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PAM Semester 1 > Physical Diagnosis Exam 1 > Flashcards

Physical Diagnosis Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Cardiac output

A

HR + SV

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2
Q

Stroke Volume

A

The volume of blood pumped from a ventricle of the heart in one beat

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3
Q

Systolic BP represents

A

the pressure in the arteries when the heart is contracted (contraction)

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4
Q

Diastole BP Represents

A

the pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest (relaxed)

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5
Q

BP cuff length / width

A

80% of upper arm circumference, 40% of upper arm circumference

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6
Q

ausculatory gap

A

a period when Korotkoff sounds disappear during auscultation

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7
Q

orthostatic hypotension

A

temporary low BP and dizziness when suddenly rising from a sitting or reclining position

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8
Q

orthostatic bp is positive

A

Systolic BP decreases at least 20 points or diastolic decreases 10 points

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9
Q

Obtunded LOC

A

you must shake patient for response

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10
Q

Stupurous LOC

A

Painful Stimuli for response

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11
Q

Neoglisms

A

made up words, invented or distorted words

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12
Q

Confabulation

A

the act of filling in memory gaps with fabrications

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13
Q

Perseveration

A

persistent repetition of the same word or idea in response to different questions

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14
Q

Echolalia

A

automatic and immediate repetition of what others say, echoing

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15
Q

Clanging

A

choosing a word on the basis of sound rather than meaning

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16
Q

compulsions

A

Repetitive behaviors or mental acts that are performed to prevent a future state of affairs

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17
Q

obsessions

A

repeated, intrusive, and uncontrollable irrational thoughts or mental images that the patient considers unacceptable

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18
Q

phobias

A

irrational fears of specific objects or situations

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19
Q

delusions

A

false beliefs, often of persecution or grandeur, not shared by persons of similar culture that may accompany psychotic disorders

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20
Q

miosis

A

constricted pupils of less than 2mm

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21
Q

mydriasis

A

dilated pupils of greater than 6mm

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22
Q

Most common type of skin cancer

A

basal cell carcinoma 80%

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23
Q

3 types of skin cancer

A

basal cell carcinoma(80%), squamous cell carcinoma(16%), melanoma(4%)

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24
Q

A in abcde

A

asymmetry

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25
Q

B in abcde

A

border

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26
Q

C in abcde

A

color

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27
Q

d in abcde

A

diameter

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28
Q

e in abcde

A

evolution, elevation, enlargement

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29
Q

gender at greater risk for melanoma

A

Male

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30
Q

What are misinterpretations of real stimuli?

A

Illusions

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31
Q

What is the term for recurrent, uncontrollable thoughts, images or impulses that a patient considers to be unacceptable?

A

obsessions

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32
Q

What is it when a patient states persistent repetition of words or ideas?

A

Perseveration

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33
Q

What is it when a patient is only responsive to painful stimuli?

A

Stuporous

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34
Q

When you ask a patient to pick a face on the “FACES” scale to assess their pain, they pick this number to describe their pain as “hurts a lot”

A

4 or 8

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35
Q

which lymph node is most responsible for an abdominal malignancy when this node is enlarged?

A

Virchows node

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36
Q

What is the best visual exam to assess visual fields?

A

Confrontation

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37
Q

With unilateral conductive hearing loss, what would the results be in the Weber exam?

A

Weber test lateralizes to the affected ear.

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38
Q

In rinne exam what should the results be in a normal exam

A

AC>BC (air conduction is greater than bone conduction)

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39
Q

Patient centered interviewing

A

a technique in which clinicians follow the patients lead in seeking to elicit the patient’s emotions and personal health agenda to better understand the psychosocial context for disease

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40
Q

Clinician Centered Interview

A
  • clinician takes charge of the interview to meet their needs in acquiring the symptoms and details to identify the disease.
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41
Q

goals of interview

A

Discovery, sharing, negotiation, union, support

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42
Q

Active listening

A

Closely attending to what the patient is communicating, using verbal and non verbal skills to encourage the patient to expand.

