarthria
C. Hemiballismus
D. Hypertonia
B. Dysarthria
A therapist is reviewing x-rays from a patient with a trimalleolar fracture. What are the BEST radiographic views to visualize this bony fracture?
A. Oblique and lateral
B. Posteroanterior and lateral
C. Anteroposterior and lateral
D. Lateral and coronal
C. Anteroposterior and lateral
patient was referred for physical therapy after removal of a long arm cast extending to the forearm. She lacks full passive elbow extension. What may be causing this problem?
A. Active insufficiency of the biceps
B. Tightness in posterior humeroulnar joint capsule
C. Passive insufficiency of the triceps
D. Passive insufficiency of the pronator teres
D. Passive insufficiency of the pronator teres
In electromyography, denervated muscle would be indicated by
A. Fibrillation voltages (potentials)
B. Fasciculation voltages (potentials)
C. Neither A nor B
D. Both A and B
D. Both A and B
A physical therapist reads in the medical chart that a patient is taking digitalis. The patient is MOST likely taking this medication to treat:
A. Angina
B. atrial fibrillation
C. hypertension
D. thrombus formation
B. atrial fibrillation
All of the following represent normal chronaxie values for skeletal muscle EXCEPT
A. 1/1000 second
B. 1 sigma
C. 1000 milliseconds
D. 1 millisecond
C. 1000 milliseconds
A developmental defect in which there is disproportionate enlargement of the lesser wings of the sphenoid bones, producing an excessive distance between the orbits and a flattening of the bridge of the nose
A. Hypertelorism
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Achondroplasia
D. Hypoglycemia
E. Craniocleidodysostosis
A. Hypertelorism
When utilizing electrical stimulation, the key element of pulsed current is
A. The duration of the current
B. A period of electrical silence
C. The frequency of the current
D. The amplitude of the current
B. A period of electrical silence
Which of the following is the most serious or severe form of mental disease?
A. Psychotic disorders
B. Psychoneurotic disorder
C. Psychophysiologic disorders
D. Psychosomatic disorders
A. Psychotic disorders
A physical therapist assesses several superficial reflexes as part of a neurological examination. Which grading system is MOST appropriate when recording the obtained results?
A. Ordinal scale from 0-4+
B. Hypoactive, normal, hyperactive
C. Present, absent
D. Zero, trace, poor, fair, good, normal
C. Present, absent
A physical therapist is performing an examination for an infant that has recently been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect. Which of the following clinical signs would not likely be present?
A. Poor weight gain
B. Decreased respiratory rate
C. Bradycardia
D. Lower extremity swelling
C. Bradycardia
should be tachycardia
A fracture of the second lumbar vertebrae would involve which segment of the spinal cord?
A. Twelfth thoracic
B. First lumbar
C. None of the above
D. Second lumbar
C. None of the above
SC ends at L1-L2; so at L2 below cauda equina/peripheral nerves may be involved
A patient asks the therapist to explain the function of his medication verapamil (a calcium antagonist). Which of the following points should be conveyed in the therapist’s explanation?
A. Verapamil causes decreased contractility of the heart and vasodilation of the coronary arteries.
B. Verapamil causes decreased contractility of the heart and vasoconstriction of the coronary arteries.
C. Verapamil causes increased contractility of the heart and vasodilation of the coronary arteries.
D. Verapamil causes increased contractility of the heart and vasoconstriction of the coronary arteries.
A. Verapamil causes decreased contractility of the heart and vasodilation of the coronary arteries.
A patient presents with supraspinatus tendinitis. After the initial cryotherapy, the therapist decides to apply ultrasound (US). In what position should the therapist place the shoulder joint in order to effectively treat the supraspinatus tendon?
A. Slight abduction and internal rotation
B. Adduction and external rotation
C. Adduction and internal rotation
D. Slight abduction and external rotation
A. Slight abduction and internal rotation
Adrenergic receptors
A. Are subdivided into four major categories
B. Include the alpha and beta receptors
C. Include the muscarinic and nicotinic receptors
D. When blocked, can cause dry mouth, decreased salivation, blurry vision, and constipation
B. Include the alpha and beta receptors
In carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS), the following statements are true EXCEPT:
a. There is not a good correlation between results of electrophysiological studies and symptoms the patient report
b. Severe symptoms may not be associated with deficits in grip or complains of weakness.
c. As the CTS progresses, the symptoms of paresthesia may decrease and be replaced with actual muscle atrophy and weakness
d. If the disorder has progressed to the point of thenar muscle atrophy, then nonsurgical treatment may be appropriate or effective
d. If the disorder has progressed to the point of thenar muscle atrophy, then nonsurgical treatment may be appropriate or effective
surgical treatment
This outcome measure of intervention in Carpal Tunnel Syndrome was reported to be 4 times more responsive to clinical improvement than measures of neuromuscular impairment.
a. 2-point discrimination
b. Light touch with monofilaments
c. Functional Status Scale
d. Symptoms Severity Scale
e. Manual muscle test
d. Symptoms Severity Scale
functional status scale - 2x
symptoms severity scale - 4x
This procedure tests for anteromedial band of anterior cruciate ligament, medial and lateral tibiomeniscal anterior portion of these capsular ligaments, anterior cruciate ligament, and posterior cruciate ligament.
a. External rotation/recurvatum test
b. Lachman’s test
c. Crossover test
d. Apley’s distraction test with internal rotation
e. Anterior drawer test
e. Anterior drawer test
The following characteristics describe an upper motor neuron disease EXCEPT: _______.
I. There are lesions affecting nerves below the level of the brainstem(LMNL)
II. Lesions may be found in descending motor tracts within the cerebral motor cortex(motor tracts originate from the cerebral motor cortex and brainstem, and run through the spinal cord)
III. Symptoms may include hypertonicity and hyperreflexia
IV. Tracts in the lateral white column of the spinal cord are damaged
V. The ventral gray column of the spinal cord may be affected.(LMNL)
a. I, II, and V
b. I, II and IV
c. III, IV and V
d. II, III and IV
a. I, II, and V
Which of the following statements is true concerning vital capacity of client with restrictive lung disease?
a. Above normal due to destruction of alveolar septa
b. Above normal due to greater radial traction exerted on airway walls
c. Below normal due to increased airway resistance
d. Below normal due to reduced lung compliance
d. Below normal due to reduced lung compliance
Craniosacral therapy is an evaluation and treatment approach that assume the presence of craniosacral motion to be as follows EXCEPT it is ___________:
a. A physiological motion because it is unconscious and voluntary
b. Unstable and fluctuates in response to exercise, emotion and rest
c. An inherent rhythmical motion in human and animals, different from any other rhythm in the body
d. Claimed to change in response to trauma, autism or learning disability
a. A physiological motion because it is unconscious and voluntary
__________ is characterized by an inability to sustain a body part or parts in one position, often the distal limbs, and the movements are slow and fluid.
a. Ballismus
b. Spasticity
c. Dystonia
d. Chorea
e. Athetosis
e. Athetosis
A 66-year-old with a right gastrocnemius contracture is in the whirlpool. The correct temperature for the submersion is ______degrees F.
a. 92
b. 108
c. 104
d. 98
c. 104
A PT observes that the gait of patient status post pneumonia is characterized by heel walking. Possible cause of this deviation can be any of the following EXCEPT:
a. Tightness of the dorsiflexor muscle
b. Weakness of the gastrocnemius muscle
c. Decreased strength of the dorsiflexors
d. Pes calcaneous deformity
c. Decreased strength of the dorsiflexors
- PT has just completed a study investigating the relationship between ratings of perceived exertion (RPE) and type of testing modality: arm ergometry versus leg ergometry. PT finds a correlation of .52 with the arm testing while the correlation is 0.75 with the leg testing. This means that .
a. The common variance of both types of testing is only 20 percent
b. Both arm and leg ergometry are highly correlated RPE
c. Leg ergometry is highly correlated with RPE while arm ergometry is only moderately correlated
d. Both arm and leg ergometry are only moderately correlated with RPE
c. Leg ergometry is highly correlated with RPE while arm ergometry is only moderately correlated
If a patient has diagnosis of anterior interosseus syndrome, the activity that will be most difficult to perform is
a. resisted wrist extension with the elbow flexed at 90 degrees
b. wrist ulnar deviation with the thumb tucked inside a closed fist
c. pinching together the tips of the index finger and thumb
c. pinching together the tips of the index finger and thumb
- The ideal temperature of the water in the whirlpool when treating a patient with severe arterial insufficiency is ___.
a. 90-92 degrees Celcius
b. 90-92 degrees Fahrenheit
c. 33.5-35.5 degrees Fahrenheit
d. 92-96 degrees Fahrenheit
d. 92-96 degrees Fahrenheit
- A PT is evaluating a 50-year old male patient who underwent a total knee arthroplasty 2 weeks ago. PT noticed that the entire leg has started swelling. There is pitting edema throughout the lower leg and foot with tenderness in the midcalf. Girth measurement showed a 3.7 increase in the size of the midcalf. What is the NEXT step that the PT should take?
a. Call physician after treatment to report result of evaluation
b. Send patient to the emergency room right away
c. Elevate the affected extremity
d. Send patient home with instruction to monitor the affected extremity
b. Send patient to the emergency room right away
- A 65-year-old with breast cancer underwent a surgical removal of the mass followed by 12 weeks of chemotherapy and 8 weeks of radiation. PT program is directed towards mobilization of her upper extremity. An important guideline to the PT when treating a patient after radiation is _____.
a. avoid stretching exercises that pull on the radiated site
b. observe infection control procedures
c. avoid all aerobic exercises for at least 2 months
d. observe skin care precautions
d. observe skin care precautions
- To reduce inflammation of the tracheobronchial mucosa in asthma, COPD and sarcoidosis, steroids are often prescribed. Which of these is not a side effect of steroid therapy?
a. Increased susceptibility to notion
b. decrease in BP
c. tachycardia
d. osteoporosis
b. decrease in BP
- This is a test for epicondylitis where patient is positioned in sitting. The therapist palpates the lateral epicondyle, pronates the patient’s forearm, flexes the wrist and extends the elbow. A positive test is indicated by pain in the lateral epicondyle region and may be indicative of lateral epicondylitis.
a. Mill’s
b. Lateral epicondylitis test
c. Medial epicondylitis test
d. Cozen’s
a. Mill’s
- A patient 4 months post total knee replacement is referred for ROM and strengthening exercises. Which strategy would NOT be appropriate for the patient?
a. active strengthening using the contract-relax technique (*originally stretching)
b. exercise on a stationary bicycle against mild resistance
c. joint mobility to increase joint play
d. performing straight leg raising, short arc extension and knee flexion exercise using light weights
c. joint mobility to increase joint play
- A PT is conducting a pre-operative training for a patient scheduled for repair of a large rotator cuff tear. Patient is a 56-year-old bank executive and he wants to know how long before he can resume his former recreational activities such as golf and badminton. The MOST appropriate time frame is ____ weeks.
a. 24 – 28
b. 6 – 8
c. 12—14
d. 36 – 40
a. 24 – 28
6-8 strength and conditioning
12-14 task specific training
36-40 back to normal
- Your patient with Parkinson’s disease was prescribed levodopa. The side effects of the drug are the following EXCEPT
a. arrhythmias
b. gastrointestinal distress
c. orthostatic hypotension
d. impaired visual accommodation
d. impaired visual accommodation
- A PT observes an electrocardiogram of a patient on beta-blockers. Which of the following electrocardiogram changes could be facilitated by beta-blockers?
a. premature ventricular contractions
b. sinus bradycardia
c. ST segment sagging
d. sinus tachycardia
b. sinus bradycardia
- A patient is on immune suppressants following renal transplantation was referred to the clinic for mobility training using crutches. Initial evaluation revealed paresthesia in both lower extremities with peripheral weakness in both hands and feet. PT suspects that patient is MOST LIKELY experiencing
a. leukopenia
b. peripheral neuropathy
c. myopathy
d. quadriparesis
b. peripheral neuropathy
- A PT working in the provincial hospital was asked to cover an interscholastic football league competition. During a game, a player is knocked down on the field. The PT rushed to the scene and determines that the player is unconscious. What should be the NEXT action of the PT?
a. Proceed to give mouth to mouth resuscitation check for shock
b. Start with the head and determine first if there is any bleeding or fluid coming from the nose, ears, eyes, or mouth
c. Check the carotid pulse for a heart beat
d. Check breathing and if it is impaired, clear the airway, and if necessary
d. Check breathing and if it is impaired, clear the airway, and if necessary
- Postural drainage is prescribed to a patient with cystic fibrosis. If the superior segment of the lower lobes are the target areas, how will PT proceed?
