Head, Neck, Back, and Spine Flashcards

1
Q

The specialized joint of the craniovertebral area are formed by one centrally located articulation & two facet whose axis of motion is vertical through the dens, accounting to 50% of rotation in the cervical area:

A

Atlanto-axial joint

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2
Q

The atlanto-occipital joint is an example of this joint:

A

Condyloid

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3
Q

The bony landmark corresponding to the superior angle of scapula?

A

T2

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4
Q

During lumbar flexion, the intervertebral disc:

A

flattens anteriorly and pushed posteriorly

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5
Q

A cervical facet joint oriented in sagittal plane will allow:

A

Flexion-extension

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6
Q

The alar ligaments limit _________________________ and play a major role in stabilizing C1 and C2. (2)

A

Flexion and rotation

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7
Q

A therapist palpates medially along the spine of the scapula. Which spinous process is at the same level as the vertebral end of the spine?

A

T3

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8
Q

Lumbar lordosis develops during:

A

10-12 months

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9
Q

Which vertebral body has a bifid spinous process?

A

Cervical

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10
Q

This structure provides humans the ability to lift heavy weights overhead; it also stabilizes the trunk for throwing objects with high velocities.

A

Thoracolumbar fascia

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11
Q

The first cervical vertebra (atlas) does not have which anatomic features of typical vertebrae

A

no vertebral body, no spinous process

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12
Q

Fibrocartilaginous pulp in the IV disc?

A

Annulus fibrosus

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13
Q

How many total joints do the joints of Von Luschka

A

12

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14
Q

The most limited motion in the lumbar spine is:

A

Rotation

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14
Q

Other names for Von Luschka’s joints? (2)

A

Uncovertebral joints; neurocentral joints

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15
Q

Ligament typically punctured during lumbar puncture/lumbar tap procedures?

A

Ligamentum flavum

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16
Q

What vertebra is the hyoid bone in line with?

A

C3

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17
Q

The characteristic feature of the fifth cervical vertebra is its:

A

Small body

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18
Q

Orientation of lumbar facet joints?

A

Superior: medial
Inferior: lateral

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19
Q

Orientation of thoracic facet joints?

A

Superior: posterior, lateral
Inferior: anterior, medial

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20
Q

Orientation of cervical facet joints?

A

Superior: posterior, superior
Inferior: anterior, inferior

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21
Q

The seventh cervical vertebra is characterized by having:

A

The longest spinous process

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22
Q

Other name for C7

A

Vertebral prominence (vertebra prominens)

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23
Q

Components of 3-joint complex?

A
  • IV disc
  • paired superior and inferior facets
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24
Q

This median-placed structure connects the apex of the odontoid process to the anterior margin of the foramen magnum?

A

Apical ligament

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25
Q

Structures that pass through the transverse foramen?

A

vertebral veins, vertebral arteries, sympathetic nerves

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26
Q

Close-packed position of the vertebral column:

A

Extension

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27
Q

Transversospinalis is composed of an intermediate oblique running muscles comprising of which of the following (3)

A

Semispinalis, Multifidus, Rotatores

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28
Q

The bony landmark corresponding to the tubercle of iliac crest?

A

L5

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29
Q

The adult spine is composed of how many vertebrae?

A

26

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30
Q

The broadest muscle in the body and is considered a large, flat muscle covering the width of the middle and lower back?

A

Lats dorsi

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31
Q

It is also known as the “Yellow ligament”?

A

Ligamentum flavum

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32
Q

The ligament that unites the adjacent spinous process?

A

Interspinous ligament

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33
Q

The anterior longitudinal ligament if injured due to a sprain may cause the affected spinal segment to:

A

Move excessively during spinal extension

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34
Q

Asking the patient to perform oblique sit-ups to the left would test which of the following muscle groups:

A

Left internal oblique & right external oblique

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35
Q

Asking the patient to perform oblique sit-ups to the right would test which of the following muscle groups:

A

Right internal oblique & left external oblique

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36
Q

Posterior longitudinal ligament is incomplete posteriorly ________.