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43
Q

Autonomy

A

The patient has choices and may make them, which requires patient education

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44
Q

Beneficence

A

Practitioner must do good

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45
Q

Close ended question are what?

A

Yes or no, specific short answers

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46
Q

Coat length for student

A

Short coat or consultation length coat

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47
Q

Deontological imperatives

A

Duty to act

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48
Q

Discovery

A

Information that leads to correct A&P

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49
Q

Empathy

A

Concern, interest, understanding, respect and friendliness

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50
Q

Concern, interest, understanding, respect and friendliness

A

Encourages the patient to go on with words or silence, “please go on”

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51
Q

Fairness and justice

A

Recognizes the balance between autonomy and the interests of larger community

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52
Q

Guided questioning

A

Moving from open ended to focused questioning, Questions that elicit a graded response Offering multiple choice answers Using echo

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53
Q

hugs

A

Inappropriate

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54
Q

Negotiation

A

Negotiate to arrive at a course of workup or care that is consistent with patients need beliefs and desires.

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55
Q

non verbal communication

A

Appearance grooming eye contact comfortable social distance body language speech patterns self assessment

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56
Q

Non maleficence

A

Do no Harm

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57
Q

objectivity

A

Non judgmental attitude

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58
Q

Precision

A

Pay attention to detail so you can diagnose and treat effectively

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59
Q

Question : Even under threat, i will not use my medical knowledge contrary to the laws of humanity is an example of what?

A

Non maleficence

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60
Q

Question : Patient wants an unneeded test that is not covered by insurance. Reassuring the patient, explaining the diagnosis and follow up with the patient is an example of what?

A

Utilitarianism

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61
Q

Question : The health of my patient will be my first consideration is an example of what?

A

Beneficence

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62
Q

Reassurance

A

Identify and acknowledge the patients feelings

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63
Q

Sign

A

seen, observed, lab results, imaging

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64
Q

Support

A

Support in ways you can and refer in ways you cannot.

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65
Q

sympathy

A

feeling sorry for someone

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66
Q

symptom

A

what the patient tells you or how they are feeling

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67
Q

Transitions

A

Taking time between the HPI and PE to switch gears

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68
Q

Union

A

to establish a joint effort

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69
Q

Utilitarianism

A

Consider appropriate resources for the community at large

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70
Q

validation

A

Validating their feelings

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71
Q

partnering

A

When building rapport with patients, express your commitment to an ongoing relationship. Make patients feel that no matter what happens, you will continue to provide their care.

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72
Q

Precision:

A

A history should be reproducible by others

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73
Q

Interviewing techniques

A

Open-ended questions Closed questions Clarification or elaboration Facilitation Confrontation Silence Direction

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74
Q

7 attributes of a symptom

A
  1. Location- where is it, does it radiate? 2. Quality- what does it feel like? 3. Quantity or Severity- how bad is it? (for pain, how bad is it on a scale of 1 to 10?) 4. Timing: Onset, duration, & frequency- when did it start, how long does it last, how often does it occur? 5. Setting in which it occurs- include environmental factors, personal activities (walking), emotional reactions, and any other contributing factors 6. Factors that aggravate or relief the symptom- what makes it better? what makes it worse? 7. Associated manifestations
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75
Q

Gravida

A

number of pregnancies

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76
Q

Parity

A

Number of deliveries

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77
Q

Miscarriage’s

A

Number of miscarriage’s

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78
Q

Living Children

A

number of living children

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79
Q

GPML

A

Gravida, Parity, miscarriage’s, Living Children

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80
Q

CAGE questionnaire

A

cut down, annoyed, guilty, eye opener (alcohol)

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81
Q

Purpose of Record

A

Best Care Real time documentation Communication Quality assessment Reimbursement Risk management Education and research

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82
Q

RVU

A

Relative Value Unit

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83
Q

OLDCARTS

A

Onset, Location, Duration, Character, Aggravating factors, Relieving Factors/ Radiating, Temporal, Severity

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84
Q

Peds growth tools

A

Growth Chart (M/F), %, Tanner Stages

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85
Q

proper signature

A

scribble Murphy, PAS -1 For Dr. Doe

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86
Q

HIPPA increased protection for patients when?