a. patient lies prone, head down, 20 inches foot elevation with pillows under the hips
b. patient lies supine, head down 20 inches with pillows under the knees
c. patient lies supine with 2 pillows under hips, bed flat
d. patient lies supine with pillows under the knees, bed flat
a. patient lies prone, head down, 20 inches foot elevation with pillows under the hips
- The following impairments may result in patients with a lesion in the frontal lobe of the brain EXCEPT
a. perseveration, in attention
b. homonymous hemianopsia
c. contralateral weakness
d. personality changes, antisocial behavior
b. homonymous hemianopsia
- Patient figured in a traction injury to the anterior division of the brachial plexus. PT expected to see weakness of the elbow flexors, wrist flexors and forearm proration. The PT would also expect to find more weakness in
a. wrist extension
b. forearm supination
c. thumb abduction
d. lateral rotation or the shoulder
c. thumb abduction
APL - radial (PIN)
APB - median nerve
- An orthopedic surgeon referred a 25-year-old basketball player for instruction to improve strength of his ankle using closed kinematic chain exercises to increase ankle proprioception and reduce risk for ankle sprains. Which of these exercises should be part of your exercise program?
a. Ankle eversion-inversion exercises using free weights strapped to his ankle
b. Ankle eversion exercises using theraband resistance while the patient is sitting on the floor with his knee extended
c. Walking on an inclined plane
d. Half squats
c. Walking on an inclined plane
- A 60-year-old golfer was referred to PT for a sacroiliac joint pain. In your evaluation, you plan to include a Gillet’s test. Which of these methods describe how test is carried out?
a. Patient in supine with correct trunk alignment, pelvis and lower limbs. You stand at edge of table by patient’s feet palpating medial malleolus to assess asymmetry. Have patient come to long sitting position and assess the leg length.
b. Place thumb of your hand under PSIS of limb to be tested and place your other thumb on center sacrum at same level as thumb under PSIS. Ask patient to extend hip of limb being tested.
c. Patient is sidelying at edge of bed while holding bottom leg in maximal hip and knee flexion (knee to chest). Standing behind patient passively extend hip of uppermost limb.
d. Patient is standing. Place thumb of your hand under PSIS of limb to be tested and place your other thumb on center of sacrum at same level as thumb under PSIS. Ask patient to flex hip and knee of limb tested like bringing knee to chest
d. Patient is standing. Place thumb of your hand under PSIS of limb to be tested and place your other thumb on center of sacrum at same level as thumb under PSIS. Ask patient to flex hip and knee of limb tested like bringing knee to chest
- In a person with normal balance, the fastest sensory system to provide balance information is the:
a. Visual system
b. Vestibular system
c. Somatosensory system
d. All 3 systems are equally fast
c. Somatosensory system
- A stage of sprain injury with symptoms that include moderate pain swelling, minimal instability of the joint, minimal to moderate tearing of the ligament and decreased range of motion (LESTER)
a. Grade 3
b. Grade 4
c. Grade 2
d. Grade 1
c. Grade 2
A PT is prescribing a wheelchair for his 68-year-old patient who is 5 ft. 7 inches tall. The MOST useful feature to include in the prescription is
a. desk armrests
b. a 20 in. seat height
c. a 17.5 in. seat height
d. elevating leg rests
c. a 17.5 in. seat height
- A deep thickness burn is expected to heal if there is no infection in _________ days.
a. 21 – 35
b. 36 - 42
c. 2 – 5
d. 7 – 21
a. 21 – 35
- The following are considerations when treating a patient with bronchogenic carcinoma, EXCEPT:
a. ecchymosis in patients with low platelet count
b. possible fractures from thoracic bone metastasis
c. pneumonia may develop because of a completely obstructed bronchus
d. change in skin color
d. change in skin color
When treating a patient who has ankylosing spondylitis, which of the following muscles require the MOST emphasis in strengthening exercises?
A. Pectorals
B. Hip flexors
C. Abdominals
D. Back extensors
D. Back extensors
A client with rheumatoid arthritis presents at the physical therapy clinic with severe whiplash from a motor vehicle accident 1 week ago. Initial cervical radiograph results revealed osseous structures appeared intact. The client’s chief complaints are of cervical pain and sudden falls with loss of consciousness. Examination reveals a positive Romber sign and hyperreflexia. The PT’s INITIAL action is to:
A. Immediately inform the referring physician and recommend a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan
B. Fit this client with a hard cervical collar and contact the referring physician recommending a computed tomography (CT) scan
C. Perform a test for transverse ligament laxity
D. Immediately inform the referring physician and recommend another series of radiographs
B. Fit this client with a hard cervical collar and contact the referring physician recommending a computed tomography (CT) scan
MRI would miss a fracture
The physical therapy supervisor believed the therapists in the department lacked initiative and did not have self-discipline in control. His management style therefore is
A. Theory X
B. Theory Y
C. Theory Z
D. Theory XYZ
A. Theory X
A patient has limited right rotation caused by left thoracic facet joint capsular tightness at T6-7, what arthrokinematic glide would MOST effectively improve right rotation in sitting?
A. Superior and anterior glide on the right T7 transverse process.
B. Superior and anterior glide on the left T7 transverse process.
C. Superior and anterior glide on the left T6 transverse process.
D. Superior and anterior glide on the right T6 transverse process.
C. Superior and anterior glide on the left T6 transverse process.
A physical therapist is working on transfers with a patient who had a brainstem cerebrovascular accident. The patient has ataxia in all four extremities and a high level of extensor tone in the lower extremities. The patient has fair to good trunk control. Which of the following transfers is BEST for this patient?
A. Squat pivot
B. Sliding board
C. Standing pivot
D. Dependent tuck
A. Squat pivot
prevents lower extremity ext tone
IRR vs UV pigmentation
IRR mottled
UV slightly red pigmentation
A patient had knee surgery 4 weeks ago. Which of the following neuromuscular electrical stimulation parameters would be MOST appropriate to use for strengthening the patient’s quadriceps muscle?
A. 1 to 4 pps, 100 microseconds
B. 1 to 4 pps, 350 microseconds
C. 40 to 50 pps, 350 microseconds
D. 100 pps, 100 microseconds
C. 40 to 50 pps, 350 microseconds
1-4 pps tetany, but no ms contraction
100pps rapid fatigue
A supracondylar fracture of the humerus would most likely cause a peripheral nerve injury involving
A. Axillary nerve
B. Radial nerve
C. Median nerve
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
C. Median nerve
An involucrum is
A. Sheath of new bone
B. Pyogenic lesion of a joint
C. Condition caused by premature closure of an epiphysis
D. Tumor metastasis to bone
A. Sheath of new bone
An elevated lesion of skin or mucous membrane that penetrates into the underlying tissues. It is less than 1 cm in its greatest diameter
A. Macule
B. Papule
C. Nodule
D. Bulla
C. Nodule
When considering special tests for orthopedic assessment of a client, the validity of a test is important because the:
A. results of the test can be standardized
B. results of the test are reproducible
C. test measures what it is supposed to measure
D. test can be accurately performed by someone else
C. test measures what it is supposed to measure
B. and D. are reliability
All of the following are manifestations of atopic dermatitis EXCEPT
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Allergic eczematous
C. Allergic rhinitis
D. Hay fever
B. Allergic eczematous
Wavelength of short ultraviolet radiation is
A. 700-1500 mµ
B. 1600-12,000 mµ
C. 180-290 mµ
D. 0.1-3 mm
The concept of current dosage in iontophoresis refers to the
A. Current density as determined by the size of the delivery electrode
B. Current amplitude (intensity) multiplied by treatment time
C. Current polarity in relation to the medication’s polarity
D. Difference between the phase charge and the treatment time
B. Current amplitude (intensity) multiplied by treatment time
Which of the following benzodiazepine medications is most properly indicated for outpatient-based treatment of convulsive disorders?
A. Xanax
B. Klonopin
C. Valium
D. Dalmane
B. Klonopin
ER status epilepticus drug
A. Xanax
B. Klonopin
C. Valium
D. Dalmane
C. Valium
The translatoric gliding mobilization technique attempts to follow
A. Parallel joint surfaces
B. Oblique joint surfaces
C. Parallel treatment plane
D. Articular surfaces
C. Parallel treatment plane
A physical therapist is examining the integumentary system of a patient with dark skin pigmentation and notices a deepening of the skin color over the left posterior aspect of the calcaneus. Which of the following findings would indicate a Stage I pressure ulcer at that site?
A. Increased skin temperature, compared to the surrounding tissue
B. Blanching with applied pressure that returns to previous coloring within 30 seconds after the removal of pressure
C. Decreased skin temperature, compared to the surrounding tissue
D. Blanching with applied pressure that returns to previous coloring 1 hour after the removal of pressure
C. Decreased skin temperature, compared to the surrounding tissue
The onset of a Stage I pressure ulcer is characterized by nonblanching erythema and decreased skin temperature over the site of the ulcer. Because blanching is difficult to ascertain in patients with dark skin, use of skin temperature for assessment of pressure ulcers is preferred.
Which of the following joint mobilizations would be MOST effective for improving a patient’s ability to progress into terminal stance?
A. Posterior glide of the talus on the tibia
B. Posterior glide of the calcaneus on the talus
C. Plantar glide of the 1st proximal phalanx on the metatarsal
D. Dorsal glide of the 1st proximal phalanx on the metatarsal
D. Dorsal glide of the 1st proximal phalanx on the metatarsal
osteitis deformans
paget’s
A physical therapy note states: “A patient ambulates independently with crutches on level surfaces and on stairs. The patient lacks endurance to walk up more than one floor at a time; however, this should increase with practice. The patient says he lives on the fourth floor and there is no elevator. Will work to increase endurance prior to discharge.” In the SOAP format, the “A” of the note is:
A. will work to increase endurance
B. patient lives on the fourth floor with no elevator
C. patient ambulates independently with crutches
D. endurance should increase with practice
D. endurance should increase with practice
primary degeneration of the pyramidal tracts
A. huntington’s chorea
B. jacksonian epilepsy
C. alzheimer’s disease
D. multiple sclerosis
E. motor neuron disease
E. motor neuron disease
MCP hyperextension and MTP flexion degrees
MCP hyperext: 0-30
MTP flexion: 30-45
The following statements are true, EXCEPT:
a. Abnormal range for acid-base balance is + or 0.5 from the normal pH of 7.4
b. Paralysis may develop if calcium concentration falls to less than 1/3 of the normal
c. Tetanic concentration of muscles may develop if calcium ion concentration falls below 1/2 the normal due to spontaneous generation of nerve impulses in the peripheral nerve
d. A 6 to 7 degree temperature increase above normal may lead to increased cellular metabolism that destroys cells
b. Paralysis may develop if calcium concentration falls to less than 1/3 of the normal
paralysis if potassium falls
Which of the following statements about the Gluteus Maximus is true?
