AMS Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is transamination

A

one of two main processes of Amino acid metabolism

the process of removing an amine group from one amino acid and adding it to a metabolic intermediate to create another amino acid

Important transamination examples:
pyruvate → alanine;
α-ketoglutarate → glutamate;
oxaloacetate → aspartate

With transamination, pyruvate and intermediates of the citric acid cycle provide the carbon skeletons needed for the synthesis of nonessential or dispensable amino acids.

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2
Q

What is the role of ZPA

A

The zone of polarizing activity (ZPA)

is an area of mesenchyme that contains signals which instruct the developing limb bud to form along the anterior/posterior axis.

Limb bud is undifferentiated mesenchyme enclosed by an ectoderm covering.

Eventually, the limb bud develops into bones, tendons, muscles and joints

The master gene for this regulation is the sonic hedgehog whose product is secreted by these cells

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3
Q

What is the Fab portion of an antibody for?

A

Antigen binding

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4
Q

What makes up antibodies?

A

2 heavy chains and 2 light chains

There is an Fab portion (top of “y”) and a Fc portion (bottom of “Y”)

There are constant portions and variable portions

The two sides of the Y are held together by disulfide bonds

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5
Q

Describe IgG antibodies.

A

IgG = 70-75% of antibodies
can pass throught the placenta
involved in activating the comlement system

provides long term protection because it persists for months or years after the antigen that has triggered their production - bacteria, virus, binds antigens to enhance phagocytosis by other cells

IgG is found throughout the body, mainly in most of the bodily fluids

IgG is a much more specific antibody to the antigen, therefore it binds the antigen more tightly

IgG takes the body longer to create but it stays within the body on memory cells

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6
Q

Describe IgA antibodies.

A

IgA binds antigens on microbes before they invade tissues

Causes antigen aggregation

Are teh first defense for mucosal surfaces such as intestines, lungs and nose

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7
Q

What percentage of T cells are TCR2 cells

A

90-95% of T cells

heterodimer of alpha and beta chains

MHC dependent in their recognition of antigen

subdivided into CD4 and CD 8 cells

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8
Q

What are the functions of the complement system

A

Kill pathogens

Opsonization
Complement proteins coat the outer surface of the pathogen and attract macrophages

Membrane attack complex

Enhance inflammation

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9
Q

Explain C5a in classical pathway

A

It comes from C5
When C5 is cleaved by C5 convertase (C4b2a3b)
it becomes C5a and C5b

C5a is a chemo attractatn for macrophages and neutrophils
C5a binding to these cells primes the cells for mediating their host defense functions

It increases the expression of adhesion molecules on leukocytes and the vascular endothelium so that leukocytes can squeeze out of the blood vessels and enter the tissue (diapedesis).

It also causes neutrophils to release toxic oxygen radicals for extracellular killing; and it induces fever.

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10
Q

Describe dendritic cells

A

These are antigen presenting cells (APC’s)

Process and present antigens to T cells

Express MHC II

Phagocytosis

can act as a messenger between innate and adaptive immunity

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11
Q

Functions of T cells

A

Recognition of antigens through t cell receptors

helper and regulatory finctions

activate B cells

activate other cells of the immune response through cellular interactions or production of regulatory factors

Killing of target cells (foriegn cells, infected self cells, transfromed or aged cells)

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12
Q

Complement proteins

A

Soluble Proteins in the blood, part of the innate immune system

30+ types of proteins produced by the liver

Circulate in blood in inactive form – so they don’t attack the body

Become activated when they interact with an antigen

Complementary activation cascade

Complementary proteins activate each other

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13
Q

What are the granulocytes

A

Neutrophils = Multi-lobed, granules,
phagocitize pathogens or debris (50-70%)

Eosinophils = Bi-lobed, granules, kill parasitic worms, role in allergies and asthma (2-4%)

Basophils = single nuclei, lobed, releases histamine, anitcoagulant (<1%)

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14
Q

Describe Unsaturated Fat

A

Non-Saturated Fat:
Fewer hydrogen bounds bounds to carbons
1 or more double bonds (kinks in the tails)
Liquid at room temperature
Low melting point
Most plant fats are unsaturated or polyunsaturated
Example: Oils

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15
Q

Describe Oligosaccharides

A

Condensation products of 3-10 monosaccharides

Indigestible à humans lack enzymes to break them down in the small intestine

Most are soluble fibers that help prevent constipation

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16
Q

Describe a Type 4 hypersensitivity reacion?