A

1996

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87
Q

Reports required by law

A

Birth, Death, GSW, Communicable Diseases

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88
Q

Standard Precautions

A

A strict form of infection control that is based on the assumption that all blood and other body fluids are infectious.

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89
Q

exam techniques

A

Inspection Palpation Percussion Auscultation

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90
Q

Palpation sensitivity technique

A

Palmar surface of finger pads

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91
Q

Palpation vibration technique

A

Ulnar surface of hands (little finger side)

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92
Q

Palpation temperature technique

A

Dorsal portion of hand (Back)

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93
Q

Percussion technique

A

Middle finger on body, snap other middle finger on top of it between middle two joints (interphalangeal joint)

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94
Q

Bruit

A

Low pitched sound created from a turbulent flow, occurs form occlusion or carotid stenosis, sound like a murmur

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95
Q

Types of bruits

A

Temporal Carotid Thyroid Aortic renal iliac femoral

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96
Q

Cardiac auscultation with diaphragm listens for

A

S1, S2 murmurs Systolic clicks Pericardial rubs Opening Snaps

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97
Q

Cardiac auscultation with bell listens for

A

Diastolic gallops S3, S4 Diastolic Rumbles Mitral, Tricuspid

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98
Q

Cardiac Auscultation sites

A

APTM, APETM (all people enjoy time magazine)

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99
Q

Vital signs

A

BP, RR, HR, Temp, Waist circumference, BMI, HT, WT

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100
Q

Least accurate temp site

A

axillary

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101
Q

Oral Tmep

A

98.6 F / 37 C

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102
Q

Axillary Temp

A

1 Degree less than oral (97.6F)

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103
Q

Rectal Temp

A

1 Degree over oral (99.6)

104
Q

Temp changes during the day

A

Low in morning, high at night

105
Q

Hyperpyrexia/Hyperthermia

A

106 F or greater

106
Q

BP = _____ x _____

A

CO x SVR (Cardiac Output / Peripheral Vascular Resistance)

107
Q

CO = __ x __.

A

CO = HR x SV (Heart Rate x Stroke Volume)

108
Q

SV =

A

stroke volume (volume of blood ejected with each cardiac cycle)

109
Q

BP: Korotkoff sounds

A

Top number is systole (first sound heard), bottom number is diastole (sound goes away)

110
Q

BP cuff too small

A

high reading

111
Q

BP cuff too large

A

low reading

112
Q

Inflate BP cuff to what level

A

30 points above palp reading

113
Q

ausculatory gap usually means

A

Arterial stiffness, possible atherosclerosis

114
Q

how to deflate bp cuff

A

2-3 points per second

115
Q

MAP

A

mean arterial pressure

116
Q

MAP =

A

(SBP + 2DBP)/3

117
Q

BP in leg

A

Prone distal 1/3 of femur auscultate over popliteal 5-10 points lower in thigh than arm

118
Q

orthostatic hypotension method

A

BP / HR in two positions Supine after resting 3-10 mins then 3 mins once standing (supine to standing normally systolic drops slightly while diastolic can rise) (sitting > +3-10 mins supine > + 3 mins standing)

119
Q

orthostatic hypotension causes

A

Reduced blood volume Medications Aging Immobility, extended bed rest Autonomic nervous system dysfunction Diabetic neuropathy

120
Q

indications for orthostatic hypotension

A

Dizziness fainting gi bleeds dehydration diabetes anti hypertension meds

121
Q

Types of Pain (Nociceptive)(somatic)