a. It is a rotator of the extended thigh though it losses power if the thigh is flexed
b. All of these
c. None of these
d. It is an extensor of the hip but is used only
when the joint has to be extended with power
b. All of these
Nerve supply to the intrinsic muscle of the larynx are branches from:
A. Accessory nerve
b. Vagus nerve
c. Hypoglossal nerve
d. Glossopharyngeal nerve
b. Vagus nerve
Resting cell membrane:
a. More permeable to K than Na
b. More permeable to Na than K
c. Not permeable to Na and K
d. Equally permeable to Na and K
a. More permeable to K than Na
The Radial Nerve innervates the following muscles, EXCEPT:
a. Extensor Indicis Propius
b. Abductor Pollicis Brevis
c. Extensor Digitorum
d. Two radial Lumbricals
b. Abductor Pollicis Brevis
d. Two radial Lumbricals
A sudden increase in the membrane potential in a large nerve will cause the development of
the action potential. This is termed as:
a. Positive feedback
b. None of these
c. Threshold for stimulation
d. Propagation of the action potential
c. Threshold for stimulation
This matrix is composed of intracellular constituents where myofibrils are suspended inside
the muscle fiber:
a. Sarcoplasm
b. Z disk
c. Sarcolemma
d. A band
a. Sarcoplasm
A lesion of the supramarginal gyrus of the dominant parietal lobe resulting in the subject’s
inability to do what he on she wants to do:
a. Kinetic apraxia
b. Ideational apraxia
c. Ideomotor apraxia
d. Gait apraxia
c. Ideomotor apraxia
supramarginal gyrus = ideomotor apraxia
This ligament supports the head of the talus, and when over-stretched will reduce the
amount of longitudinal are resulting in flatfoot deformity:
a. Calcaneonavicular ligament
b. Deltoid ligament
c. Calcaneofibular ligament
d. Talofibular ligament
a. Calcaneonavicular ligament
PlaCaNA = spring = plantar calcaneonavicular ligament
The Ulnar Nerve innervates the following muscles, EXCEPT:
a. Adductor Pollicis
b. Palmaris Longus
c. All Hypothenar
d. All interossei
b. Palmaris Longus
median N
The only tarsal bone with no muscle attachment:
a. Cuboid
b. Talus
c. Navicular
d. Calcaneus
b. Talus
This muscle draws the mandible forward and toward the midline:
a. Pterygoid
b. Temporalis
c. Masseter
d. Orbicularis oris
a. Pterygoid
pterygoid - protrusion
temporalis - retrusion
The vagal system includes the following, EXCEPT:
a. VI cranial nerve
b. Cranial portion of XI cranial nerve
c. IX cranial nerve
d. X cranial nerve
a. VI cranial nerve
kehr’s sign
L shoulder pain d/t spleen rupture
The Size Principles of Recruitment is best described as follows:
a. The smallest motor neurons are the first recruited and the largest motor neurons are never recruited
b. None of these
c. The largest motor neurons are the first recruited and the smallest motor neurons are recruited last
d. The smallest motor neurons are the first recruited and the largest motor neurons are recruited last
d. The smallest motor neurons are the first recruited and the largest motor neurons are recruited last
The following statements are true of the hip joints, EXCEPT:
a. There is a slight iliacus activity when standing at ease
b. Subjects with bilateral KAFC are supported at the hips by the iliofemoral ligaments when standing
c. Collapse at the hip is likely in subjects with bilateral lower extremity paralysis when the center of gravity of HAT moves behind the hip axis
d. Backward tilting the pelvis to decrease the lumbar curve could cause an artificial knee to buckle
c. Collapse at the hip is likely in subjects with bilateral lower extremity paralysis when the center of gravity of HAT moves behind the hip axis
This terms refers to the use of sensory input from receptors in muscle spindles, tendons and joints to discriminate joint position, and joint movement, including direction, amplitude and speed, and relative tension with tendons:
a. All of these
b. Kinesthesia
c. none of these
d. Proprioception
d. Proprioception
May result from lesion in the dominant parietal lobe of the corpus callosum in which the
subject fails to carry out sequences of acts even if individual movements are correct:
a. Ideomotor apraxia
b. Kinetic apraxia
c. Gait apraxia
d. Ideational apraxia
d. Ideational apraxia
can do separate tasks but not whole
kinetic - inability to perform fine, coordinated, sequenced movement
When the first metacarpal rotates on the trapezium to place the thumb against the fingers,
this motion is called:
a. Adduction
b. None of these
c. Opposition
d. Abduction
c. Opposition
This type of joint is formed by the talus and tibia:
a. Pivot
b. Saddle
c. Hinge
d. Ball and Socket
c. Hinge
Factors responsible to maintain a potential difference across the cell membrane:
a. None of these
b. Cell can actively move ions across the membrane to maintain a required resting potential
c. Cell membrane is relatively permeable to certain ions
d. Both of these
b. Cell can actively move ions across the membrane to maintain a required resting potential
cell membrane is relatively impermeable to certain ions
In ulnar nerve paralysis, the following happens, EXCEPT:
a. The hypothenar group does not function
b. The 4th and 5th digits cannot be extended due to the absence of intrinsic muscles
c. Abduction and adduction of all digits are not affected
d. The extensor digitorum is capable of extending the IP joints if the MCP joints are stabilized in a flexed position.
c. Abduction and adduction of all digits are not affected
palmar and dorsal interossei = abd add
This muscle is a powerful adductor of the arm and a medial rotator. The clavicular head flexes the shoulder joint, and from this position the sterna head extends the shoulder joint:
a. None of these
b. Latissimus Dorsi
c. Pectoralis Minor
d. Pectoralis Major
d. Pectoralis Major
This opening is a triangular-shaped defect in the external oblique aponeurosis that lies
above and medial to the public tubercle:
a. Cremasteric Ring
b. Superficial Inguinal Ring
c. Femoral Ring
d. External Spermatic Fascia
b. Superficial Inguinal Ring
Since terminal knee extension requires sacral rotation of the tibia on the femur, initiation of knee flexion requires the reverse action of medial rotation of the tibia on the femur. This action is performed by:
a. Popliteus
b. Semitendinosus
c. Articularis Genu
d. Plantaris
a. Popliteus
Following is true of myostatic reflex:
a. Capable of increasing tension for postural muscle tone
b. Basic neural mechanism for maintaining tone in muscle
c. Results from inputs to motor neuron pools form groups I and II
D. AOTA
D. AOTA
This ligament of the vertebral column is a series of 23 intersegmental ligaments that
connect the lamina of two adjacent vertebrae from C-2 to the sacrum:
a. Supraspinous ligament
b. Intertransverse ligament
c. Ligamentum flavum
d. Interspinous ligament
c. Ligamentum flavum
On the medial side of the foot, just distal to the tip of the medial malleolus, this slight
protuberance may be felt:
a. Sustentaculum Tali
b. First Cuneiform
c. Tuberosity of the Navicular
d. Medial tubercle of the Talus
a. Sustentaculum Tali
Occlusion of the posterolateral thalamic branches in the thalamic syndrome may result
in the following, EXCEPT:
a. Partial to complete loss of sensation on the same side of the body
b. Severe, burning, constant pain in the regions with limited sensation
c. Cerebellar ataxia and tremor may be produced in the extremities of the opposite side
d. Sensations of touch, pain and temperature are decreased in the affected limbs
a. Partial to complete loss of sensation on the same side of the body
In order not to allow side to side play, the sides of the body of the talus are grasped by
these bony flanges:
a. None of these
b. All of these
c. Talocalcaneonavicular joint
d. Medial and lateral malleolus
d. Medial and lateral malleolus
In voltage gating, when there is a strong negative charge on the inside of the cell
membrane; the sodium gates remain tightly closed:
a. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
b. Both statements are false
c. Both statements are true
d. The second statements is true, the first statements is false
c. Both statements are true
Characteristic of isometric contraction:
a. All of these
b. Performs work
c. Change in muscle tension
d. Change in muscle length
c. Change in muscle tension
no change in distance = no work
During mid-stance to terminal stance, the quadriceps perform the following activity:
a. Stabilizes the knee to control swing of the opposite leg
b. Contract eccentrically
c. No required activity
d. Undergo a fast lengthening to stabilized the knee joint
c. No required activity
security of ankle jt is a result of an immobile act not rigid union of the ff. jt:
A. inferior tibiofibular joint
B. subtalar joint
C. superior tibiofibular joint
D. calcaneocuboid jt
A. inferior tibiofibular joint
the ff statements describe the factors affecting a cell’s rate of diffusion in one direction EXCEPT:
A. difference in pressure across a membrane
B. in ions, the difference in chemical potential between 2 sides of the membrane
C. Permeability and area of the membrane
D. difference in concentration of the diffusing substance between 2 sides of the membrane
B. in ions, the difference in chemical potential between 2 sides of the membrane
ions = electrical potential
which of the ff. events are required for the mechanical linkages bet actin and myosin to produce ms contraction?
A. NOTA
B. chemical reaction to provide energy of active tension
C. Both
D. A specific stimulus to trigger the coupling of the 2 filaments
C. Both
The ff. statements apply to genu valgum except:
A. abnormalities in calcium metabolism may stimulate this problem
B. Although usually bilateral, it may occur unilaterally
C. Has strong familial tendency and may also be exaggerated by individual traits
D. An angular deformity of the leg in which ankles are separated when knees are in contact
E. May be associated with recurrent dislocation of the patella because of increased medial force on the patella
E. May be associated with recurrent dislocation of the patella because of increased medial force on the patella
In flexing the knees and hips and dorsiflexing the ankles, objects may be lifted from the floor. The ff positions of the pelvis and vertebrae are used:
A. post tilt of pelvis c kyphotic position of vert.
B. APT c lordotic position of lumbar spine
C. Both
D. NOTA
C. Both
The following statements are true of arthroscopy, EXCEPT:
A. particularly useful in dx-ing conditions (i.e., meniscal d/o and cruciate lig injuries)
B. most useful in dx-ing conditions of post and middle third of med meniscus
C. CI for pt.s c bleeding d/o
D. both a diagnostic procedure and tx and involves very little knee trauma
E. visual examination of jt interior using a fiberoptic lens instrument attached to a light source
C. CI for pt.s c bleeding d/o
The spinal cord tapers at the level of the lower border of the 1st lumbar vertebra called
a. Filum terminale
b. Coccyx
c. Conus medullaris
d. Coccygium finale
e. Cauda equine
c. Conus medullaris
In a pedal meniscus injury, the ff conditions apply, EXCEPT:
A. Responsible for condition known as “locked knee”
B. Complete extension of the knee joint may be prevented if the torn port of the cartilage between the joint surfaces
C. There may be loosening of the cartilage at its central attachment
D. Lesion may cause a transverse tear through the cartilage
E. Usually caused by sudden internal rotation of the femur upon the fixed tibia, accompanied by abduction and flexion of the knee
C. There may be loosening of the cartilage at its central attachment
loosening at peripheral attachment
The ff statements can be applied to the scalenes, EXCEPT:
A. extends the cervical spine
B. produce lateral flexion and rotation to the same side with unilateral contraction
C. Increase cervical lordotic posture with bilateral contraction in the absence of longus colli
D. elevate the first and second ribs when the cervical spine is stabilized
D.
A. extends the cervical spine
scalenes: neck flexion
skin traction weight limit
if more than 10 lbs = skeletal traction
afferent component of ms stretch reflex that provides CNS info about length and rate of change in length of striated muscles
A. extrafusal fiber
B. muscle spindle
C. intrafusal fiber
D. NOTA
B. muscle spindle
muscle spindle- aff
intrafusal fiber - eff
pt. cant support full weight on either of his legs, which gait pattern?
4-point
4- or 2-point but 4 point has decreased demand on coordination
instability with tear of arcuate complex. Result of adduction stress test is positive at 30deg of flexion. As is the result of the external rotation-recurvatum test, lateral tibial condyle has posterior subluxation in this instability:
A. posterolateral instability
B. combined anterolateral and anteromedial instability
C. None of these
D. anterolateral instability
E. anteromedial instability
A. posterolateral instability
“Motor neuron disease” is a rather broad term applied to disorders characterized by the following, EXCEPT:
a. Fasciculation are common and are often found generally before diffuse atrophy is evident.
b. These are painless disorders except for muscle cramping, and there are no sensory deficits.
c. Onset is often symmetric, with wasting of a hand, arm of shoulder girdle.
d. Bulbar involvement may occur early or later and leads to fatal respiratory complications.
e. Signs of progressive motor neuron loss with or without the paresis and spasticity of corticospinal tract degeneration.
c. Onset is often symmetric, with wasting of a hand, arm of shoulder girdle.
asymmetric
The following statements are true of the collateral ligaments, EXCEPT:
a. Lateral collateral ligament connects the femur and the fibula
b. These ligaments may be easily injured when force is applied to the knee while a person’s leg is extended with his foot
firmly planted on the ground.
c. Medial collateral ligament connects the femur to the tibia.
d. Prevent side-to-side movement by tightening during leg extension
e. The collateral ligaments can tear when the femur is externally rotated on the tibia
e. The collateral ligaments can tear when the femur is externally rotated on the tibia
FIR TER - taut collateral
FER TIR - taut cruciate
Nonunion may occur with internal fixation. When this happens, the bone fragments may be stimulated with electrical
current. Which of the following statements does not apply?
a. The electrodes may be implanted either by open incision or percutaneously, using a hand drill
b. The electricity applied either through magnetic coils placed on the skin at the fracture site, or through implanted
electrodes
c. Electrical bone stimulation substitutes for normal piezoelectric effect, in which mechanical stress on a solid object
induces electrical activity
d. A weak current of 20 microamperes is transmitted, because higher level would cause tissue necrosis and a lower level
could fail to stimulate osteogenesis
e. In alternating current stimulation of the bone, electronegativity appear to have the same osteoblastic simulating effect
e. In alternating current stimulation of the bone, electronegativity appear to have the same osteoblastic simulating effect
osteoblastic effect c direct current
- This test flexes the knee into full extension and passively allows it to extend completely with a sharp and point. It is designed to evaluate a lack of full knee extension, most often secondary to a torn meniscus, or an intracapsular joint swelling.