A

Type 4 = Regulated by T cells and are delayed reactions to antigens associated with cells

Tuberculin reactions, chronic asthma and contact dermatitis are type 4 reactions

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17
Q

What is deamination

A

one of two main processes of Amino acid metabolism

the process of removing an amine group and breaking down amino acids

With deamination, after the amino acid gets broken down, the amino nitrogen is excreted as urea

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18
Q

What is WNT Genes

A

genes that inhibited certain BMP to aid in heart development

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19
Q

What is Bmp (BONE MORPHOGENETIC PROTEIN)

A

further express dorsal and ventral regions by interacting with signals at the node

	- -bmp is secreted as a growth factor in all regions and cells * *if inhibited, mesoderm layer becomes “dorsalized” forming the axial skeleton and notochord. * * if not inhibited (active), the mesoderm becomes “ventralized” to from the urogenital system, the limbs and ventral wall body
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20
Q

What is TBX Genes

A

transcription factors that specify limb direction and formation

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21
Q

Describe IgM antibodies.

A

produced during primary immune response

also enhances ingestion of cells by phagocytosis

best at activating complement system

IgM is the immediate antibody that is produced once a human body is exposed to a bacteria, virus or a toxin

IgM is larger in size compared to IgG

IgM is temporary and disappears after a few weeks. It is then replaced by IgG.

IgM is found mainly in the blood and lymphatic fluids.

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22
Q

Describe conjoined twins

A

overexpression of Goosecoid in frogs causes double-headed tadpoles:

too much goosecoid induces additional head regions

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23
Q

What happens when a Naive B cell is activated

A

After immunization or infection, Naive B cells become activated and can switch from expressing IgM or IgD on their surface to expressing IgG, IgE or IgA

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24
Q

What is Hox genes

A

play many roles in development; identity of the pharyngeal arches, limb location on the body

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25
Q

What is chemiosmosis in the ETC

A

The chemiosmotic theory explains the functioning of electron transport chains.

According to this theory, the tranfer of electrons down an electron transport system through a series of oxidation-reduction reactions releases energy.

This energy allows certain carriers in the chain to transport hydrogen ions (H+ or protons) across a membrane.

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26
Q

Steps in gluconeogenesis

A
Pyruvate
→ → → → → Pyruvate carboxylase
Oxaloacetate
→ → → → → PEP carboxykinase
PEP

PEP → → Fructose 1,6, bisphosphate (reverse glycolysis)
→ → → → → Fructose 1,6, bisphosphatase
Fructose 6 phosphate

Fructose 6 phosphate → → Glucose 6 phosphate
Glucose 6 phosphate
→ → → → → Glucose 6 phosphatase
Glucose

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27
Q

Systemic defenses of innate immune system

A

Systemic defenses
The elimination of foreign agents that made it through external barriers

Cellular component- Phagocytes
in acquired immunity - T cells

Soluble (humoral) Component
Antibodies
complemnt proteins
antimicrobial proteins

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28
Q

What results from the trilaminar disc

A

3 germ layers; Ectoderm, Mesoderm & Endoderm (outer/dorsal, middle, inner)

The dorsal germinal layer becomes the ectoblast/-derm.
The middle germinal layer (3rd germinal layer) becomes the mesoblast/-derm.
The ventral germinal layer receives the name endoblast/-derm.

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29
Q

What is the role of AER

A

The apical ectodermal ridge (AER)

is a structure that forms from the ectodermal cells at the distal end of each limb bud and acts as a major signaling center to ensure proper development of a limb

FGFs are secreted by the AER

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30
Q

What are APC cells

A

Antigen presenting cells

These are cells that express the MHC II

These can present antigens to T cells

Langerhans cells in skin
Dendritic cells
macrophages B cells

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31
Q

Describe Acquired immunity

A

Aquired or adaptive immunity can be active or passive

Active is exposure to deisease or vaccine and build antibodies accordingly

passive is gettting antibosie sfom another sourec ie breast milk placenta etc.

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32
Q

What is Fibroblast growth factor (FGF)

A

secreted by the node; initiates secretion of nodal from the primitive node that becomes concentrated on the left side; aids in limb growth, bone formation

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33
Q

Describe innate immune system

A

Activated cells produce their effects via the release of cytokines, complement and other systems: cytokines

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34
Q

What does the Embyroblast become

A

The embryo

Originate from Morula
inner cells from trophoblast

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35
Q

What are TCR 1 cells made up of

A

These are T cells

make up less than 10% of t cells

heterodimer of gamma and delta chains

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36
Q

What is the Fc portion of the antibody for?

A

Effector portion

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37
Q

Describe sacrococcygeal teratoma

A

tumor of the sacral area

contains every type of tissue derived from all 3 germ layers: gut from endoderm, neural tissue from ectoderm, and bones or teeth from mesoderm

This tumor may be derived from the fact that gastrulation went on too long

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38
Q

Is complement system innate or adaptive

A

Mostly Innate (both)

C1q part of the C1 complex can assist the adaptive immune response by binding to antigen antibody complexes on the surface of bacterial cells.

In most cases, this would be after the adaptive response has been initiated.

The classical pathway of complement system can also be involved in innate immunity if the complement proteins recognize and bind to the bacterial cell.