A

Below L2

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37
Q

It is the force generated by the annulus fibrosus once it was stretched?

A

Hoop stretch

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38
Q

The intervertebral disks account for about _____ of the height of the vertebral column.

A

25%

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39
Q

This cervical ligament prevents the posterior subluxation of dens when fractured?

A

Transverse ligament

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40
Q

The cervical and lumbar curves are known as ____________________ because they begin to form later, several months after birth.

A

Secondary curves

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41
Q

The SI joint corresponds with what vertebral level?

A

S2

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42
Q

The intervertebral discs are the main structures that bind together the vertebral bodies, and they extend:

A

from C2 to sacrum

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43
Q

The vertebral foramina encloses the spinal cord; the intervertebral foramina provide spaces through which spinal nerves exit the vertebral column.

Which statements are true?

A

Both statements are true

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44
Q

A typical lumbar vertebra has the following characteristics:

I. The body is large and kidney shaped.
II. The vertebral foramina are triangular.
III. The transverse processes are long and slender.
IV. The spinous processes are short, flat, and quadrangularand project posteriorly.
V. The articular surfaces of the superior articular processes face laterally, and those of the inferior articular processes face medially.

Which statements are correct?

A

I, II, III and IV

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45
Q

Pedicles are considered widest at:

A

L5

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46
Q

Pedicles are considered narrowest at:

A

T5

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47
Q

Flexion-extension from lumbar vertebrae totals how much?

A

65deg

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48
Q

This ligament connects the tip of spinous process from C7 to sacrum?

A

Supraspinous ligament

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49
Q

The most superficial muscle in the posterior trunk:

A

Longissimus

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50
Q

Thyroid cartilage is at the level of:

A

C4-C5

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51
Q

An atypical cervical vertebra known as the epistropeus?

A

C2 (Atlas)

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52
Q

A typical thoracic vertebra has the following characteristics:

I. The body is medium size and heart shaped.
II. The vertebral foramen is small and circular.
III. The spines are long and inclined downward.
IV. Costal facets are present on the sides of the bodies for articulation with the heads of the ribs.
V. The superior articular processes bear facets that face posteriorly and laterally, whereas the facets on the inferior articular processes face anteriorly and medially.

Which statements are correct?

A

All statements are correct

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53
Q

Leaning the trunk forward when standing from a sitting position is better accomplished because of: (in relation to COG)

A

Forward shifting of the center of gravity

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54
Q

At the point where a lamina and pedicle join, a _______________ extends laterally on each side.

A

Transverse process

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55
Q

Also known as the “ Coronal Plane”; divides the body into anterior and posterior parts

A

Frontal plane

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56
Q

Plane where pronation and supination occur

A

horizontal plane

57
Q

Joint that provides almost all of four joint mobility

A

Diarthrodial joints

58
Q

COG of head, neck, and trunk

A

anterior to T11

59
Q

Types of muscles which passively elongates to allow agonist to move

A

Antagonist

60
Q

Lever where resistance is applied between the force and the axis

A

Second class lever

61
Q

This type of suture connects occipital to parietal lobes

A

lambdoidal suture

62
Q

What lobes does the squamosal suture separate?

A

parietal-temporal

63
Q

Dome-shaped bump at the posterior base of the skull

A

Inion

64
Q

Which landmark is between the supercilliary ridges?

A

Glabella

65
Q

Landmark is a depression at the root of the nose

A

Nasion

66
Q

Muscle that brings the eye downward and outward

A

Superior oblique

67
Q

Muscle that brings the eye upward and outward

A

inferior oblique

68
Q

Which muscles are responsible when looking upward? (L & R)

A

R: SR & IO
L: SR & IO

69
Q

Which muscles are responsible when looking downward to the left? (L & R)

A

R: SO
L: IR

70
Q

Foramen where the sensory branch of vestibulocochlear nerve passes through

A

Internal acoustic meatus

71
Q

What artery passes through the foramen lacerum?