a. Distraction Test
b. Apprehension test
c. McMurray Test
d. “Bounce Home” Test
d. “Bounce Home” Test
The following structures pass between the malleoli, EXCEPT:
a. Extensor digitorum longus tendon
b. Extensor hallucis longus tendon
c. Tibialis anterior tendon
d. Posterior tibial artery and tibial nerve
e. Dorsal pedal artery
d. Posterior tibial artery and tibial nerve
The following are true of the femoral triangle, EXCEPT:
a. Defined superiorly by the inguinal crease
b. Defined posteriorly by the Sartorius muscle ridge
c. Defined medially by adductor longus muscle
d. With the subject in supine, the soft tissues of the triangle is best examined with the heel of the leg being examined
resting upon the opposite knee.
e. The floor is formed by portions of the adductor longus, the pectineus and the iliopsoas muscles
b. Defined posteriorly by the Sartorius muscle ridge
laterally by sartorius
Hemiplegia or hemiparesis is perhaps the most common physical manifestation of the disease of the brain. The following
conditions describe hemiplegia, EXCEPT:
a. Subjects may suffer severe hemisensory losses and hemianopsia
b. Bilateral mild hemiparesis may pass unnoticed unless Babinski sign is present on both side
c. Due in largest part to the vulnerability of the cortex and its radiations the lesions of vascular disease
d. Ipsilateral weakness can result even when there is no immediate impingement of the motor cortex and its descending radiations
e. Babinski sign is commonly present but the tendon reflexes may be absent, equal to those of the other side or exaggerated
d. Ipsilateral weakness can result even when there is no immediate impingement of the motor cortex and its descending radiations
The following statements apply to osteomyelitis, EXCEPT:
a. This infection may occur when phylogenic bacteria invade the patient’s injured bone or soft tissue surroundings the bone
b. The intramedullary abscess generally forms at the tip of a long bone where it exerts pressure inside the bone
c. Accompanied by lowered ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate), leukocytosis, and presence of causative organism in wound or blood culture
d. Occasionally, the new bone will surround the sequestrum completely in an attempt to heal the area, detaching the sequestrum completely and requires surgical removal
c. Accompanied by lowered ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate), leukocytosis, and presence of causative organism in wound or blood culture
inflammation = higher ESR
Signs of meningeal irritation include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Kernig sign is elicited when stretching of the lumbar roots consequent to extension of the leg on the thigh produces
painful limitation of this movement
b. The best sign is a demonstration of stiffness of the neck on flexion, usually accompanied by fever
c. In severe meningitis, there may even be a rigid hyper-extension of the neck and back, but generally, it does not limit
lateral rotation of the neck
d. Probably based on a heightened sensitivity of irritated sensory roots to stretching
e. Brudzinski sign is absent when flexion of the knees follows as attempt to flex the neck
e. Brudzinski sign is absent when flexion of the knees follows as attempt to flex the neck
is present/positive
In-hospital postoperative care in acute knee instability repair include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Cast change usually on the 5th postoperative day
b. Cast immobilization of the knee at about 60 degrees of flexion
c. Toe-touch weight bearing crutch walking as tolerated
d. Non-weight bearing crutch walking
e. Ankle ROM, quadriceps, femoris muscle setting exercises progressing to straight-leg raising exercises
c. Toe-touch weight bearing crutch walking as tolerated
10wks post op before TTWB is performed
The axilla is a quadrilateral pyramidal structure through which vessels and nerves pass to the upper extremity. The
following statements apply to the axilla, EXCEPT:
a. The apex permit the entry of the brachial plexus and axillary artery
b. The medial wall is bound by ribs two to six and the overlaying serratus anterior
c. The anterior and posterior wall can be palpated when the arm is abducted and extended
d. The anterior wall is formed by the pectoralis major and the posterior by the latissimus dorsi
e. The lateral wall is defined by the bicipital groove of the humerus
c. The anterior and posterior wall can be palpated when the arm is abducted and extended
abducted only
In the knee, excessive normal forces resulting in overuse syndrome can be caused by the following, EXCEPT:
a. High repetition, high load
b. Low repetition, high load
c. Activity level is greater than the possible physiological repair
d. Poor conditioning
e. Small biomechanical dysfunction that become magnified with high-performance activities
a. High repetition, high load
high rep, low load
low rep, high load
Which crutch-walking technique would you choose for patients with leg muscle weakness or spasticity, poor muscular coordination or balance, degenerative leg joint disease, or bilateral prosthesis?
a. Swing-through three-point gait
b. Four-point gait
c. Three-point-and-one-gait (partial-weight-bearing)
d. Three-point-gait (non-weight-bearing)
e. Two-point gait
b. Four-point gait
The following statements characterize Moro reflex, EXCEPT:
a. Absence of the response in the neonate definitely indicates brain disease
b. It is normally present from birth until age 3-4 months
c. Loss of the reflex previously present is one of the early signs Kernicterus
d. Is indicative of a significant cerebral disorder if present beyond six months
a. Absence of the response in the neonate definitely indicates brain disease
not necessarily brain dse; may be AHC problem, upper motor neuron lesion
Injury to the tibial collateral, middle one-third medial capsular, and posterior oblique ligaments may be determined by the
following test:
a. Adduction stress test at 45 degrees of flexion and the internal rotation posterior drawer sign
b. Abduction stress test at 15 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign
c. Abduction stress test at 30 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign
d. Abduction stress test at 30 degrees of flexion and the internal rotation anterior drawer sign
e. Adduction stress test at 45 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign
c. Abduction stress test at 30 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign
In the venous system:
a. Blood vessels have smaller diameters than their corresponding arteries
b. Mean pressures are higher than in the arterial system
c. Blood vessels have greater compliance
d. All of these are true
e. None of these are true
c. Blood vessels have greater compliance
The patellar tendon of the quadriceps femoris attaches distally on this large roughened area which is anterior on the tibia and below the tibial condyles. This palpable structure is:
a. None of these
b. Crest of the tibia
c. Tuberosity of the tibia
d. TIbiofemoral joint line
b. Crest of the tibia
Characteristics of Fascioscapulohumeral dystrophy of Landouzy and Dejerine are as follows, EXCEPT:
a. Lordosis is exaggerated
b. It progress quickly, resulting in disability years after onset
c. Atrophy of the face become severe
d. Atrophy and weakness of the shoulder-girdle muscles are prominent
e. Usually appears in the second decade of life and in either sex
b. It progress quickly, resulting in disability years after onset
progresses slowly
This instability occurs with a tear of the posterior cruciate ligament and both the medial and lateral capsular ligaments. The results of the anterior test, in which both condyles are subluxed anteriorly an equal amount with no rotation is positive.
a. Anterior instability
b. None of these
c. Posterior Instability
d. Lateral Instability
e. Medial Instability
a. Anterior instability
Which statement does not apply to the posterolateral drawer sign?
a. When the tibia is in external rotation, the sign is positive
b. The test is performed in the usual drawer fashion with the knee in 70 to 80 degrees of flexion
c. The tibia is internally or externally rotated as well as being positive in neutral position
d. Confirms a posterolateral rotator instability of the knee
e. The sign is negative if the tibia is in internal rotation because of the intact posterior cruciate ligament
c. The tibia is internally or externally rotated as well as being positive in neutral position
(+) tibia ER
(-) tibia IR
117.The following may be observed upon examination of the patient’s lumbar spine, EXCEPT:
a. Soft, doughy lipomata appearing as lumps in the area of the low back may be a sign of spina bifida
b. Any reddened dislocation may indicate infection, and skin markings may denote underlying neurologic or bone
pathology.
c. Pedunculated tumors indicate the presence of neurofibromatosis and are often accompanied by café-u-lait spots which
may impinge upon the spinal cord and nerve roots
d. An unusual patch of hair on the back may be evidence of some body defect in the spine such as a congenital bony bar
e. Gibbus deformity may bone present secondary to a herniated disc
e. Gibbus deformity may bone present secondary to a herniated disc
118.Which of the following is true of the Hamstring?
a. All of these
b. None of these
c. They extend the hip and/or flex the knee
d. Rotates the knee joint when the joint is fully extended
c. They extend the hip and/or flex the knee
cannot rotate in full ext.
119.This method of bandaging is used to accommodate either increasing or decreasing body part circumstances:
a. Spiral turn
b. Figure-eight turn
c. Circular turn
d. Spiral-reverse turn
e. Recurrent turn
d. Spiral-reverse turn
inc circulation - spiral turn
stump - recurrent turn
The forces at the pelvis in bilateral stance is an example of:
a. Second Class Lever
b. Fourth Class Lever
c. First Class Lever
d. Third Class Lever
a. Second Class Lever
126.The following statements describe the patella, EXCEPT:
a. Originally only a sesamoid bone in the quadriceps tendon
b. The depth of the patella femoral groove and height of the lateral femoral condyle buttress the patella against lateral
dislocation
c. The medial patellofemoral ligaments helps prevent its medial displacement
d. The chief active stabilizer is the vastus medialis oblique (VMO) muscle
e. Passive stabilization is provided by the bony contours of the femoral sulcus and the configuration of the patella as well
as by thickenings of the capsule
c. The medial patellofemoral ligaments helps prevent its medial displacement
The cortex is not smooth but is thrown into folds and furrows that markedly increase the total surface area without
demanding greater brain volume. Each fold or grounded elevation is known as:
a. Sulcus
b. Hemisphere
c. Gyrus
d. Lobe
c. Gyrus
Following are example of Force Couple, EXCEPT:
a. Abduction at the glenohumeral joint from the deltoid and supraspinatus contracting together
b. None of these
c. Abduction and upward rotation of the scapula from the combined forces of the trapezius, serratus anterior
d. All of these
b. None of these
EXCEPT.
133.Which crutch-walking technique would you choose for patients with spina bifida, paraplegia or myelomeningocele?
a. Two-point gait
b. Four-point gait
c. Swing-through three-point gait
d. Three-point-gait (non-weight-bearing)
e. Three-point-and-one-gait (partial-weight-bearing)
c. Swing-through three-point gait
137.This crease lies at the base of the fingers and marks the location of the proximal pulley.
a. Distal palmar crease
b. Hypothenar crease
c. Proximal interphalangeal crease
d. Thenar crease
e. Proximal palmar crease
e. Proximal palmar crease
138.This instability occurs with a disruption of all of the lateral compartment capsular ligaments. The iliotibial band may be
torn. The posterior cruciate ligament remains intact. The result of the adduction test is positive with the knee at 30 degrees of flexion.
a. Combined anterolateral and posterolateral rotatory instability
b. Combines posterolateral and anterolateral rotator instability
c. None of these
d. Combines anterolateral and anteromedial rotatory instability
e. Anterior instability
a. Combined anterolateral and posterolateral rotatory instability
b. Combines posterolateral and anterolateral rotator instability
same answer pero rule of boards
140.Which of the following statements is true when testing for rigid or supple flat feet?
a. While standing on feet and seated, if medial longitudinal arch absent in some positions, subject has flat feet. If present and absent only when he stands, flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports.
b. While standing on toes and seated, if medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If arch is absent and present only when he stands, flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports.
c. While standing on toes, if medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If present and absent only when he stands, his flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports.
d. While standing on toes and seated, if the medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If present and absent only when he stands, his flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports
e. While standing on toes and seated, if medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If arch is present and absent only when he stands, flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports
d. While standing on toes and seated, if the medial longitudinal arch is absent in all positions, subject has flat feet. If present and absent only when he stands, his flat feet are supple and correctable with longitudinal arch supports
142.During the Stance Phase of Gait, subject may exhibit the following, EXCEPT:
a. Subjects with weakness of L5 distribution may have an abductor lurch
b. Subject with S1 distribution weakness may have an abductor lurch
c. Subject with muscle weakness of S1 and S2 distribution may have a flat foot with no forceful toe-off
d. Subject with a L2-L4 distribution weakness may walk with a back knee gait to lock their knees in extension
b. Subject with S1 distribution weakness may have an abductor lurch
no toe off
147.In polyradiculoneuropathy, the following statements are true, EXCEPT:
a. In acute post infection polyradiculoneuropathies the early weakness may be more evident in the girdle musculature
b. Hands and feet may become quite sensitive and painful to squeezing, slapping and temperature changes
c. Sweating is lost when parasympathetic denervation is complete
d. Signs may be somewhat asymmetric
c. Sweating is lost when parasympathetic denervation is complete
sympa sweating
148.The following are characteristics of the lateral collateral ligament of the ankle joint, EXCEPT:
a. The anterior talofibular ligament has a high incidence of sprain because it is the first to undergo stress when the ankle
is inverted and plantar flexed
b. The posterior talofibular ligament is the strongest of the lateral collateral ligaments, and its primary function is prevent
forward slippage of the fibula onto the talus
c. The calcaneofibular ligament stretches plantarward to its insertion into the lateral wall of the calcaneus
d. The peroneous longus and brevis tendons are the primary foot evertors and they assist in plantar flexion
e. In severe ankle sprain, the calcaneofibular ligament may be torn, but only after the anterior talofibular ligament has
also been torn
d. The peroneous longus and brevis tendons are the primary foot evertors and they assist in plantar flexion
di naman sila part ng LCL of the ankle.