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39
Q

What is neurulation

A

Neurulation is a process in which the neural plate bends up and later fuses to form the hollow tube that will eventually differentiate into the brain and the spinal cord of the central nervous system.

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40
Q

Describe crouzon syndrome

A

Wide-set, bulging eyes and vision problems caused by shallow eye sockets

Mutation of FGFR2

beak nose, dental, jaw, hearing, cleft, eye issues

Normal intelligence

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41
Q

Describe diapedesis

A

Process of entering the tissue

attracted to endothelial cells via selectins
and bind via integrins

(this is a prcess of entering the tissue and is known as diapedesis)

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42
Q

Describe a Type 3 hypersensitivity reacion?

A

Type 3 = Results from the formation of antigens-antibody complexes that settle on tissue and organs in an attempt to remove these complexes underlying tissue is also damaged

Serum sickness and rheumatoid arthritis are type 3 reactions

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43
Q

What is the transverse septum

A

At start of 4 weeks gestation, there in only one continuous body cavity.

There is partial separation of the body cavity by a layer of mesoderm cells called the septum transversum

It will help to form the diaphragm (considered a major central tendon)

It is derived from the visceral mesoderm surrounding the heart. It is the folding of the head region that carries the septum transversum into the thoracic cavity.

creates the pericardioperitoneal cavities.

Forms the connective tissue of the liver as hepatic cells grow

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44
Q

What are the 2 types of light chains in antibodies?

A

Kappa and lamda

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45
Q

Describe achondroplasia

A

Mutation in FDFR3

Short limbed dwarf

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46
Q

Describe Polydactyl

A

Programmed celll death is interruppted

leaves too many fingers

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47
Q

Describe thalidomide induced limb defects

A

Disruption of AER

-Dactyl defects

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48
Q

Describe pfeiffer syndrome

A

Affects the shape of head and face, abnormalities in hands and feet

Mutations
Type 1 = FGFR1 or 2
Type 2 and 3 FGFR2

Most have normal intelligence and life span

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49
Q

What are the molecular signals of differentiation

A

Anterior visceral endoderm (AVE) expresses the head forming genes thus inducing the cranial region.

Goosecoid—a transcription factor which is the main head induction gene; encodes for the formation of the head

Bmp (BONE MORPHOGENETIC PROTEIN)—further express dorsal and ventral regions by interacting with signals at the node

	- -bmp is secreted as a growth factor in all regions and cells * *if inhibited, mesoderm layer becomes “dorsalized” forming the axial skeleton and notochord. * * if not inhibited (active), the mesoderm becomes “ventralized” to from the urogenital system, the limbs and ventral wall body

Chordin—growth factor secreted by goosecoid

Noggin, follistatin, and nodal—growth factors secreted by the node and are proteins that inhibit BMP

Fibroblast growth factor (FGF)—secreted by the node; initiates secretion of nodal from the primitive node that becomes concentrated on the left side; aids in limb growth, bone formation

Nodal—secreted by the primitive node; its concentration on the left side of the embryo helps to establish left-sidedness by enhancing transcription factor, PItX2

PITX2—main transcription factor that induces left-sidedness

Hox genes—play many roles in development; identity of the pharyngeal arches, limb location on the body

TBX Genes- transcription factors that specify limb direction and formation

WNT–genes that inhibited certain BMP to aid in heart development

NKX2.5—the main transcription factor that encodes for heart development

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50
Q

What is Noggin, follistatin, and nodal

A

growth factors secreted by the node and are proteins that inhibit BMP

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51
Q

Activation of lectin pathway

A

Triggered by mannan-binding lectin, a normal serum constituent, that binds some encapsulated bacteria

Aka: Triggered by Lectin binding to pathogen surface

Cells: Factor D, Factor B, Prepardin, C3

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52
Q

What are the hypoblast cells

A

Hypoblast- important for early signaling to establish the cranial-caudal axis. Are eventually displaced

About 1 or 2 days after implantation, the embryo/embryoblast begin to differentiate into 2 layers

The dorsal layer, the epiblast,

and a ventral layer, the hypoblast

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53
Q

Explain C5a in classical pathway

A

It comes from C5
When C5 is cleaved by C5 convertase (C4b2a3b)
it becomes C5a and C5b

C5a is a chemo attractatn for macrophages and neutrophils
C5a binding to these cells prime sthe cells for mediating their host defense functions

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54
Q

What are the Agranulocytes

A

Lymphocytes = spherical, single nucleus, mount immune response by direct cell attack or via antibody production (20-40%)

Monocytes = U shaped nucleus, develop into macrophages in tissue and phagcitize pathogens or debris

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55
Q

What is a phospholipid

A

Glycerol molecule

two fatty acid non polar tails and a phosphate polar head

hydrophobic tails
hydrophilic heads

plasma membrane

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56
Q

External barriers of innate immune system

A

Physical barriers
skin,cilia

Chemical barriers
lysozymes in teras/saliva, mucin in mucous

Mechanical barriers
Cough, sneeze, flushing of urinary tract

microbial barriers
common flora, (gut, vagina, skin etc)

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57
Q

What cells are most responsible for transplant rejection

A

T cells

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58
Q

Explain C3a in classical pathway

A

It comes from C3
When C3 is cleaved by C3 convertase (C4b2a)
it becomes C3a and C3b

C3a is a potent chemo attractant
C3a attracts Mast cells to sites of complement activation.
Binding of C3a to mast cells and basophils induces degranulation and release of histamine.