A

internal carotid artery

72
Q

Medulla oblongata, spinal cord, and vertebral arteries pas through this foramen

A

Foramen magnum

73
Q

What nerves pass through the jugular foramen?

A

CN9, 10, 11

74
Q

Part of the vertebra connects transverse process to spinous process?

A

Laminae

75
Q

Angle of inclination of lumbar vertebra?

A

90deg

76
Q

C7 has which features not found in typical vertebra?

A

long non-bifid spinous process; no or small foramen transversarium

77
Q

Which atypical vertebrae has costal facets located on the outer aspect of pedicles?

A

T11-T12

78
Q

Gel-like material part of IV disc which primarily absorbs compression forces?

A

Nucleus pulposus

79
Q

What landmark is in line with C6 vertebra?

A

Cricoid

79
Q

A patient comes to you with a pain on the posterior part of his neck, neurologic findings, and LOM of the cervical region. Upon checking, your patient has (+) Spurling’s & (+) Lhermitte’s sign. Pt. also has an x-ray finding of C5-C6 affectation. Identify which spine condition is most likely present

A

Spondylosis

79
Q

What spine condition is a fracture of the parts interarticularis?

A

Spondylolysis

79
Q

Landmark in line with T7 vertebra?

A

inferior angle of the scapula

80
Q

superior continuation of the tectorial membrane? this ligament is taut during spinal flexion

A

PLL

80
Q

What spine condition is an anterior slippage of the pars?

A

Spondylolisthesis

81
Q

What spine condition is an posterior slippage of the pars?

A

Retrolisthesis

82
Q

What’s the other name for Tietze’s syndrome? What happens in this condition? When is it painful?

A

Costal chondritis
Painful inflammation of costo-chondral junction – happens in the AM

83
Q

What happens during Marie-Strumpell disease?

A. increased lumbar lordosis
B. (-) back pain
C. Increased thoracic kyphosis
D. (+) barrel chest

What’re other names for this condition?

A

C. Increased thoracic kyphosis

Ankylosing Spondylitis / Von Beckterev’s disease

84
Q

Most common muscle affected by Torticollis

A

SCM

85
Q

Source of back pain is d/t organ disease?

A

Viscerogenic

86
Q

Source of back pain is d/t a nerve root compression/impingement?

A

Neurogenic

87
Q

Source of back pain is d/t faulty posture and/or biomechanics?

A

Mechanical/postural

88
Q

Most common source of back pain?

A

mechanical/postural back pain

89
Q

Source of back pain is d/t obstruction of blood vessels?

A

Vasculogenic

90
Q

Source of back pain is d/t malingering or hysterical pt.?

A

Psychogenic

91
Q

Source of back pain is d/t bony disease?

A

spondylogenic

92
Q

special test for psychogenic back pain?

A

Hoover’s test

93
Q

Disc herniation stage where nucleus pulposus herniates posteriorly through complete tear of the annulus fibrosis

A

Extrusion

94
Q

Disc herniation stage where nucleus pulposus herniates posteriorly through incomplete tear of the annulus fibrosus

A

Prolapse

95
Q

Disc herniation stage where nucleus pulposus herniates outside the completely torn annulus fibrosus

A

Sequestration

96
Q

Disc herniation stage where nucleus pulposus bulges to intact annulus fibrosis

A

Bulging

97
Q

Structural kyphosis that is d/t single collapsed vertebra

A

Gibbus deformity

98
Q

Type of osteoporosis d/t immobility, endocrine disorder, and prolonged corticosteroid use

A

Type III

99
Q

A kyphosis where there’s a wedging at least 5 degrees of 3 consecutive vertebrae

A

Scheuermann’s disease

100
Q

In upper crossed syndrome, which muscles are tight and which are weak/stretched?

A

tight pecs major/minor; upper trap, lev scap
weak deep neck flexors; SA, rhomboid lower traps

101
Q

In lower crossed syndrome, which muscles are tight and which are weak/stretched?