156.A fracture with cord transaction at the C6 level will produce the following, EXCEPT:
a. The subject is parasympathetic, ileus appears and the urinary bladder distends
b. Breathing is diaphragmatic
c. There is complete sensory loss below the C6 or C7 dermatome
d. An immediate flaccid paralysis of the trunk and extremities sparing some shoulder movement and flexion at the elbows
e. At a later stage, reflexes in this zone will be reduced or absent, whereas those mediated through intact cord segment
below will be hyperreflexic
a. The subject is parasympathetic, ileus appears and the urinary bladder distends
169.The following statements apply to the femoral nerve, EXCEPT:
a. Proximal lesions will result in weakness of thigh extension but most prominently loss of knee flexion
b. Sensory distribution include the anteromedial thigh and the anteromedial leg to the foot
c. Most common syndrome involving this nerve is a painful mononeuritis which occurs in diabetics
d. The quadriceps muscle atrophies quickly, the knee jerk is lost early
e. Arises from L1 to L4 spinal roots, and innervates the iliopsoas, Sartorius and quadriceps femoris muscle.
a. Proximal lesions will result in weakness of thigh extension but most prominently loss of knee flexion
hip flexion, knee ext.
171.The following statements are true of the ulnar styloid process, EXCEPT:
a. It articulates with the proximal carpal row to take part in wrist articulation
b. It does not extend as far distally and it is more prominent and thicker than its radial counterpart
c. The external carpi ulnaris tendon runs through its groove
d. In the anatomic position, it is both medially and posteriorly located in the wrist
e. It is most easily palpated when the hand is radially deviated and the tendon is contracted
a. It articulates with the proximal carpal row to take part in wrist articulation
radials + proximal carpals =wrist
177.Accurate diagnosis forms the cornerstone for any discussion of ligamentous knee problems. The pertinent tests for anteromedial rotatory instability are the:
a. Adduction stress test at 45 degrees of flexion and the internal rotation posterior drawer sign
b. Adduction stress test at 45 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign
c. Abduction stress test at 30 degrees of flexion and the internal rotation posterior drawer sign
d. Abduction stress test at 30 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign
e. None of these
d. Abduction stress test at 30 degrees of flexion and the external rotation anterior drawer sign
178.The following statements apply to the median nerve, EXCEPT:
a. Sensory loss involves the palmar surface of the hand and fingers
b. These is conspicuous atrophy of the thenar eminence with flattening of the pal
c. Partial injuries are often painful and paresthetic and causalgia may occur
d. Interrupt at the elbow produces weakness of wrist flexion with median deviation
e. Carries fibers from the C6, C7, C8 & T1 roots
d. Interrupt at the elbow produces weakness of wrist flexion with median deviation
ulnar dev ang weakness
179.The following characterizes straight anterior knee instability, EXCEPT:
a. Injury is sustained while twisting, decelerating of changing direction
b. May involve external rotation of the tibia with knee flexed
c. May involve forward rotation of the tibia with knee extended or slightly flexed
d. Subject usually hears a pop at the time of injury but still able to continue the activity
e. Gross swelling develops within 12 hours
d. Subject usually hears a pop at the time of injury but still able to continue the activity
CANNOT continue activity
191.The following positions describe the examination the reflexes, EXCEPT:
a. With the subject standing, the hands are placed on hips with arms akimbo, tests for the triceps reflex
b. With the subject kneeling, the triceps surae stretch reflex is tested with one hand positioned on the ball of the foot stretching the muscle slightly and tapping quickly and gently
c. With the subject’s feet flat on the floor, hold one hand on the distal thigh and strike the tendon just below patella to test for quadriceps stretch reflex
d. IN the ankle joint, clonus is elicited by briskly but gently dorsiflexing the ankle increasing pressure against the sole
e. Striking the examiner’s thumb on the biceps tendon with the elbow flexed at varied degrees for best response is assumed for biceps stretch reflex
d. IN the ankle joint, clonus is elicited by briskly but gently dorsiflexing the ankle increasing pressure against the sole
maintained pressure!!
195.The following statements are true in Reduction Click, EXCEPT:
a. The test is done by flexing the knee while it is rotated both internally and externally, then rotating and flexing the leg until the meniscus slips back and a characteristic “click” is hear
b. This is similar to the McMurray test in that it can also unlock the knee joint and produce the reduction click
c. Applicable to those patients having a locked knee due to a torn, dislocated, or “heaped up” meniscus
d. The test will unlock the knee caused by a torn meniscus and permit full extension
e. The object of the procedure is to reduce the displaced or torn portion of the meniscus by clicking it back into place
a. The test is done by flexing the knee while it is rotated both internally and externally, then rotating and flexing the leg until the meniscus slips back and a characteristic “click” is hear
flex then extend
200.The following describes the medial meniscus, EXCEPT:
a. Situated on top of the tibia on the medial plateau
b. Its anterior end attaches to the nonarticular portion of the top of the tibia, in feat of the anterior cruciate ligament
c. Normally there is no specific sulcus between the margin of the meniscus and the joint capsule anywhere along the
medial joint line
d. Has a firm attachment to the top of the tibia and a less firm one to the femur through the coronary ligament
e. The anterior attachment seems to slip under the anterior cruciate ligament, attaching to the bone beneath.
e. The anterior attachment seems to slip under the anterior cruciate ligament, attaching to the bone beneath.
What motions should not be stretched early in rehabilitation after an open rotator cuff repair?
A. Horizontal abduction, extension, and internal rotation
B. Horizontal abduction, flexion, and internal rotation
C. Horizontal abduction, extension, and external rotation
D. Horizontal adduction, extension, and internal rotation
D. Horizontal adduction, extension, and internal rotation
A 22-year-old male rehabilitating from a motor vehicle accident is referred to physical therapy for galt training. The patient sustained multiple injuries including a fractured tibia and a traction Injury to the brachial plexus. The patient is partial weight bearing and has good upper extremity strength. The MOST appropriate assistive device is:
A. Axillary crutches
B. Walker with platform attachment
C. Loftstrand crutches
D. Cane
C. Loftstrand crutches
In a child who has sustained a submersion injury, the physical therapist needs to be aware of neurologic and _______ system changes before initiating treatment.
A. Integumentary
B. Orthopedic
C. Cardiopulmonary
D. Renal
C. Cardiopulmonary
Which of the following factors are pathogenetic of the edema resulting from congestive heart failure?
A. Increased blood supply to various organs and tissues
B. Increased excretion of sodium by the kidneys
C. Decreased cardiac output
D. Decreased blood volume and elevated venous pressure
C. Decreased cardiac output
A patient with chronic pulmonary dysfunction is placed on a corticosteroid medication to reduce mucosal edema and inflammation. The MOST common cardiovascular side effect of corticosteroids is:
A. Palpitations
B. Increased blood pressure
C. Arrhythmias
D. Tachycardia
B. Increased blood pressure
Which hip-repair surgical procedure is indicated for pain in early stages of degenerative joint disease before motion has
been lost?
a. Double-cup arthroplasty
b. Femoral Prosthesis
c. Muscle Release
d. Arthrodesis
e. Displacement Osteotomy
e. Displacement Osteotomy
The goal of postural regulation is to stabilize the head with respect to the vertical. The following statements describe this
stabilization concept, EXCEPT:
a. None of these
b. Predetermined response appears to be formed through experience with self-initiated goal-directed activity
c. Motor input is used primarily for “knowledge of response” to make appropriate adjustments in subsequent anticipatory postural actions
d. Geocentric frame of reference enable anticipation or prediction of center of force displacements that are induced by voluntary motion
e. Corrections of head position occur in advance of a voluntary change in body position
c. Motor input is used primarily for “knowledge of response” to make appropriate adjustments in subsequent anticipatory postural actions
sensory input = knowledge of response
The following statements characterize flexion in the lumbar spine, EXCEPT:
a. Flexion in the low back produces kyphosis
b. Involves relaxation of the anterior longitudinal ligament and stretching of the supraspinal and interspinal ligaments the
ligamentum flavum and the posterior longitudinal
c. To test, the subject bends as far forward as he can with knees straight, and try to touch the toes
d. There is no reversal of the normal lordosis during flexion, the low back merely flattens out
e. Limited by the size of the vertebral bodies
a. Flexion in the low back produces kyphosis
straightens out
Subjects who have menisectiomies follow the following program, EXCEPT:
a. Flexion-to-extension exercises are used when there is a partial ROM with very little swelling or discomfort in or about the knee
b. Resistance is kept low but is raised as the subject becomes able to handle the resistance with good exercise technique
c. Subjects with arthroscopic menisectomies are started on a much more vigorous exercise program much earlier
d. Hamstring stretching exercises and flexion exercises are begun about 10 days after surgery
e. Subjects are allowed to begin straight-leg-raise exercises at day one and progress to about eight sets of 10 repetitions
in a very short period of time
a. Flexion-to-extension exercises are used when there is a partial ROM with very little swelling or discomfort in or about the knee
when there is full ROM
This test makes it possible to determine whether or not the radial and ulnar arteries are supplying the hand to their full
capacities:
a. Bunnel-Littler Test
b. Tinel Test
c. None of these
d. Allen test
e. Retinacular test
d. Allen test
In lateral epicondylitis, repetitive stress may result in injury to the following muscles:
a. All of these
b. Proximal attachments of the extensor radialis brevis
c. Extensor Carpi Radialis Longus
d. Extensor Digitorum
b. Proximal attachments of the extensor radialis brevis
In getting a laminectomy patient out of bed, the following procedures are observed, EXCEPT:
a. Raise herself to a standing position by pushing against the bed with her palm, reminding to keep the back straight and to look straight ahead
b. The incision site need not be splinted
c. Help lower herself slowly into a chair, keeping the back straight; make sure the knees are elevated to hip level or slightly higher to avoid stress on the lumbar spine
d. Raise the head of the bed to low Fowler’s position.
e. Raise herself into sitting position by pushing against the mattress with her upper hand as she swings her legs over the side of the head
c. Help lower herself slowly into a chair, keeping the back straight; make sure the knees are elevated to hip level or slightly higher to avoid stress on the lumbar spine
The following statements apply to the ulnar nerve, EXCEPT:
a. Innervates the hypothenar, all interossei, two medial lumbricals, the adductor pollicis and part of the flexor pollicis brevis via its deep palmar branch in the hand
b. Innervates the flexor carpi ulnaris and the flexor digitorum profundus to the 4th and 5th digits in the forearm
c. Carries fibers from the C8 and T1 roots.
d. In early or minimal lesions of the ulnar nerve, there is atrophy of the first dorsal interosseus and sensory loss distally in the fifth digit
e. Paralysis causes the grip to be fairly weak but finger abduction and adduction will be nearly lost
e. Paralysis causes the grip to be fairly weak but finger abduction and adduction will be nearly lost
There is a greater frequency of tears of the medial semilunar cartilage, a common athletic injury. This is due to:
a. The medial meniscus which is fixed to the tibia front and back by its two horns as well as around its periphery
b. The posterior cruciate ligament which is attached to the tibia so far back as to allow some of its fibers to arise from the back of the bone below the upper surface.