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59
Q

What percentage of T cells are TCR1 cells

A

less than 10%

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60
Q

What happens when naive b cells are activated

A

naïve B cells become activated and can switch from

expressing IgM and IgD on their surface to expressing IgG, IgE or IgA

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61
Q

Describe Neutrophils

A

Last for 6 hours in circulation

account for 95% of circulating graulocytes and leukocytes

work through phagocytosis, can release granules causing damage to host

first cells to arrive at site of inflammation
(one way journey from bone marrow)

attracted to endothelial cells via selectins and bind via integrins
(this is a prcess of entering the tissue and is known as diapedesis)

Increased count = infection

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62
Q

What is the primitive streak node

A

The node is a shallow circular depression at the cranial end of the primitive streak. It contains transcriptional signals

the node contains the main head-inducing gene, goosecoid (a transcription factor)

63
Q

What are dendritic cells

A

Antigen presenting cells (APC)

follicular dendritic cells present antigen to B cells

do not display MHC II

64
Q

What are the differneces between CD4 and CD 8 Cells

A

CD4 T cells recognize MHC II complex (helper cells)

CD8 T cells regognize MHC I complex

CD8 cells cannot recognize just an antigen, their TCR2 will not bind to antigen

Cells that are expressing MHC II can present antigens to T helper cells (APC’s)

They can bind to peptides associated with MHC I molecules and kill the cells

all cells express MHC I

MHC II protein can only be found on specialized antigen presenting immune cells

65
Q

Describe Monosaccharides

A

Sugars that cannot be hydrolysed into simpler sugars

Classified by number of carbon atoms: trioses, tetroses, pentoses, hexoses, heptoses

Classified by either aldehyde or ketone group: aldoses, ketoses

When the aldehyde or ketone group is reduced to an alcohol à polyols (polyhydric alcohols/sugar alcohols)

Xylitol, sorbitol

66
Q

Transplant rejection

A

T cells are the population of cells responsible for most forms of graft rejection

  • The T-cell antigen receptor (TCR) recognizes the complex of a small peptide located in the antigen-binding groove of an MHC molecule
  • MHC molecules (also called human leukocyte antigens [HLA] in humans) are subdivided into class I molecules (found on all nucleated cells) and class II molecules, which are found on specialized antigen-presenting cells (APCs) such as dendritic cells, macrophages, B cells, and selected activated endothelial or epithelial cells

• IL2 will be used to activate TH cells in an autocrine fashion and TC cells in a
paracrine fashion

• Activated TC cells will kill using perforin and granzyme B

67
Q

Name four protein complexes and two mobile transfer molecules of ETC

A

NADH dehydrogenase
Cytochrome BC1
Cytochrome oxidase
ATP synthase

Ubiquinone (Q)
Cytocrome C (C)
68
Q

What is hydrogenation

A

It is a reduction reaction

Adding hydrogen atoms to unsaturated fat to make it solid

Requires a catalyst (occurs spontaneously at high temps)

69
Q

Describe Mast Cells

A

Basophils are basophils in the blood but
mast cells in the tissue

they account for 0.2% of circulating leukocytes

They are involved in hypersensitivity type 1 reactions

they have immune and inflammatory response functions

They release histamine and other inflammatory mediators

They are activated by binding specific antigens to IgE molecules

Allergens = Antigens that trigger IgE formation / basophil activation

70
Q

Describe Disaccharides

A

Condensation products of two monosaccharide units

2 monosaccharides linked together by dehydration synthesis

Used for sugar transport or energy storage
-Effective storage reservoir à enzymes that break monosaccharides cant break these bonds

Linked together to form starch

Lactose, maltose, isomaltose, sucrose, trehalose

71
Q

Describe Cellulose

A

Sructural component of plant and dinoflagellate cell walls

o Straight, long, unbranched chain

o Has B-glucose monomers (starch has a-glucose monomers)
§ Aka each successive glucose unit is rotated 180 degrees relative to the last repeat unit

o Forms hydrogen bonds with adjacent chains

72
Q

Describe Saturated Fat

A
Saturated Fat
Fatty acid carbons bound to as much hydrogen as possible 
Lack double bonds between carbon atoms 
Solid at room temperature 
Higher melting point
Most animal fats are saturated 
Example:  Butter
73
Q

Describe Basophils

A

Basophils are basophils in the blood but mast cells in the tissue

they account for 0.2% of circulating leukocytes

They are involved in hypersensitivity type 1 reactions

they have immune and inflammatory response functions

They release histamine and other inflammatory mediators

They are activated by binding specific antigens to IgE molecules

Allergens = Antigens that trigger IgE formation / basophil activation

74
Q

What patterns the embryo (caudal – cranial, dorsal ventral)

A

Establishment of the cranial-caudal axis requires molecular signals from two regions.