A

tight erector spinae; hip flexors (iliopsoas)
weak abs; hip extensors (GMax, hams)

102
Q

Type of posture with excessive anterior pelvic shift?

A

Swayback

103
Q

Posture also known as roundback?

A

postural kyphosis

104
Q

Posture also known as slouched posture?

A

Swayback

105
Q

Other names for Scheuermann’s disease? (3)

A

juvenile discogenic disease (JDD), juvenile kyphosis, adolescent kyphosis

106
Q

A TMJ condition where there is pain upon mouth opening and contralateral lateral excursion

A

TMJ capsulitis

107
Q

A TMJ condition where there is swelling and contralateral LOM of lateral deviation

A

TMJ synovitis

108
Q

When conducting Weber Test, pt. says sound is better on the unaffected ear. Which condition might she have?

A

Sensorineural hearing loss

109
Q

When conducting Weber Test, pt. says sound is better on the affected ear. Which condition might she have?

A

Conductive hearing loss

110
Q

Which test should be used to compare bone conduction and air conduction?

A

Rinne’s test

111
Q

Which test should be used to test for CN 7 pathology ?

A

Chvostek test

112
Q

Indications for (+) Chvostek test

A

hypokalcemia, Bell’s palsy

113
Q

Which test should be used to test for conductive VS. sensorineural hearing loss ?

A

Weber test

114
Q

Which test should be used to test for meningeal irritation ?

A

Brudzinski-Kernig test

115
Q

You performed a special test to your patient in long sitting position. You passively flex his head and flex his hip then, your patient felt a sharp, electric shock-like pain on his low back. Your pt. is positive in which test?

A

Lhermitte’s sign

116
Q

Other name and procedure for Bakody’s sign? (+) ?

A

Shoulder abduction test; active shoulder abduction until arm rests on top of his head

(+) pain decreases throughout the procedure or disappears before reaching end position

117
Q

indication for (+) scalene cramp test? (2) differentiate

A

(+) localized pain = trigger points
(+) radicular pain = plexopathy

118
Q

Nerve bias of upper limb tension test 3

A

Radial

119
Q

Nerve bias of upper limb tension test 4

A

Ulnar

120
Q

Nerve bias of upper limb tension test 2

A

Median
Axillary
Musculocutaneous

121
Q

Nerve bias of upper limb tension test 1

A

Median
Anterior Interosseous nerve

122
Q

Nerve bias of Slump Test 1

A

SC, Cervical, Lumbar, sciatic

123
Q

Nerve bias of Slump Test 4

A

SC, Cervical, Lumbar, sciatic

124
Q

Nerve bias of Slump Test 2

A

obturator

125
Q

Nerve bias of Slump Test 2

A

femoral

126
Q

this type of special test is when you instruct your pt. to stand on 1 leg then extend the trunk with rotation

A

Stork standing test

127
Q

The weight arm is longer than the force arm (lever)

A

third-class lever

128
Q

COG is located at what of % of the body’s height?

A

55% of the body’s height

129
Q

where is the body’s COG located?

A

slightly anterior to S2

130
Q

tongue muscle actions (4)

A

palatoglossus - elevates tongue
genioglossus - protrudes tongue
hyoglossus - depresses tongue
styloglossus - retrudes tongue

131
Q

value for functional mouth opening VS. normal mouth opening (with mm measurement)

A

fxnal: 2 finger breadths
normal: 3 finger breadths (35-55mm)

132
Q

OPP, CPP, and capsular pattern of TMJ

A

OPP: slightly ajar
CPP: clenched teeth
capsular pattern: limited mouth opening

133
Q

TMJ is what kind of jt.? what are the arthrokinematic motions?

A

ginglymoarthrodial/modified hinge

STIR (superior - translation; inferior - rotation)

134
Q

arthrokinematic motion during TMJ depression

A

B anterior rotation followed by B anterior translation

135
Q
A