c. Tightness of the medial coronary ligament of the knee that prevents back-and-forth movements of the medial
d. None of the above
c. Tightness of the medial coronary ligament of the knee that prevents back-and-forth movements of the medial
The following muscles arise from the medial epicondyle of the humerus and bounds the medial side of the antecubital fossa:
a. Flexor Carpi Radialis, Palmaris Longus and Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
b. Flexor Digitorum Sublimis, Flexor Digitorum Profundus and Flexor Pollicis Longus
c. None of these
d. Pronator Teres, Palmaris Longus, and Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
a. Flexor Carpi Radialis, Palmaris Longus and Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
arise from the medial epicondyle of the humerus and bounds the medial side of the antecubital fossa
Home exercise program following open reduction internal fixation include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Basic ROM and strengthening exercises to prevent contracture and reduce atrophy while non ambulatory
b. Subject’s full weight bearing status may be achieved at 3 months post surgery
c. Subjects perform isometric exercises, ROM exercises, and upper extremity exercise until fatigued
d. Even as pain increases or weakness develops, full active ROM must be performed
e. Resistive exercises are encouraged with the lower extremities because of the subject’s non-weight bearing status
e. Resistive exercises are encouraged with the lower extremities because of the subject’s non-weight bearing status
DO NOT give resistive
The following statements are true of the primary dorsiflexor of the foot, EXCEPT:
a. The extensor digitorum longus tendon is perceptible on the dorsum of the foot, crossing in front of the ankle mortise and fanning out to insert, by slips into the dorsal surfaces of the middle and distal phalanges of the four lateral toes
b. The tendon of the extensor hallucis longus is perceptible to its insertion at the proximal end of the distal phalanx of the great toe
c. The primary dorsiflexor of the foot lie in the anterior tibial compartment and share a common innervations, the deep peroneal nerve
d. The muscle belly of the extensor digitorum brevis can be palpated where it bulges out from the sinus tarsi and therefore can be isolated for muscle testing
e. The tendon of the tibialis anterior can be seen where it crosses the anteromedial portion of the ankle joint
d. The muscle belly of the extensor digitorum brevis can be palpated where it bulges out from the sinus tarsi and therefore can be isolated for muscle testing
This tendon can be isolated by holding the subject’s fingers in extension and flexing the finger in question at the IP joint. If the finger can be flexed at the specified joint, the tendon is intact:
a. Interossei
b. Flexor digitorum profundus
c. Lumbricals
d. Flexor digitorum superficialis
e. None of these
d. Flexor digitorum superficialis
The stability and integrity of the transverse arch is maintained by:
a. Hypothenar and thenar muscles
b. Extrinsic muscles of the hands
c. Interossei and lumbricals
d. tendons
e. ligaments
a. Hypothenar and thenar muscles
During isovolumentric contraction phase:
a. The aortic and tricuspid valves are closed
b. The aortic valve is open while the pulmonic valve is closed
c. The mitral valve is open but the tricuspid valve is closed
d. The mitral valve is open while the aortic valve is closed
e. The mitral and aortic valves are closed
e. The mitral and aortic valves are closed
The following statements are true of the Swing Phase of gait, EXCEPT:
a. The ankle dorsiflexor are active during the entire swing phase to clear the ground by holding the ankle neutral
b. The knee reaches its maximum degree of flexion approximately 65 degrees between toe-off and midswing
c. Steppage gait occurs when the ankle dorsiflexor do not work properly
d. If the subject has poor quadriceps strength, he may rotate the pelvis posteriorly in an exaggerated motion to provide
forward thrust for the leg
e. If the hamstrings are weak, heel strike may be excessively harsh and the knee may hyperextend
d. If the subject has poor quadriceps strength, he may rotate the pelvis posteriorly in an exaggerated motion to provide
APT!!
115.Thrombus formation in the legs, particularly in patients following surgery may be prevented in the following manner,
EXCEPT:
a. Gentle mobilization and modified exercises after thrombi have resolved
b. Increase movement and activity to negate sequelae of restricted mobility and recumbency on oxygen transport
c. Specially designed stockings in conjunction with pneumatic compression devices to stimulate the normal action of the muscle pump in the leg
d. Stockings that are applied with uniform pressure along the leg, and removed frequently for 10 minute periods and reapplied.
e. Compression stockings to prevent peripheral blood pooling and augment venous return
b. Increase movement and activity to negate sequelae of restricted mobility and recumbency on oxygen transport
may DVT na so CI ang movement muna
117.This muscle is active in foot inversion if accompanied by dorsiflexion:
a. Extensor hallucis longus
b. Tibialis anterior
c. Tibialis posterior
d. Extensor digitorum longus
b. Tibialis anterior
124.Which of the following statements is true in forefoot adduction correction test?
a. If forefoot can be fully corrected to less than neutral, foot will probably not correct itself, and cast correction is necessary
b. If forefoot can only be partially corrected to neutral or less, foot will still correct itself and cast correction is not necessary
c. If you can manually correct adduction and abduct forefoot greater than the neutral position, no treatment is necessary as foot will partially correct itself.
d. If forefoot can be fully corrected to neutral or greater, foot will probably not correct itself, and cast correction is not necessary
e. If you can manually correct adduction and abduct forefoot beyond neutral position, no treatment is necessary as foot will partially correct itself.
a. If forefoot can be fully corrected to less than neutral, foot will probably not correct itself, and cast correction is necessary
if can be corrected beyond neutral no need for cast
126.Characteristic of patellofemoral pain syndrome include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Can be used by malalignment of the lower extremity
b. Most frequently recommended treatment is exercise
c. Surgical treatment is rarely indicated
d. Pain results in decreased force by knee extensors
e. Consists of anterior knee pain excluding intra-articular pathology, peripatellar tendinitis and bursitis.
a. Can be used by malalignment of the lower extremity
overloading rather than malalignment
132.The following statements apply to lower lumbar root compression, EXCEPT:
a. Atrophy of the gastrocnemius may be seen
b. Severe foot drop is unlikely, but toe drop is common with atrophy of the anterior compartment
c. Percussion by fist or hammer over the lower lumbar segments may aggravate pain in the thigh or leg
d. Ankle jerk reflex is commonly diminished or absent in S1 root impingement but may be normal in L5 root syndromes
e. Test of straight-leg-raising frequently shows marked limitation in range of thigh flexion on the good side
e. Test of straight-leg-raising frequently shows marked limitation in range of thigh flexion on the good side
involved side
137.The following relationships are true of the low back, EXCEPT:
a. Lumbar lordosis I unrelated of hip and trunk flexibilities
b. Longer abdominal muscles and shorter erector spinae muscles are associated with an increased lumbar curve
c. Individuals with exaggerated lumbar curvature while standing tend to have short hamstrings, rotating the pelvis posteriorly, resulting in concurrent reduction of lumbar lordosis
d. There is no correlation among hip extension ROM, standing pelvic tilt, standing lumbar lordosis and abdominal muscle
performance variables
e. The length of the hamstring muscles are negatively related to the lumbar curve
c. Individuals with exaggerated lumbar curvature while standing tend to have short hamstrings, rotating the pelvis posteriorly, resulting in concurrent reduction of lumbar lordosis
flatback
139.Within the depression between the medial malleolus’ posterior aspect and the Achilles tendon lie several soft tissue
structures, EXCEPT:
a. Flexor hallucis longus tendon
b. Flexor digitorum longus tendon
c. Posterior tibial artery and tibial nerve
d. Tibialis posterior tendon
e. Tibialis anterior tendon
e. Tibialis anterior tendon
Some of the eight basic techniques which can be used to safety perform most lifting tasks include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Golfer’s lift
b. Diagonal lift
c. Tripod lift
d. Full squat lift
e. Deep squat lift
d. Full squat lift
141.The following are effects of cardiac transplantation on cardiovascular and pulmonary variables, EXCEPT:
a. The peak heart rate achieved during maximal exercise is markedly lower in cardiac transplant patients than in age-matched subjects thereby limiting the usefulness of exercise prescriptions based on target heart rate
b. Peak systolic blood pressure of cardiac transplant recipient is less than that of individuals without, but diastolic blood pressure is not much different
c. Resting stroke volume of patients following cardiac transplantation is less than that of individuals without, but diastolic blood pressure is not much different
d. At rest, cardiac recipients exhibit lower heart rates than do individuals without cardiac transplants due to the loss of vagal tone associated with the surgical procedure
e. Oxygen consumption at anaerobic threshold is markedly lower than that of individuals without cardiac transplants, partially due to skeletal muscle weakness
d. At rest, cardiac recipients exhibit lower heart rates than do individuals without cardiac transplants due to the loss of vagal tone associated with the surgical procedure
loss of vagal tone = inc HR
144.In this knee instability, the mechanism of injury is a forceable blow against the front of the tibia with the leg externally rotated and planted in a varus position:
a. Anterior lateral rotatory instability
b. Combined rotatory instability
c. Anterior medial rotator instability
d. posterior lateral rotatory instability
e. straight lateral instability
d. posterior lateral rotatory instability
varus = lat instab
145.The following are true of the types of breathing exercises, EXCEPT:
a. Use of a flutter valve, the forced-expiration technique and autogenic drainage are beneficial in patients with cystic fibrosis, although efficacy has not been determined.
b. Following coronary artery bypass of gall-bladder surgery, breathing exercises offer no advantage over early patient mobilization
c. Incentive spirometry is no more advantageous or cost-effective than instruction in deep breathing and coughing
d. Diaphragmatic breathing and lateral costal and segmental costal and segmental costal expansion exercises are used most often post-operatively
e. Inspiratory muscle training and resistive diaphragmatic breathing exercises are not beneficial in weaning the patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
e. Inspiratory muscle training and resistive diaphragmatic breathing exercises are not beneficial in weaning the patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
151.The following conditions can result from excessive and repetitive end-range motions, excessive force, and stretching
leading to chronic soft tissue inflammation, muscle spasm and postural imbalance, EXCEPT:
a. Repetitive sprain injuries
b. None of these
c. Cumulative trauma disorders
d. Repetitive strain injuries
e. Repetitive motion injuries
a. Repetitive sprain injuries
strain not sprain
155.The following describe patellar misalignment, EXCEPT:
a. May be either permanent or recurrent
b. Release of the tight lateral restraining structures that cause excessive pressure and patellar subluxation (lateral
release) may correct the problem
c. Eventual outcome of many cases of chronic patellar medial alignment is patellofemoral arthrosis
d. Vastus medialis advancement with tightening of lax medial restrains (medial reefing) may treat the problem
e. Correction of the varus angle of the patellar tendon (distal realignment) may help resolve the problem
e. Correction of the varus angle of the patellar tendon (distal realignment) may help resolve the problem
159.In anterolateral rotator instability of the knee, healing requires:
a. Six to eight weeks of cast immobilization with the knee flexed 90 degrees and leg maximally externally rotated
b. Four to five weeks of cylinder cast immobilization of the knee at about 60 degrees of flexion
c. None of these
d. A long leg cast over a bulky compressive dressing with the knee positioned 60-70 degrees of flexion and the tibia is
internally rotated on the femur for five to eight weeks
e. Cast immobilization with the knee flexed at 60-70 degrees and the tibia internally rotated to prevent the postero-lateral
subluxation of the tibia for six to eight weeks.
a. Six to eight weeks of cast immobilization with the knee flexed 90 degrees and leg maximally externally rotated
176.Metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joint extension is primarily the action of:
a. Interossei and lumbricals
b. Extensor digitorum communis
c. Extensor digitorum, lumbricals and interossei
d. Extensor carpi ulnaris and extensor carpi radialis
b. Extensor digitorum communis
178.The following statements are true of the hinged type of total knee prosthesis, EXCEPT:
a. Rotation places a great stress on the prosthesis/bone interfaces which will eventually loosen
b. Indicated for completely destroyed knee joint
c. Includes a hinge, which functions on one axis, and the hinged pieces are continually articulated
d. Patient must have functioning ligaments in the knee
e. Long, thin intermedullary portions hold the prosthesis in place, without the aid of methyl mathacrylate
d. Patient must have functioning ligaments in the knee
179.The following statements characterize percussion in chest PT, EXCEPT:
a. For patients with rib and sterna fracture, controlled mechanical ventilation may even stabilize the fracture site by minimizing negative intrathoracic pressure
b. Used during both the inspiratory and expiratory phases or respiration
c. Pneumathorax and hemothorax that develop as a result of the initial injury is considered a contraindicated to percussion
d. Not indicated for the spontaneously breathing with rib fractures who is responding to breathing exercises and assistive coughing techniques
e. Fast percussion (240 cycles/min) demonstrated the greatest sputum production, although slow percussion (6-12 cycles/min) was more effective than no percussion
f. None of the above
c. Pneumathorax and hemothorax that develop as a result of the initial injury is considered a contraindicated to percussion
not CI if it’s not the main prob; but if it is, CI
183.The following statements allow soft tissue palpation of certain structures, EXCEPT
a. The flexor carpi radialis may be palpated radial to the Palmaris longus proximally toward its origin at the medial epicondyle when making a tight fist and then to radially deviate and flex the wrist
b. The wrist flexors may be palpated as a unit and individually as you move from their origin at the medial epicondyle and supracondylar line down the forearm and toward the wrist
c. The ulnar nerve may be palpated as it is rolled gently under the index and middle fingers in the sulcus between the medial epicondyle and the olecranon process
d. The medial collateral ligament, a basic stabilizer of the humeroulnar articulation, rises from the medial epicondyle and extends to the medial margin of the ulna’s trochlear notch may be palpated directly
e. To facilitate palpation of the triceps, the subject may lean on the table where it will stand out on the posterior aspect of
the arm
d. The medial collateral ligament, a basic stabilizer of the humeroulnar articulation, rises from the medial epicondyle and extends to the medial margin of the ulna’s trochlear notch may be palpated directly
CANT BE directly palpated
186.Which of the following statements is true of the Na+/ K+ATPase pump?