  1. Anterior visceral endoderm (AVE) induces the cranial region from hypoblast cells at the cranial end of the embryonic disc, expresses head forming genes.
  2. These signals are reinforced by the main head-inducing gene goosecoid (transcription factor), which signals from a region at the cranial end of the primitive streak called the node.

About 1 or 2 days after implantation, the embryo/embryoblast begin to differentiate into 2 layers

The dorsal layer, the epiblast,
and a ventral layer, the hypoblast

75
Q

Rejection of allogeneic tissues

A

In the thymus, T cells are selected for maturation based on their ability to bind self‐MHC molecules.

Allo‐MHC molecules most likely resemble “altered‐self” molecules (ie, self‐MHC molecules containing a foreign peptide).

Allo‐MHC molecules, like self‐MHC molecules, can contain a wide variety of different peptides and so a large repertoire of T cells can respond

76
Q

Describe IgD antibodies.

A

IgD is present on the surface of B cells and plays a role in the induction of antibody production

After immunization or infection, naive B cells become activated and can switch from expressing IgM and IgD on their surface to expressing IgG, IgE or IgA

77
Q

How is the alternative pathway of the complement system activated? (steps)

A

Activates by lipopoly saccharides found on the surface of invading pathogens

The alternative pathway is always active at a very low level (due to spontaneous hydrolysis in C3)

Hydrolysed C3 is called C3H2O (C3b)

C3H2O (C3b) binds with Factor B

Factor D cleaves Factor B into Ba & Bb

Bb portion remains with C3H2O (C3b) (Ba portion leaves)

C3H2OBb (C3bBb) is the alternative pathway intiation convertase

C3bBb = C3 convertase (alternative pathway)

78
Q

Describe a Type 1 hypersensitivity reacion?

A

Type 1 = IgE antibodies that sensitize an individual to an allergen and provoke a quick inflammatory response upon subsequent exposure.

Allergies and hay fever are both type 1

79
Q

Where are IgA and IgE molecules found that do not have any antigens bound to them?

A

IgA are found in tears, milk and the gut

IgE are found on mast cells and in the tissue

80
Q

What are the 5 types of heavy chains in antibodies

A
Alpha
Gamma
Delta
Epsilon
Mu
81
Q

What are different types of complement systems

A

Classical
Alternative
Lectin

82
Q

What is a steroid

A

Four fused carbon rings

Cholesterol and sex hormones

Bile acids, vitamin D

many stereoisomers due to asymmetry

Cholesterol is a significant part of many tissues
in all tissue except nervous tissue

Plasma membrane major part

83
Q

What is a carbohydrate

A

all contain a C,H & O

Monosaccharides
Disaccharides
Oligosaccharides
Polysaccharides
Starch
Glycogen
Cellulose
84
Q

Describe anencephaly

A

defect arises when the cranial end of the neural tube fails to close

Flat head brain may be exposed

Brain tissue forms abnormally and then degenerates due to exposure to amniotic fluid and lack of blood supply = lethal

85
Q

Which layer is the epiblast

A

Dorsal layer

86
Q

Describe Macrophages

A

They become Monocytes in the blood

Do not have memory

Part of Innate immune system

last 8 hours in circulation

Their functions include: phagocytosis, anti tumor, immune system regulation, inflammation, repair, APC to T helper cells

87
Q

Describe caudal dysgeneisis

A

Mermaid syndrome

if gastrulation stops too soon

Babies die

from diabetic mothers

88
Q

Whcih layer is the hypoblast

A

Ventral layer

89
Q

What does the trophoblast become

A

the placenta and umbilical cord

Originate from Morula
outer cells from trophoblast

90
Q

What does morula mean

A

Mulberry

it is a stage attained at 3 days
with 8-16 cells

91
Q

Describe gastroschisis

A

Gastroschisis is a birth defect of the abdominal wall. The baby’s intestines are found outside of the baby’s body, exiting through a hole beside the belly button. (to the right)

90% in infants from younger mothers 18-22 years old

The incidence is increasing

92
Q

What is PITX2

A

main transcription factor that induces left-sidedness

93
Q

What are the epiblast

A

Epiblast cells- form all of the embryonic tissues and cells.