A

Related to tissue damage

122
Q

Types of Pain: neuropathic

A

-pain involving CNS or PNS

123
Q

Types of pain: Psychogenic

A

Psychiatric conditions Personality and coping Culture norms Social support

124
Q

Idiopathic

A

No identifiable etiology

125
Q

FACES pain scale (alternate)

A

0-10 0 = No hurt 2 = Hurts a little bit 4 = Hurts a little more 6 = Hurts even more 8 = Hurts a whole lot 10 = Hurts worst

126
Q

FACES pain scale

A

0-5 0 = No hurt 1 = Hurts a little bit 2 = Hurts a little more 3 = Hurts even more 4 = Hurts a whole lot 5 = Hurts worst

127
Q

lethargic

A

must speak in loud forceful manner

128
Q

coma

A

unarousable

129
Q

Perceptions

A

awareness of objects through any of the five senses

130
Q

thought process

A

the way a person thinks, logic, coherence, relevance

131
Q

insight

A

awareness that thoughts, symptoms or behaviors are normal or abnormal.

132
Q

Judgement

A

process of comparing and evaluating different possible courses of action

133
Q

affect

A

Appearance of observable emotions and mood

134
Q

mood

A

Sustained emotion of patient Euthymic = normal Dysthymic = depressed Manic = elated/excited

135
Q

neologisms

A

made up words, invented or distorted words

136
Q

flight of ideas

A

rapidly changing or disjointed thoughts, fast change of topics

137
Q

derailment

A

the shifting from one subject to another with no apparent reason

138
Q

Circumstantiality

A

Speech that is delayed in reaching the point and contains excessive or irrelevant details

139
Q

incoherence

A

unintelligibility; lack of logic or relevance

140
Q

blocking

A

sudden interruption in train of thought, unable to complete sentence, occurs in normal people

141
Q

confabulation

A

fabrication of facts to hide memory impairment

142
Q

Question: When assessing the patient’s thought content, it is important to always follow specific questions to keep the patient on task.

A

FALSE

143
Q

Illusions

A

misinterpretations of real stimuli; e.g., the postman leaves mail, therefore there is a plot to poison the patient

144
Q

Hallucinations

A

a subjective external stimuli the patient hears or sees that others do not Hear, see, smell, taste or touch Nothing to do with sleep

145
Q

assess attention

A

Digital span: give the patient a string of numbers to recite back to you Serial 7s: ask the patient to subtract serial “7s” from 100 Spelling backward: ask the patient to spell W-O-R-L-D backwards

146
Q

Remote memory

A

Historical events, birthdays, SSN

147
Q

recent memory

A

Recent memory such as what the patient ate for breakfast, weather, national event

148
Q

Assess new learning ability by…

A

Giving the patient three or four words to remember; then ask him to repeat the words after several minutes

149
Q

Major function of skin

A

Boundaries for body fluid Protection Modulates body temp Synthesizes Vitamin D Heaviest organ (16% of body weight)

150
Q

appendages of skin

A

hair, nails, sweat glands, and sebaceous glands

151
Q

3 layers of skin

A

epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous layer

152
Q

vellus hair

A

peach fuzz, fine short, less pigmentation

153
Q

terminal hair

A

coarse, long hair of eyebrows, scalp, axillary, and pubic regions

154
Q

sebaceous glands

A

all surfaces except palms/soles

155
Q

sweat glands

A

eccrine and apocrine (groin / axilla)

156
Q

basal cell carcinoma description

A

shiny and translucent, grow slow, rare to metastasize

157
Q

squamous cell carcinoma description

A

Crusted, scaly, ulcerated, can metastasize

158
Q

Melanoma description

A

spread quickly

159
Q

Melanoma risk factors

A

HARMM History of previous melanoma Age > 50 Regular dermatologist absent Mole changing Male gender

