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PHRM 825 > PHRM 825: Immunizations > Flashcards

PHRM 825: Immunizations Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of immunity provides nonspecific, generalized defense against a wide variety of pathogens?

A

Innate

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2
Q

Which type of immunity is considered the first line of defense against invading pathogens?

A

Innate

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3
Q

Which type of immunity generates immunological memory which provides protection against the specific pathogen upon subsequent exposure?

A

Acquired immunity

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4
Q

Which type of immunity includes physical barriers, physiologic factors, processes, and immune cells?

A

Innate immunity

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5
Q

Which type of immunity has humoral and cell-mediated immunity?

A

Acquired

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6
Q

It is considered ____ immunity when a patient receives antibodies against a pathogen

A

Passive

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7
Q

It is considered ____ immunity when a patient is exposed to an antigen

A

Active

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8
Q

____ immunity provides immediate protection

A

Passive

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9
Q

____ immunity triggers the immune system to produce disease-specific antibodies

A

Active

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10
Q

Antibodies transmitted from mother to newborn during last trimester of gestation is an example of ___ immunity

A

Passive

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11
Q

Patient receives an antibody-containing product (IVIG, HBIG) is an example of ____ immunity

A

Passive

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12
Q

____ immunity takes weeks to produce protective level of antibody but lasts years

A

Active

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13
Q

What is humoral immunity?

A

When the adaptive immune system is activated by the innate immune system and triggers specific B-cells to develop into plasma cells

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14
Q

What type of immunity secretes large amounts of antibodies?

A

Humoral

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15
Q

What do antibodies secreted during humoral immunity do?

A
  • Bind to antigens and mark the pathogen for destruction by phagocytes
  • Bind to antigens and activate the complement
  • Bind to antigens so that the antigen can no longer recognize host cells
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16
Q

What is cell-mediated immunity?

A

Adaptive immune response that is primarily mediated by thymus-derived small lymphocytes, which are known as T-cells

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17
Q

What do T helper cells do during cell-mediated immunity?

A

Stimulate B-cells to secrete antibodies, activate phagocytes, activate T-killer cells, and enhance the activity of NK cells

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18
Q

What do T killer cells do during cell-mediated immunity?

A

Recognize and destroy cells infected by viruses

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19
Q

The secondary immune response is ___ and ___ than the primary immune response

A

Faster and larger

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20
Q

What is heard immunity also known as?

A

Community immunity

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21
Q

What is heard immunity?

A

When immunized individuals protect those who are not immunized

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22
Q

How is a live attenuated vaccine made?

A

“Wild” virus or bacteria are modified in a laboratory

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23
Q

What type of vaccine still has the ability to replicate and cause disease, but is weakened?

A

Live attenuated

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24
Q

How is an inactivated vaccine made?

A

Produced by growing virus or bacteria in a laboratory and inactivating with heat or chemicals

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25
Q

What type of vaccine cannot replicate and cannot cause disease?

A

Inactivated

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26
Q

What 7 vaccines are live attenuated vaccines?

A
  • MMR
  • Rotavirus
  • Typhoid
  • Vaccinia (smallpox)
  • Varicela
  • Yellow fever
  • Zoster (Zostavax)
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27
Q

What 10 vaccines are inactivated vaccines?

A
  • Anthrax
  • Haemophilus influenzae type B
  • Hepatitis A and B
  • Human papillomavirus
  • Influenza (injectable)
  • Meningococcal
  • Pneumococcal
  • Poliovirus (IPV)
  • Zoster (Shingrix)
  • Tetanus combinations (DTaP, Tdap, Td, etc)
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28
Q

When are toxoids used

A

When a bacterial toxin is the main cause of an infection

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29
Q

How are toxoids made?

A

Inactivation of toxin by heat or chemical treatment into a toxoid

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30
Q

How does the immune system fight against toxins after a toxoid vaccine is given?

A

Immune system produces antibodies that lock onto and block the toxin from being released

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31
Q

Which vaccine includes only the antigens that best stimulate the immune system?

A

Subunit vaccines

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32
Q

Which type of vaccine is associated with fewer adverse effects than whole vaccines?

A

Subunit

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33
Q

How many antigens can a subunit vaccine contain in one vaccine?

A

1-20+

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34
Q

What is an example of a toxoid vaccine

A

Diptheria and tetanus toxoid in DTaP

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35
Q

How does a polysaccharide vaccine work?

A

The polysaccharide outer sugar coat disguises a bacterium’s antigen

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36
Q

Immature immune systems (<2 years old) cannot recognize and respond to which vaccine?

A

Polysaccharide

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37
Q

What do conjugated vaccines contain?

A

An antigen or toxoid-linked polysaccharide

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38
Q

How is hepatitis B spread?