About 1 or 2 days after implantation, the embryo/embryoblast begin to differentiate into 2 layers

The dorsal layer, the epiblast,

and a ventral layer, the hypoblast

94
Q

What are the classes of T cells

A

TCR 1

TCR 2

95
Q

What is Nodal

A

secreted by the primitive node; its concentration on the left side of the embryo helps to establish left-sidedness by enhancing transcription factor, PItX2

96
Q

How is a Saturated Fat different from a Non-Saturated Fat?

A
Saturated Fat
Fatty acid carbons bound to as much hydrogen as possible 
Lack double bonds between carbon atoms 
Solid at room temperature 
Higher melting point
Most animal fats are saturated 
Example:  Butter 

Non-Saturated Fat:
Fewer hydrogen bounds bounds to carbons
1 or more double bonds (kinks in the tails)
Liquid at room temperature
Low melting point
Most plant fats are unsaturated or polyunsaturated
Example: Oils

97
Q

What is gastrulation

A

Gastrulation is the process of making the three germ layers from the epiblast as cell migration continues

98
Q

What is Goosecoid

A

a transcription factor which is the main head induction gene; encodes for the formation of the head

99
Q

What is the embyronic period

A

3 - 8 weeks

100
Q

When is the highest risk for birth defects

A

At week 5

increases to week 5,
then decreases after that til birth

101
Q

Activation of the Alternative pathway

A

The alternative pathway is activated when the proteins for the alternative pathway encounter LPS on the surface of an invading pathogen.

This is part of the innate response as there are no antibodies needed for the initiation of this response.

There is always a low level of activation of the alternative pathway.

Some C3(H2O) is always around but it is when the C3b binds to the invading cell and encounters activators found on the invading pathogen that it activates.

The alternative pathway will continue down the path to generating C3a, C5a, C5b, and the membrane attack complex.

102
Q

Percentage of lymphoid cells that are T cells

A

85-95%

103
Q

How are innate and adpative immunity different

A

Innate = fast and general
nonspecific
occurs within hours
also includes physical and chemical barriers of body

Adaptive = Slow and specific
Becomes active if innate system cannot deal with issue
only works from memory
works against specific pathogens or cells

104
Q

How does neuralation occur

A

Neurulation in vertebrates results in the formation of the neural tube, which gives rise to both the spinal cord and the brain.

Neural crest cells are also created during neurulation.

Neural crest cells migrate away from the neural tube and give rise to a variety of cell types, including pigment cells and neurons.

Neurulation begins with the formation of a neural plate, a thickening of the ectoderm caused when cuboidal epithelial cells become columnar.

Changes in cell shape and cell adhesion cause the edges of the plate fold and rise, meeting in the midline to form a tube.

The cells at the tips of the neural folds come to lie between the neural tube and the overlying epidermis.

These cells become the neural crest cells.

Both epidermis and neural plate are capable of giving rise to neural crest cells.

105
Q

Describe syndactyl

A

Web foot/hands

insufficient programmed cell death leaves no interdigit spaces

106
Q

What is AER

A

Apical ectodermal ridge

107
Q

Describe IgE antibodies.

A

Bind to mast cells and bosphils which participate in the immune response

plays a role in allergic resopnse

purpose is to stop parasites

108
Q

What are the leukocytes?

A

WBC’s (spherical, nucleated)

109
Q

Order of classical pathway complement system

A
Cell surface
Antigen
Antibody
C1r + C1s = C1q
C1q + C4 = *(*C4a*)* &amp; C4b / C1q + C2 = C2a &amp; *(*C2b*)*
C4b + C2a = C4b2a
C4b2a (C3 convertase)
C3 + C4b2a = *(*C3a*)* &amp; C3b
C3b + C4b2a = C4b2a3b
C4b2a3b (C5 convertase)
C4b2a3b + C5 = *(*C5a*)* &amp; C5b
C5b + C6, C7, C8, C9 = C5b6789 MAC
C5b6789 MAC
110
Q

What are the types of innate immunity

A

Physical barriers
skin,cilia

Chemical barriers
lysozymes in teras/saliva, mucin in mucous

Mechanical barriers
Cough, sneeze, flushing of urinary tract

microbial barriers
common flora, (gut, vagina, skin etc)

Systemic defenses
The elimination of foreign agents that made it through external barriers

Cellular component- Phagocytes
in acquired immunity - T cells

Soluble (humoral) Component
Antibodies
complemnt proteins
antimicrobial proteins

111
Q

Percentage of antibodies that are IgG

A

70-75%

112
Q

How is the classical pathway of the complement system activated? (Steps)

A

Acitvated by antigen antibody complexes on surface of invading cell

Only IgM or IgG will activate classical pathway
One IgM or 2 IgG are required for activation

An antibody must be bound to the antigen in order to activate the classical pathway