160
Q

Additional risk factors for melanoma

A

≥50 common moles atypical or unusual moles (especially if dysplastic) Red or light hair Actinic lentigines, macular brown or tan spots (usually on sun exposed areas) Heavy sun exposure (especially severe childhood sunburns) Light eye or skin color (especially freckles/burns easily) Family history of melanoma

161
Q

Lesion description

A

number size shape color texture Primary Location Configuration

162
Q

skin lesion: flat

A

Macule is <1cm Patch > 1cm Cannot palpate lesion with eyes closed

163
Q

Skin lesion: Raised

A

Papule < 1cm with no fluid Plaque >1cm no fluid Vesicle <1cm with fluid Bulla >1cm with fluid

164
Q

Macule

A

flat <1cm

165
Q

Patch

A

flat <1cm

166
Q

Papule

A

Raised <1cm, no fluid

167
Q

Plaque

A

Raised >1cm, no fluid

168
Q

Vesicle

A

Raised <1cm with fluid

169
Q

Bulla

A

Raised >1cm with fluid

170
Q

secondary lesions

A

Scales Crusts Excoriations Erosions Ulcers Fissures Scars Keloids

171
Q

Lymph node sites

A

Preauricular Posterior auricular Occipital Tonsillar Submandibular Submental Superficial (anterior) cervical posterior cervical deep cervical supraclavicular Infraclavicular

172
Q

When palpating the thyroid

A

Flex the neck slightly forward Place fingers of both hands with index fingers just below the cricoid cartilage If enlarged, listen over lateral lobes to detect a bruit The thyroid isthmus may not be palpable

173
Q

Lymph node description

A

less than 1 cm, bean shaped, not hard,

174
Q

Virchow’s node

A

Left supraclavicular node enlargement seen in thoracic or abdominal malignancy

175
Q

Delphian Nodes

A

midline of the thyroid membrane

176
Q

Sister mary joesph node

A

periumbilical node

177
Q

esotropia

A

inward turning of the eye

178
Q

exotropia

A

outward turning of the eye

179
Q

Left hypertropia

A

Left eye turns up

180
Q

Left hypotrophia

A

Left eye turns down

181
Q

opthalmoscope

A

darken room disc to 0 Right, right right / Left, left, left 15 in away and start at 15 degree angle follow red reflex in

182
Q

weber test

A

test for sensorineural hearing loss, lateralization

183
Q

rinne test

A

test for conductive hearing loss, air vs bone

184
Q

Weber test results

A

NORMAL: hear the sound in both ears In unilateral CONDUCTIVE HEARING LOSS, sound is heard in the impaired ear (it seems louder) In unilateral SENSORINEURAL HEARING LOSS, sound is heard in the good ear Ex: With someone who has potential hearing loss in the right ear, they will tell you they hear better in either the R side or the L side

185
Q

Rinne test results

A

air conduction > bone conduction (normal, sensorineural hearing loss) BC > AC (conductive hearing loss)

186
Q

infants

A

0-15 months

187
Q

toddlers

A

15 months to 2 years

188
Q

preschool age

A

3-5 years

189
Q

School age

A

6-12

190
Q

adolescence

A

13 and up (teens)

191
Q

Percent of children who had contact with healthcare professional last year

A

93.6

192
Q

ED visits by age

A

under 15 20%, 15-24 14.5 %

193
Q

Minor

A

any person under 18 who is not married or emancipated

194
Q

If parent is not available

A

step parent, grandparent, uncle, aunt sibling

195
Q

Child in custody

A

caseworker, probation officer, or administrator can consent if parent cant be reached

196
Q

Considered ordinary medical care

A

Exams Blood or TB test Preventative care Well child and immunizations (not surgery or anything requiring anesthesia or psych meds)

197
Q

Emergent care of child when parent is unavailable

A

May provide emergent care, must first make at least one attempt to contact parent

198
Q

emancipated minor

A

Person over the age of 16 can be emancipated ( a minor who is married is given the same legal status as an adult who is married) (Giving birth does not count)

199
Q

Minors may seek care without adult for??