A

Via blood or body fluids

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39
Q

What disease can cause liver damage and failure

A

Hepatitis B

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40
Q

Hepatitis B has ___ incubation and contagious time

A

Long

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41
Q

What does HBV mean?

A

Hepatitis B Virus

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42
Q

What does HBIG mean?

A

Hepatitis B Immune Globulin

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43
Q

Infants born to HBV-infected mothers should receive which 2 vaccines withing 12 hours of birth?

A

HepB and HBIG

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44
Q

How is haemophilus influenzae type B spread?

A

Direct contact and respiratory droplets

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45
Q

What is the incubation time for haemophilus influenzae type B?

A

~3 days

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46
Q

What are the clinical manifestations for haemophilus influenzae type B?

A
  • Pneumonia
  • Bacteremia
  • Meningitis
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47
Q

What type of vaccine is the haemophilus influenzae type B vaccine?

A

Encapsulated aerobic gram-negative cocobacillus

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48
Q

Haemophilus influenzae type B is rarely seen in what population?

A

Children older than 5 years old

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49
Q

What are some examples of haemophilus influenzae type B?

A

ActHIB, PedvaxHIB, MenHiberix, Pentacel, PedvaxHib, COMVAX

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50
Q

What does the tetanus toxin do to the body?

A

Blocks the release of neurotransmitters preventing muscle relaxation and causing severe muscle spasms

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51
Q

What does the diptheria toxin do to the body?

A

Can attack any mucous membrane and cause tissue destruction, can also cause myocarditis and neuritis

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52
Q

How is pertussis transmitted and what does it cause?

A

Through respiratory droplets and causes whooping cough

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53
Q

How is tetanus transmitted?

A

Direct contact through broken skin

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54
Q

How is Diptheria transmitted?

A

Respiratory droplets or direct contact

55
Q

What is the incubation period for diphteria?

A

2-5 days

56
Q

What is the incubation period for tetanus?

A

3-21 days

57
Q

What is the incubation period for pertussis?

A

5-21 days

58
Q

How is diptheria treated?

A

Antibiotics

59
Q

How is tetanus treated?

A

Immunoglobulin or antitoxin

60
Q

How is pertussis treated?

A

Antiobiotics

61
Q

What does the DTaP vaccine contain?

A

Diptheria and tetanus toxoids, and acellular pertussis absorbed

62
Q

What most commonly occurs in later doses of DTaP?

A

Localized skin reactions

63
Q

What is poliomyelitis caused by?

A

An enterovirus

64
Q

How does the poliomyelitis enterovirus infect the body?

A

It enters through the mouth and destroys the spinal cord cells leading to flaccid paralysis of muscles while the sensory function is still intact

65
Q

When was Polio eradicated?

A

1994

66
Q

How is streptococcus pneumoniae spread?

A

Airborne respiratory droplets or direct contact with respiratory secretions

67
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of streptococcus pneumoniae?

A
  • Pneumonia
  • Bacteremia
  • Meningitis
  • Acute otitis media
68
Q

What is the incubation period of streeptococcus pneumoniae?

A

1-3 days

69
Q

What is the pneumococcal PCV13 vaccine for and what does it target?

A

13-valent Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (Prevnar 13) that targets 13 serotypes and is indiccated for prevention of serotypes that cause otitis media

70
Q

Who is PCV13 recommended for?

A
  • Infants and young children
  • One dose for immunicompromised adults > or = 19 years
  • All adults > or = 65 years
71
Q

What is rotavirus caused by?

A

Gastroenteritis

72
Q

How is rotavirus transmitted?

A

Fecal-oral route

73
Q

What are the different types of influenza?

A

A, B, and C

74
Q

How are influenza A viruses categorized?

A

2 major surface antigens

75
Q

How does the influenza virus change?

A

It changes it’s 2 major surface antigens to evade the immune system (antigenic drift and antigenic shift)

76
Q

What are the 2 major surface antigens on the influenza virus and what do they do?

A
  • Hemagglutinin (H): helps the virus attach to cells

- Neuraminidase (N): helps the virus leave cells and spread to other cells

77
Q

How is influenza spread?

A
  • Aerosolized respiratory droplets from cough or sneeze

- Direct contact with saliva or nasal drainage

78
Q

What is the incubation period for influenza?

A

1-4 days

79
Q

What are the symptoms of influenza

A

High fever, nonproductive cough, fatigue, sore throat, muscle aches, headache, runny nose

80
Q

How long does it take uncomplicated influenza to go away?

A

5-7 days

81
Q

What are the risk factors for influenza?

A
  • Age (<5 or >65)
  • Pregnant women
  • Residents of long-term facilities
  • Chronic medical conditions
82
Q

What is the inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV) indication, contraindication and when should you give the high dose?

A

Indicated: >6months old
High dose for >65 years old
Contraindicated: Severe egg allergy

83
Q

What does MMR stand for?

A

Measles, Mumps, Rubella

84
Q

How is MMR spread?