The pathway is activated when C1 binds to the Fc portion of the antibody

C1(C1q) is made up of C1r and C1s

113
Q

Describe brachydactyl

A

AER has stopped working properly

leaves shortened fingers

114
Q

Describe eosinophils

A

2-5% of circulating leukocytes

if you have too many circulating you end up with allergic diseases

Response to parasitic worms

work via degranulation and toxin release, release certain proteins, cytokines and chemokines the cause inflammation

Activation is stimulated by interleukins

attracted to endothelial cells via selectins and bind via integrins
(this is a prcess of entering the tissue and is known as diapedesis)

115
Q

What is the foramen ovale

A

The foramen ovale is the opening in
the septum

At birth, pressure rises in the left atrium due to increased blood flow from the lungs, while pressure on the right decreases with clamping of the umbilical cord and decreased blood flow from the placenta.

These changes in pressure close the
foramen ovale.

116
Q

What are memory B cells

A

These recognize the same antigen more rapidly in a faster and higher antibody response

117
Q

Transplant rejection process

A

APC’s from donorpresents antigen along with foreign MHC peptides on the cells surface

MHC molecules (two types)
MHC I found on nuclealted cells
MHC II found on dendritic, macrophages, b cells, endthelial and epithelial cells

CD8 T cell activation directly causes donor cell lysis

An immune synapse forms with a naive CD4 T cell which is activated to produce Interleukin 2

Cytokines: interleukin 2 activates
Helper T cells (autocrine)
Cytotoxic T cells (paracrine)

Activated Cytotoxic T cells destroy other donor cells using perforin and granzyme

118
Q

Describe Polysaccharides

A

condensation products of more than 10 monosaccharide units

Starches and dextrins
§ May be linear or branched polymers

o Serve storage and structural functions

o Energy storage (stored as disaccharides)
§ Plants: starch
§ Animals: glycogen

o Structural support
§ Plants: cellulose
§ Arthropods/fungi: chitin

119
Q

Describe apert syndrome

A

midface is underdeveloped as well as retruded; a subset have cleft palate

Mutation in = FGFR2

Hand always includes fusion of the middle 3 digits; thumb and 5th finger are sometimes involved

Feeding, hearing, dental issues

Heart, GI, GU,airway, nasal, tracheal issues

Normal to lower intelligence

120
Q

What does C5 convertase consist of in the classical pathway

A

C4b2a3b

121
Q

What are macrophages (APC)

A

Antigen presenting cells (APC)

Present antigens to T helper cells

122
Q

What is NKX2.5

A

the main transcription factor that encodes for heart development

123
Q

What are the two main processes of amino acid metabolism

A

Transamination
The process of removing an amine group from one amino acid and adding it to a metabolic intermediate to create another amino acid

Deamination
The process of removing an amine group and breaking down amino acids

124
Q

What are antibodies

A

Antibodies are glycoproteins found on B cell membranes or secreted by plasma cells

125
Q

What is Chordin

A

growth factor secreted by goosecoid

126
Q

Describe split foot

A

Lobster claw

excessive programmed cell death

127
Q

What is Anterior visceral endoderm (AVE)

A

expresses the head forming genes thus inducing the cranial region.

128
Q

What are effector B cells

A

Plasma cells or antibody forming cells which secrete antibodies

129
Q

Describe Starch

A

An insoluble polysaccharide

o Two types of starch
§ Amylose- 20%
§ Amylopectin- 80%

o Plant starch: when found in the form of amylopectin- more complicated starch (branched)

o Has a-glucose monomers
§ Aka all the repeat units are oriented in the same direction

o Starch and cellulose have same glucose-based repeat unit

130
Q

What are langerhans cell in the skin

A

Antigen presenting cells (APC)

dendritic cells of the skin

take up microbial antigens to become fully functioning APC Cells

131
Q

Trace electrons through ETC

A

NADH gives up 2 electrons to NADH dehydrogenase

the 2 electorns move to ubiquinone while giving up 2 H+ ions through the membrane

the 2 electrons move to the cytochrome BC1 where more H+ moves out of the membrane

1 electron at a time moves through the cytochrome C to the Cytochrome oxidase

Once htere are 4 electrons in the cytochrome oxidase, 2 waters are formed and 4 H+ are moved out of the membrane

H2O is the terminal elctron acceptor

the H+ outsode the membrane cause an ion gradient theat causes H+ to move throught the ATP synthase which forms ATP from ADP-Pi (oxidative phosphorylation)

**FADH2 can also give 2 electorns directly to the ubiquinone and start from there.

132
Q

Describe a Type 2 hypersensitivity reacion?

A

Type 2 = involves the binding of IgG and IgM antibodies to antigens on cell surfaces. This induces a cascade of events that leads to cell death

Hemolytic transfusion reactions and hemolytic disease of newborns are type 2 reactions

Type 2 has 2 antibodies IgG & IgM
& usually involves 2 people (mother / newborn)

133
Q

Roles of the neural crest cells

A

The fact that crest cells participate in heart septation and that they make all of the bones of the face and some of the skull explains why many children with craniofacial defects (e.g., cleft lip or palate, etc.) also have cardiac defects

Make all the bones of face

134
Q

What holds the two sides of the “Y” together in an antibody?