A

STD Birth control Pregnancy and the child substance abuse Physical or sexual abuse crisis intervention

200
Q

Pediatric Vital Signs

A

RR elevated, HR elevated BP lower Temp same

201
Q

What vital sign does not change with age

A

Temperature

202
Q

Pediatric temperature considered a fever

A

a rectal temp of 100.4 (38.0C) is considered a fever, 100.3 is not a fever

203
Q

2 growth charts

A

CDC charts: Birth - 36 months 2 years to 20 years Male and females have separate charts (CDC and WHO have different charts)

204
Q

Peds BMI

A

BMI is age and sex specific Weight (lb.) / length (in) / length (in) x 703 = BMI height = 72in Weight = 205 example = (205/72/72) x 703 = 27.7

205
Q

Peds BMI weight categories

A

underweight >5th percentile Normal 5-85 percentile Overweight 85-95 percentile Obese <95th percentile

206
Q

lanugo

A

fine, soft hair, especially that which covers the body and limbs of a human fetus or newborn.

207
Q

slate grey patches

A

Mongolian spots, look like bruises

208
Q

Peeling

A

dry flaky peeling appearance in newborns

209
Q

stork bite

A

A patch of deep pink skin found at the nape of the neck

210
Q

salmon patch

A

(called a “stork bite” at the back of the neck or an “angel’s kiss” between the eyes) are simple nests of blood vessels (probably caused by maternal hormones) that fade on their own after a few weeks or months.

211
Q

hemangioma

A

Lesions often start flat, circular area (halo) of pallor with central area of telangiectasia. Later develop raised red appearance.

212
Q

milia

A

White papules on the skin that are keratin filled epithethial cysts which occur in up to 40% of newborns. Spontaneous exfoliation and resolution is expected within a few weeks.

213
Q

Sebaceous hyperplasia

A

raised yellow bumps, The lesions are more yellow than milia and are the result of maternal androgen exposure in utero. Sebaceous hyperplasia is a benign finding and spontaneously resolves with time

214
Q

erythema toxicum

A

pink rash that appears suddenly anywhere on the body of a term newborn during the first 3 weeks.

215
Q

Transient Neonatal Pustular Melanosis

A

Hyperpigmented spots that remain after the fragile pustules have resolved. Because the rash starts in utero, lesions may be in any stage at birth. Etiology is unknown, it has been observed that African Americans infants are more frequently affected with this condition, occurring in up to 4%. (subdued lookin rash)

216
Q

Mottling

A

changes in skin color (pale and bluish) Transient lacy erythema that occurs commonly in newborns particular visible when the infant is cold and disappears with warming.

217
Q

Junctional melanocytic nevus

A

The lesion is completely flat and is medium to dark brown in color. It may become slightly raised as the infant grows and may become a compound nevus if intradermal melanocytes develop. It is considered a benign lesion.

218
Q

Acrocyanosis

A

Temporary cyanotic condition, usually in newborns resulting in a bluish color around the lips, hands and fingernails, feet and toenails. May last for a few hours and disappear with warming.

219
Q

Cafe au lait spots

A

Lighter in color than melanocytic nevi and caused by an increased amount of melanin in both melanocytes and epidermal cells, and may increase in number with age.

220
Q

Sucking blister

A

Sucking blisters are solitary lesions that occur only in areas accessible to the infant’s mouth. The blister may still be intact at the time of delivery but often appears as a flat, scabbed, healing, area. They are benign and resolve spontaneously.

221
Q

Misc marks post birth

A

Vacuum mark, forceps mark, nail scratches, scalp electrode site, facial bruising, jaundice

222
Q

Harlequin color change

A

Occurs when the baby is in a side-lying position. The lower half of the body turns red and the upper half blanches with a distinct demarcation line down the midline.