A

Respiratory transmission

85
Q

What is the incubation period for measles?

A

7-21 days

86
Q

What is the incubation period for mumps?

A

12-25 days

87
Q

What is the incubation period for rubella?

A

12-23 days

88
Q

Clinical manifestation of measles

A

Fever, malaise, cough, coryza, conjuctivitis, rash

89
Q

Clinical manifestation of mumps

A

Pain, tenderness, parotid salivary gland swelling (in neck)

90
Q

Clinical manifestation of rubella

A

Rash spreading from face, low fever

91
Q

What is the varicella zoster virus for?

A

Chicken pox

92
Q

How is VZV spread?

A

Respiratory droplet and/or direct contact with lesions

93
Q

What does VZV stand for?

A

Varicella Zoster Virus

94
Q

What is the incubation period for VZV?

A

10-21 days

95
Q

What is the clinical manifestation of VZV?

A

Itchy rash, malaise, fever

96
Q

How long does it take for the chicken pox to resolve?

A

Days to weeks

97
Q

How is hepatitis A spread?

A

Fecal-oral or contaminated food/water

98
Q

Where does hepatitis A replicate and what does it cause?

A

Replicates in the liver but does NOT cause chronic infection or chronic liver disease

99
Q

What virus accounts for ~99% of cervical cancers?

A

HPV

100
Q

What does HPV stand for?

A

Human papillomavirus

101
Q

How is HPV spread

A

Unknowingly through sex

102
Q

What are the 3 types of HPV vaccines?

A

HPV4, HPV2, and HPV9

103
Q

How is nisseria meningitidis spread?

A

Respiratory transmission

104
Q

What does nisseria meningitidis cause?

A

Meningitis

105
Q

What is the incubation period for nisseria meningitidis?

A

3-7 days

106
Q

What is the clinical manifestation for nisseria meningitidis?

A

Fever, headache, stiff neck, nausea, vomiting, light sensitivity, altered mental status

107
Q

Meningococcal is what type of bacteria?

A

Encapsulated aerobic gram-negative

108
Q

Pneumococcal PPSV23 vaccine is not effective in what population?

A

Children <2 years old

109
Q

PPSV23 is recommended for who?

A
  • Adults >65
  • Children >2 years old and at high risk
  • Adults 19-64 who smoke cigarettes or who have asthma
110
Q

What does the Herpes zoster virus cause?

A

Shingles

111
Q

How is shingles spread?

A

Direct contact with lesions

112
Q

What is the incubation period for the herpes zoster virus?

A

Virus remains dormant from initial infection

113
Q

What is the clinical manifestation of shingles?

A

Itchy, rash, pain

114
Q

How long does it take for shingles to resolve?

A

Days to weeks

115
Q

4 rare vaccines

A
  • Rabies immune globulin
  • Yellow fever
  • Typhoid fever
  • Japanese encephalitis
116
Q

Rabies immune globulin

A
  • Rabies is caused by rhabdovirus, transmitted by bite of infected animal
  • Vaccinate for pre-exposure prevention or post-exposure prophylaxis with rabies immune globulin
117
Q

Yellow fever

A
  • Transmitted by infected mosquito

- Live attenuated virus

118
Q

Typhoid fever

A
  • Food and water borne illness

- Oral live attenuated vaccine or IM injection

119
Q

Japanese Encephalitis

A
  • Mosquito-born viral illness in Asia

- IM injection if spending >1 month during transmission season

120
Q

Smallpox has a sudden onset of __–> ___–> ___

A

High fever, rash, lesions

121
Q

When is smallpox contagious?

A

When lesions develop

122
Q

How was the smallpox vaccine developed?

A

Developed from cowpox and tested in 7 year old boy

123
Q

What can anthrax cause?

A

Cutaneous, gastrointestinal, meningitis, shock

124
Q

Where does bacillus anthracis live and what does it cause?

A

In soil and can infect animals; anthrax

125
Q

Palivizumab (Synagis) is what kind of infection?

A

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infection

126
Q

What can RSV cause?

A

Cold-like illness, pneumonia, and bronchiolitis

127
Q

What viral infection infects most infants by 1 year and almost everyone by 2?

A

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

128
Q

The Palivizumab vaccine for RSV contains what kind of antibody and provides what kind of immunity

A

Monoclonal antibody and passive immunity

129
Q

Where are adverse effects related to vaccines reported ?

A

Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS)

130
Q

What is VAERS?

A

National vaccine safety surveillance program that monitors for reported adverse events requiring further investigation

131
Q

What type of vaccine should pregnant women not receive?

A

Live attenuated

132
Q

Who can provide vaccines in the pharmacy profession?

A

Pharmacists and pharmacy interns

133
Q

What is CHIRP

A

Vaccine registry for indiana residents

PHRM 825 (36 decks)

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