a. All of these
b. It is an example of an ionic channel
c. It pumps sodium out and potassium in
d. It is an example of facilitated diffusion
e. It is an example of facilitated osmosis
The following are causes of cardiac muscle dysfunction, EXCEPT:
a. Pulmonary embolus
b. Hypotension
c. Renal insufficiency
d. Spinal cord injury
e. Cardiomyopathy
b. Hypotension
HYPERTENSION
fissuring/fragmentation chondromalacia patella degree
2nd
198.The following statements apply to the radial nerve, EXCEPT:
a. Extension of the distal phalanges, which appears to be absent in wrist drop, will be found to be possible if ulnar and median nerves are intact
b. Classically paralyzed by ischemia from pressure in the drunken and comatose and also in lead poisoning
c. Abduction and adduction of fingers are not weakened
d. Partly mediates flexion and supination at the elbow through innervations of the bronchioradialis muscle
e. A “finger drop” may result when a penetrating injury of the dorsal forearm spares branches that mediate dorsiflexion of the wrist but sever the posterior interosseus branch that mediates extension of the thumb and fingers
c. Abduction and adduction of fingers are not weakened
apparently weakened
pelvic rotation
pelvic list
pelvic list decreases vert. rise
pelvic rot increases vert rise
rot up list down
When developing a treatment program, the caregiver
A. Base the treatment goals on the outcome and function
B. Establishes the functional diagnosis and outcome goals
C. Prepares a written home program for the client and family member
D. Evaluates the patient’s response to treatment determines progress towards functional outcomes
E. Gathers data and information for documentation
A. Base the treatment goals on the outcome and function
Immediate postoperative care following cardiac transplantation include the following EXCEPT:
A. Oral diet is begun as soon as patient can tolerate it
B. Most patients are weaned from mechanical ventilator assistance within 24 to 36 hours
C. Typically, heart rate is maintained at about 80 beats per minute for the first 72 hours and then tapered off
D. First endomyocardial biopsy is performed 7 to 10 days after transplantation
E. Endotracheal and orogastric tubes are removed within 24 to 36 hours
C. Typically, heart rate is maintained at about 80 beats per minute for the first 72 hours and then tapered off
In evaluating the client, the caregiver:
A. Initiate planning for extended treatment as necessary.
B. Determines the client’s current conditions his functional abilities and limitations
C. Prepare and document the treatment plan and program
D. Documents client’s condition and functional outcome abilities
E. Determines and selects the appropriate treatment techniques and equipment
B. Determines the client’s current conditions his functional abilities and limitations
Abdominal muscle exercise during pregnancy and at least 8 weeks post birth should be chosen with care because of the following reasons, EXCEPT:
A. There is a noted increase in rectus abdominis muscle separation width, length, and angles of insertion
B. Decrements in abdominal muscle function can parallel in time the structural adaptations as pregnancy progressed
C. The ability to stabilize the pelvis against resistance can be decreased as pregnancy progresses and remain compromised postbirth
D. Continued functional deficits may be found in parallel with incomplete resolution of structural adaptations post birth
E. No reversal in rectus abdominis muscle separation may be found by 4 weeks postbirth
E. No reversal in rectus abdominis muscle separation may be found by 4 weeks postbirth
The following are true of palmar prehension pattern, EXCEPT:
A. Large objects may be held by widening the grip.
B. This grasp is used to pick up small objects.
C. The thumb opposes one or more of the other digits.
D. In a glass jar, the entire palmar surface of the hand grasps around it, and the thumb closes in over the glass.
D. In a glass jar, the entire palmar surface of the hand grasps around it, and the thumb closes in over the glass.
Junction formed by the terminal branches of the basilar artery and the two internal carotid arteries:
A. Anterior communicating arteries
B. Posterior communicating arteries
C. None of these
D. Circle of Willis
B. Posterior communicating arteries
This vertically-directed device acts as the privet round which the rotation occurs and which brings this lateral rotation of the tibia (or medial rotation of the femur) to a halt.
A. Lateral collateral ligament
B. Posterior cruciate ligament
C. Medial ligament
D. Anterior cruciate ligament
E. Semilunar cartilages
D. Anterior cruciate ligament
The following statement characterize De Quervain’s disease, EXCEPT:
A. Combinations of hand twisting and forceful gripping can cause the disease
B. Repetitive friction accounts for the absorb thickening of the fibrous sheath and resultant contraction of the tendons
C. Attributed to excessive friction between two thumb tendons and their common sheath
D. Affects the tendons on the side of the wrist and at the base of the thumb
E. The tendons affected are connected to the muscles on the back of the forearm that contract to pull the thumb back and away from the hand.
B. Repetitive friction accounts for the absorb thickening of the fibrous sheath and resultant contraction of the tendons
Plantar-flexion contractures can interfere with the performance of functional tasks through the following, EXCEPT:
A. Decrease the plantar flexor moment when the ankle is in dorsiflexed positions.
B. There is knee hyperextension during the stance phase
C. There is decreased ankle dorsiflexion during the swing phase
D. There is decreased peak hip extension in late stance phase
A. Decrease the plantar flexor moment when the ankle is in dorsiflexed positions.
In as much as the knee extensor mechanism is involved, the following statements apply, EXCEPT:
A. The exercise is increased according to subject’s tolerance
B. Straight-leg exercises are progressed slowly
C. Resistance is seldom added to the exercise
D. By the time of discharge (about seven days), the subject should be doing 2-3 sets of 5 leg raises
E. Repetitions should be aggressively increased until about 8 sets of 10 sets raises daily are performed over the next three weeks after discharge
C. Resistance is seldom added to the exercise
A solute with a high portion coefficient is
A. Moves through the cell membrane with difficulty
B. Where saturation can occur
C. More soluble in fat than in water
D. Directed against a chemical gradient
E. More soluble in water than in fat.
C. More soluble in fat than in water
Gait patterns between young (20-40 y.o.) and old (60-80 y.o.) people differ in their gait performance as follows, EXCEPT:
A. Stride time is shorter for the young than the old
B. Ankle dorsiflexion is slightly increased in older, while ankle plantar flexion was decreased in older people.
C. Peak hip flexion exhibit a slightly increase in the older persons.
D. Peak knee extension is significantly less in the older persons.
E. Stride length is significantly greater in the younger persons.
A. Stride time is shorter for the young than the old
The following are actions of the upper fibers of the Trapezius:
A. Steady the scapula at the very beginning of the movement of raising the arm above the head
B. Pull the medial end of the scapula downwards
C. Cooperative with the horizontal fibers to rotate the glenoid, cavity upwards
D. Shrugs the shoulders, maintain shoulder level but in fatigue allow the shoulders to droop
E. Retract the scapula
D. Shrugs the shoulders, maintain shoulder level but in fatigue allow the shoulders to droop
HYPOTHALAMIC RELEASING AND INHIBITING HORMONES: * Corticotropin releasing hormone= stimulates release of ACTH * Thyrotropin releasing hormones= stimulates release of TSH * Gonadotropin releasing hormone= stimulates release of LH and FSH * Prolactin inhibiting hormone (dopamine)= inhibits release of prolactin * Growth hormone inhibiting hormone= inhibits release of growth hormone transection of pituitary stalk (infundibulum) will break the connection of hypothalamus to pituitary gland and hypothalamus is unable to do it’s function. Therefore, it will become the opposite: DECREASED TSH, FSH, LH, ACTH INCREASED PROLACTIN.
If exercise tightness of the hip ligaments, muscles, or fasciae prevents complete extension of the hip joints, an individual commonly compensates for this limitation by:
A. Lengthening the vastus group
B. Accentuating the anterior tilt of the pelvis and lumbar lordosis
C. Increasing the posterior tilt of the pelvis
D. Lumbar kyphosis
C. Increasing the posterior tilt of the pelvis
If your patient can’t support his full weight on his legs but does have a reasonably good muscular coordination and arm strength, which crutch walking gait would you choose?
A. Two-point gait
B. Swing-through three-point gait
C. Four-point gait
D. Three-point-and-one gait (partial-weight-bearing)
E. Three-point-gait (non weight bearing)
A. Two-point gait
Which of the following statements is true of individuals without cardiopulmonary abnormalities?
A. The increases in ventilation (VE) and CO are inversely proportional to the increase in metabolic rate, allowing venous blood gas and pH levels to remain close to baseline values during exercise
B. The decrease in ventilation (VE) and CO are closely matched to the decrease in metabolic rate allowing venous blood gas and pH levels to remain close to baseline values during exercise
C. The decrease in ventilation (VE) and CO are closely matched to the increase in metabolic rate, allowing venous blood gas and pH levels to remain close to baseline values during exercise
D. The increases in ventilation (VE), and CO are closely matched to the increase in metabolic rate, allowing arterial blood gas and pH levels to remain close to baseline values during exercise
E. The increase in ventilation (VE) and CO are closely matched to the decrease in respiratory rate, allowing arterial blood gas and pH levels to lower than baseline values during exercise
D. The increases in ventilation (VE), and CO are closely matched to the increase in metabolic rate, allowing arterial blood gas and pH levels to remain close to baseline values during exercise
directly proportional ang ventilation and CO with metabolic rate
BI-AXIAL (4)
condyloid, ellipsoid, saddle, hinge
biax CESH
Denervation hypersensitivity
A. Is due to a decrease in the sensitivity of receptors
B. Is due to an increased in the number of receptors
C. Is due to an increase in the amount of neurotransmitters released
D. Results from avulsion of the nerve
E. Is due to an increased sensitivity to neurotransmitter
B. Is due to an increased in the number of receptors
The Ulnar Nerve innervates the following structures, EXCEPT:
A. All interossei
B. Medial half of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus
C. Adductor Pollicis
D. Palmaris Longus
E. All Hypothenar
D. Palmaris Longus
median
Suggested dimension (in feet) for an extremity whirlpool in Hydrotherapy area is:
A. 8 x 8
B. 5 x 7
C. 10 x 8
D. 8 x 10
E. 7 x 8
E. 7 x 8
A patient points to the lateral aspect of the thigh as his source of pain. This may indicate that underlying problem may be due to
A. Trochanteric bursitis
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Gluteal bursitis
D. Sacroiliac stenosis
E. Lumbar spinitis
A. Trochanteric bursitis
Postoperative rehabilitation of acute-posterolateral instability of the knee consist of the following, EXCEPT:
A. The long-leg brace dial lock is adjusted to allow full flexion but to limit extension to about 60 degrees
B. After the cast is removed, a knee-ankle-foot-orthosis with a dial lock is applied
C. Active extension is controlled because the arcuate complex has been advanced
D. Orthosis is worn at all times and the dial lock is adjusted to allow extension of an additional 15 degrees each week
E. The subject begins partial weight bearing when the lock prevents only the final 15 degrees of extension
A. The long-leg brace dial lock is adjusted to allow full flexion but to limit extension to about 60 degrees
The following characterizes straight posterior knee instability, EXCEPT:
A. May be caused by hyperextension, when some other force is directed against the extended knee
B. May be caused by hyperextension, when a weight falls on the extended joint
C. Structures involved are the anterior cruciate ligament and the miniscotibial portions of the capsule
D. Rupture is caused by a force directed against the flexed knee that strikes the anterior aspect of the tibial head and drives it rearward
E. Primary structures involved are the posterior cruciate ligament and the posterior part of the capsule
C. Structures involved are the anterior cruciate ligament and the miniscotibial portions of the capsule
Assistive devices are often used and prescribed to facilitate the process of gait training. The following statements are true, EXCEPT:
A. When a person using an assistive device has compromised cardio respiratory function, the increased demand may not be within the limits of his or her reserve capacity
B. Ambulating while using an assistive device is known to create a metabolic demand different from that for unassisted ambulation
C. The decreased metabolic demand with the use of assistive devices is at least in part due to the slower speed
D. Assistive devices are used as transitional aids towards the goal of independent ambulation
E. These devices may be used as permanent functional aids the can be used for home or community ambulation.
C. The decreased metabolic demand with the use of assistive devices is at least in part due to the slower speed
increased metabolic demand
In this lifting technique the individual establishes a wide, solid base of support with one foot positioned in front of the other. The body is slightly over the load with the knees bent in half squatting position. No bending at the waist takes place. In beginning the lift, the head moves first, followed by the straightening of the legs.