A

disulfide bonds

135
Q

What kind subcategories are TCR 2 cells

A

CD4

CD8

136
Q

What are the differneces between IgG and IgM?

A

Differences between IgM and IgG
• While IgM antibodies are usually found in a human body after it has been exposed to a disease
• IgG is the long term response of the body to the disease

137
Q

What are B cells

A

Antigen presenting cells (APC)

These recognize a specific antigen

they have a membrane associated antibody (immunoglobulin molecules)

prior to binding, they have IgM and IgD on the surface

After Binding it is activated, it then proliferates and differentiates

There are effector cells and memory B cells

138
Q

Describe how blood circulation in the embryo changes upon birth and what effect these changes have on heart structures.

A
  1. At birth, the umbilical cord is clamped, stopping blood flow from the placenta.
  2. In response, the ductus venosus closes and later becomes fibrotic, forming the ligamentum venosum in the liver.
  3. Pressure rises in the left atrium compared to the right due to increased blood flow from the lungs and decreased blood flow to the right side from the placenta.
  4. The pressure change closes the flap over the foramen ovale. Later, this flap will become fibrotic and permanently seal the opening.
  5. Bradykinin is secreted by the lungs and causes the ductus arteriosus to close. The ductus becomes fibrotic to form the ligamentum arteriosum.

Interesting note: During the first months after birth, babies may turn blue when
they cry. This is because of pressure changes in the atria that open the foramen
ovale and create a right (venous blood) to left (arterial blood) shunt. It requires
some months for the atrial septa to fuse permanently.

139
Q

What is a fat

A

A glycerol and 3 fatty acid tails

stores energy

140
Q

Explain Membrane attack complex (MAC)

A

C5b combines with C6, C7, C8

Forms C5b678

The “8” portion of the complex begins to disrupt the cell membrane

C9 then binds to C8 (more C9’s then bind)

C9’s forms a pore in the cell membrane (leads to Lysis)

141
Q

What are the types of antibodies? (classes)

A

GAMED

IgG
IgA
IgM
IgE
IgD
142
Q

What do fats, steroids and phospholipids have in common

A

All are inslouble in water

High proportion of (hydrocarbon) nonpolar C-H bonds causing molecules to be hydrophobic

143
Q

Describe amniotic band syndrome

A

strands of amniotic membrane can wrap around limbs or digits and cause amputations

144
Q

What is the fetal period

A

8 - 38 weeks

145
Q

Describe Glycogen

A

o Structurally similar to amylopectin but much more branched

o Granules occur in cytosol of cells

o Liver and muscle cells store glycogen in humans

o Once needed, glycogen is broken down into glucose by glycogen phosphorylase

146
Q

Describe spina bifida

A

arises when neural tube closure fails in the spinal cord region

Results in a loss of function depending on the level of the lesion

Not lethal, do not affect intelligence. They can be repaired

Folic acid prevents 70% of these defects

147
Q

What are the differnet hypersensitivity types

A

Type 1 = IgE antibodies that sensitize an individual to an allergen and provoke a quick inflammatory response upon subsequent exposure.

Type 2 = involves the binding of IgG and IgM antibodies to antigens on cell surfaces. This induces a cascade of events that leads to cell death

Type 3 = Results from the formation of antigens-antibody complexes that settle on tissue and organs in an attempt to remove these complexes underlying tissue is also damaged

Type 4 = Regulated by T cells and are delayed reactions to antigens associated with cells

148
Q

What is the primitive streak

A

The primitive streak is a shallow groove at the caudal end of the embryo.

the primitive streak demonstrate that the head (cranial) and tail (caudal) ends of the embryo have been established.

149
Q

Describe bladder extrophy

A

protrusion of the urinary bladder through a defect in the abdominal wall

The most important criterion for improving long-term prognosis is success of the initial closure

Common with spina bifida

150
Q

Describe Innate immunity

A

Innate = fast and general
nonspecific
occurs within hours
also includes physical and chemical barriers of body
activated by chemical properties of the antigen

151
Q

What secretes HCG?

A

Syncytiotrophoblast (trophoblast)

Secretes HCG

the trophoblast (that form the placenta) actually differentiates into 2 cell types; the synciotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast

152
Q

Describe adaptive immunity

A

Adaptive = Slow and specific

Becomes active if innate system cannot deal with issue

only works from memory

works against specific pathogens or cells

Adaptive immunity refers to complex antigen specific immune response

The antigen must be recognized first

create a memory for later responses

153
Q

What does the MAC coplex consist of

A

C5b6789