223
Q

paronychia

A

inflammation / infection around the nail

224
Q

Growth chart birth -36 months measurments

A

Head circumference, weight

225
Q

Sutures of a newborn skull

A

Coronal, sagittal, lambdoid, metopic

226
Q

fontanelles of newborn

A

Anterior, posterior

227
Q

Anterior fontanelle

A

soft spot, 2 frontal and 2 parietal bones meet remains until about 12 months to 2 years

228
Q

posterior fontanelle

A

2 parietal and one occipital bones closes within 2-3 months

229
Q

Newborn head molding

A

Abnormal head shape that results from pressure on the baby’s head during childbirth

230
Q

Breech molding

A

Flat top head appearance, improves within a week

231
Q

caput succedaneum

A

diffuse edema of the fetal scalp that crosses the suture lines. usually resolves in the first few days

232
Q

Cephalohematoma

A

Swelling caused by bleeding between the osteum and periosteum of the skull. This swelling does not cross suture lines.

233
Q

caput succedaneum vs cephalohematoma

A

caput succedaneum crosses the suture lines and is over the periosteum.

234
Q

Plagiocephaly

A

asymmetry of the skull, helmet therapy is recommended at age 6 to 7 months mild, moderate or severe can result in walking issues

235
Q

Normal newborn eyes

A

Normal greyish blue iris and the clear pupil. True color is not determined until the age of 6 months.

236
Q

infant visual acuity

A

1 month = 20/300 6 months = 20/20

237
Q

red reflex

A

a luminous red appearance seen upon the retina, should be symmetrical, most important eye exam in pediatric patient

238
Q

Estropia

A

inward deviation of one or both eyes (ease in) 1.20%

239
Q

Extropia

A

outward turning of the eye or eyes (Exit out)

240
Q

Newborn nose breathing

A

Obligate nose breathers Use stethoscope

241
Q

ankyloglossia

A

tongue-tie; a defect of the tongue characterized by a short, thick frenulum 4%

242
Q

Epstein pearls

A

multiple small, white-yellowish, epithelial inclusion cysts found in the midline of the palate in newborn infants 60% Spontaneously resolves in a few weeks

243
Q

natal teeth

A

teeth present at birth 1-2000 - 1-3500 These are mobile and can present an aspiration risk

244
Q

Thrush

A

Candida (yeast) infection in the oral cavity, characterized by white plaques or patches on the tongue or mucosa Most common oral fungal infection in children

245
Q

Cleft lip

A

congenital facial defect of the lip, can go uncorrected

246
Q

cleft palate

A

a congenital split in the roof of the mouth Must be corrected

247
Q

Demographics for cleft lip / palate

A

Total 1-700 Native Americans = 1-300 Asians 1-500 Caucasians 1-700 African 1-1200

248
Q

baby teeth

A

deciduous teeth, 20 total

249
Q

permanent teeth

A

the 32 teeth of the adult which are designed to last a lifetime.(includes wisdom teeth) arrive 6-21 years

250
Q

geographic tongue

A

flat, irregular, red lesions on the dorsum of the tongue problem resolves itself.

251
Q

Tonsil Size Grading

A

1+ Tonsils are visible, 2+ Tonsils are midway between tonsillar pillars and uvula, 3+ Tonsils touch the uvula, 4+ Tonsils touch each other

252
Q

What can cause false positive strep test

A

Mono, Epstein Barr

253
Q

Epstein Barr and penicillin

A

can cause rash

254
Q

Tonsilectomy

A

Removal of tonsils Sleep apnea Chronic strep

255
Q

Tonsilitis

A

Can be: Swollen look like strep (white patches) Viral Can all look like each other Must do culture to confirm diagnosis

256
Q

Symptom diagnosis

A

OLDCART Onset, Location, Duration, Character, Aggravating/Alleviating Factors, Radiating, Timing or OPQRST Onset, Palliating/Provoking Factors, Quality, Radiation, Site, Timing

PAM Semester 1 (16 decks)

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