A. Golfer’s lift
B. power lift
C. Deep squat lift
D. Tripod lift
E. Partial squat lift with support
B. power lift
Depolarization is initiated when this moves inside the cell.
A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Magnesium
D. Chloride
E. Permanganate
B. Sodium
The combined action of these muscles is vertebral extension, are continuous from the sacrum to the occiput:
A. None of these
B. Transversopinal
C. Erector Spinae or Sacrospinalis
D. Quadratus Lumborum
C. Erector Spinae or Sacrospinalis
Splints that incorporate some elastic component such as springs of rubber bands that exerts a force on the joint but allow for some change of joint position.
A. Dynamic
B. Dynamic-progressive
C. Static-progressive
D. Static
A. Dynamic
This joint is primarily responsible for inversion/eversion and abduction/adduction of the foot.
A. Talonavicular
B. Talocrural
C. Subtalar
D. Transverse tarsal
E. Calcaneocuboid
D. Transverse tarsal
TRANSVERSE TARSAL / CHOPART’S JT/ MIDTARSAL JT / SURGEON JT =Multiaxial (inv-ever; abd-add) =TALONA, CC pa TALOCRURAL=hinge joint (DF-PF) SUBTALAR/TALOCALCANEAL= pronation-supination; inversion-eversion
The following statements describe repair of acute instability, EXCEPT:
A. Advancement of the posterior oblique ligament is a reconstructive procedure that is almost always used
B. Peripheral tears of the medial meniscus is salvaged buy suturing the structure to the capsular ligaments
C. Repair of an acute case by direct suture is usually avoided
D. Ligament stapling is avoided because it tends to “strangle”
E. The need to drill holes in bone to reattach ligaments is seldom necessary inasmuch as the periosteum is usually intact and will hold sutures well
E. The need to drill holes in bone to reattach ligaments is seldom necessary inasmuch as the periosteum is usually intact and will hold sutures well
Excursion and increase in tension of the lumbosacral roots may be accomplished by the following demonstrations, EXCEPT:
A. Straight leg with medial rotation of the hip
B. Dorsiflexing the ankle at the end of straight leg raising
C. Flexing the trunk during straight leg raising
D. Lateral rotation of the hip on straight leg raising
E. Straight leg raising
D. Lateral rotation of the hip on straight leg raising
The Continuing Professional Education (CPE) Council for PT and OT exercise powers and functions that include the following, EXCEPT:
A. Accept, evaluate and approve applications for exemptions from CPE requirements.
B. To present periodic assessment and upgrade criteria for accreditation of CPE providers and CPE programs to the Commission for approval.
C. Periodically monitors the implementation of programs, activities or sources.
D. Accept, evaluate and approve applications for accreditation of CPE providers
E. Accept, evaluate and approve applications for accreditation of CPE programs, and determine the number of CPE credit units.
B. To present periodic assessment and upgrade criteria for accreditation of CPE providers and CPE programs to the Commission for approval.
In carpal tunnel syndrome, alteration in the size of the structures under the transverse carpal tunnel ligament such as occurs with inflammation, edema or fascial scarring can affect the perineural vasculature. This inflammation process can result in the following conditions, EXCEPT:
A. Tingling in one or more digits in the median nerve distribution when the patients actively maintain maximal wrist flexion for one minute
B. Fibroblastic proliferation secondary to chronic edema my result in interneural fibrosis of the median nerve
C. Self perpetuating cycle of hypoxia
D. Leakage of edema from damaged capillary endothelium
A. Tingling in one or more digits in the median nerve distribution when the patients actively maintain maximal wrist flexion for one minute
phalen’s is done passively
The following statements are true of the cruciate ligaments of the knee, EXCEPT:
A. External rotation of the leg reduces forward movement of the tibia on the femur even if the anterior cruciate ligament is torn
B. If the amount of forward movement of the tibia on the femur in internal rotation is equal to than in the neutral position, both the anterior cruciate ligament and the posterolateral portion of the joint capsule may be torn
C. If the tibia is pushed posteriorly and it moves backward on the femur, posterior draw sign in positive
D. If forward movement with the leg in the neutral position both posterior cruciate ligaments and the posteromedial portion of the joint capsule may be damaged
E. The anterior cruciate may be torn if anterior draw sign positive
D. If forward movement with the leg in the neutral position both posterior cruciate ligaments and the posteromedial portion of the joint capsule may be damaged
Which of the following statements are TRUE:
I. All of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus is supplied by the median nerve.
II. The median nerve supplies all of the Flexor Pollicis Longus.
III. Adjoining half of the Flexor Digitorum Profundus is supplied by the median nerve
IV. The ulnar nerve supplies the lateral half of the Profundus.
V. Medial half of Profundus is supplied by the ulnar nerve.
A. II, III and IV
B. I, II and V
C. II, III and V
D. I and III only
E. III and IV only
C. II, III and V
Parkinson syndrome is a sign and symptom indicating this dysfunction
A. Extrapyramidal
B. Spinal cord
C. Pyramidal
D. Basal ganglia
E. Cerebellar
A. Extrapyramidal
syndrome is extrapyramidal
BG is for PD
Patients with anemia fatigue easily and treatments are modified accordingly. PT management include the following, EXCEPT:
A. If exercise is indicated, pacing and training that distribute the intensity of the workload can be used to promote physiological recovery
B. Mobilization in conjunction with gravitational stimulus to elicit hemodynamic responses to gravity
C. Progressive training by alternating high-intensity exercise and low intensity exercise or rest
D. Progressive training through low intensity but not by high intensity exercise
E. Exercise stimuli such as walking and transferring to optimize ventilation, perfusion and to promote mucociliary transport
D. Progressive training through low intensity but not by high intensity exercise
The following statements describe carpal tunnel syndrome, EXCEPT:
A. Numbness or pain that can radiate distally
B. Weakness of the hand.
C. The pathophysiology remains unknown although mechanical and vascular factors can play a major role
D. Often seen as the cause of progressive numbness or paresthesia of the fingers in the median nerve distribution
E. Nocturnal burning pain or hypesthesia
A. Numbness or pain that can radiate distally
proximally
Which of the following statements describe the Thyroid Gland?
I. It produces thyroxin, a very important iodine compound.
II. It regulates the relative amounts of calcium in the blood and bones.
III. Absence of the thyroid gland results in a mentally defective dwarf known as a cretin.
IV. Its anemic blood supply is derived from the two superior thyroid arteries only.
V. It derives its profuse blood supply from the two superior thyroid arteries and two inferior thyroid arteries.
A. II, IV and V
B. II, III and IV
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and V
E. I, III and V
E. I, III and V
Intervertebral joint palpation provides the clinician valuable information about joint behavior to apply a force to a joint and to evaluate the joint’s response to that force. In the process, he/she must appreciate the following, EXCEPT:
A. The amount of movements produced at the joint and presence activity evoked during the movement
B. The pain produced by the movement
C. The speed and direction at which it is applied
D. The way in which the joint moves or resists movement in response to the given force
E. The amount of force applied to the muscle inserting into the joint
B. The pain produced by the movement
The segment of nephron which is permeable to water is the:
A. Thin descending limb of the loop of Henle
B. Thin ascending limb of the loop of Henle
C. Distal convoluted tubules
D. Proximal tubule
E. Thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle
D. Proximal tubule
65%
In Thomas test, shortened two-joint muscles are diagnosed when
A. The leg is able to maintain contact with the table but the knee cannot flex past 70 degrees.
B. The thigh rises off the table and the knee is unable to flex past 70 degrees d
C. The posterior thigh of the first leg can lay flat on the table with approximately 80 degrees of knee flexion.
D. The knee flexion ability is good but the thigh rises up off the table.
E. None of these
D. The knee flexion ability is good but the thigh rises up off the table.
Patient lies supine, performs knee to chest. (+) straight leg rises (+) increased lordosis even when the leg is pushed down (if leg abducts, it is called J-SIGN/J-STROKE indicating tight ITB)
The following joint receptors provide the subcortical nuclei and cortex with constant information about position and movement, EXCEPT:
A. Golgi mazzoni corpuscles
B. Type III Golgi type endings
C. Ruffini corpuscles
D. Merkel’s disks
D. Merkel’s disks
The entire flexor pronator can be surgically removed from its common origin and transferred proximally onto the humerus to substitute for a weak or absent:
A. Triceps
B. Brachioradialis
C. Coracobrachialis
D. Biceps muscle
E. Brachialis
D. Biceps muscle
During muscle contraction, they slide towards each other.
A. Actin
B. A-band
C. H-zone
D. Myosin
E. Z-discs
A. Actin
During ambulation, the leg is brought into the trailing position by the following, EXCEPT:
A. Extension of the hip
B. Tightening of the rectus abdominis
C. Anterior tilting of the pelvis
D. Extension of the lumbar spine
B. Tightening of the rectus abdominis
Electrical stimulation affects sensory and motor nerves in the following manner, EXCEPT:
A. Varying the waveform has not meaningful influence on their responses.
B. Sensory excitation always precede motor excitation irrespective of waveform
C. Motor nerve thresholds are higher than sensory
D. Motor excitation can precede sensory excitation depending on site of stimulation
E. Both respond in a seemingly identical way to transcutaneous stimulation.
E. Both respond in a seemingly identical way to transcutaneous stimulation.
sensory stim ang TENS
These neurons carry motor impulses from the brain to the motor neurons in the spinal cord:
A. Interneuron
B. First-order Neuron
C. Upper Motor Neuron
D. Lower Motor Neuron
C. Upper Motor Neuron
glucose and amino acids transport
faci diffusion
The following statements characterize the hip abductors (HA), EXCEPT:
A. The HA muscles must produce a torque large enough to match the torque produced by the body weight to achieve frontal plane stability.
B. The main function of the muscles is to provide sagittal place stability for the hip during the single-limb support phase of walking.
C. Reducing the need for excessive forces from the HA muscles should minimize the forces produced across he hip
D. The sum of the HA muscle derived force plus the force of body weight may reach 3 to 3.5 times body weight during mid stance
E. The force produced by the HA muscles is the largest contributor to the prosthetic hip reaction force
B. The main function of the muscles is to provide sagittal place stability for the hip during the single-limb support phase of walking.
FRONTAL plane stab
In patients with movement dysfunction, feedback on a patient’s movement performance is an integral approach to rehabilitation, and may be provided in the following manner, EXCEPT:
A. As the patient attempts to perform a movement, feedback may be provided initially
B. Via augmented visual feedback
C. Center of pressure information during balance activities
D. Verbally, through the tactile cues transmitted by the therapist’s hands
A. As the patient attempts to perform a movement, feedback may be provided initially
not initially
Which of the following statement describe the heart?
I. During development, the heart undergoes rotation so that its right side is carried backwards and its left side forwards.
II. It is about the size of a clenched fist and occupies central position in the thoracic cavity.
III. It lies behind the body of the sternum and in front of the middle four thoracic vertebra (T. 5,6,7 and 8)
IV. The left ventricle forms the posterior surface and occupies most of the superior border.
V. The right ventricle occupies most of the anterior surface and forms all but the extremities of the inferior border.
A. II, III and V
B. II and V only
C. I, II and IV
D. I and IV only
E. II, III and IV
E. II, III and IV
This uncovering of the reactive site in the actin filament will result in
A. Flexion of myosin cross bridge
B. Release of calcium from SR site
C. Attraction and lengthening of myosin cross bridge
D. Deformation of troponin
E. Sliding of actin and myosin
C. Attraction and lengthening of myosin cross bridge
