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Board 2019 > pharmacology > Flashcards

pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

involves the study of the bodily absorption, distrubution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs ADME

A

pharmokinetics

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2
Q

What is bypassed when a drug is administered intravenously?

A

absorption phase

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3
Q

only drugs to pass blood brain barrier

A

lipid soluble drugs

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4
Q

the most important site for drug absorption of orally administered drugs is the

A

small intestines

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5
Q

oral doses go to the liver

sublingual goes to the heart

A

true

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6
Q

is an abundant plasma protein that binds to remarkably wide range of drugs this interaction may interfere with active drug concentrations in the blood

A

albumin

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7
Q

major site for drug metabolism

A

liver

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8
Q

someone with liver disease or past/present substance abuse may have a compromised ability to metabolize medications. Decrease metabolism leads to increased circulating levels of the drug, more therapeutic effect

A

true

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9
Q

drugs are most often eliminated by

A

biotransformation

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10
Q

the most important route for drug elimination is

A

renal kidney excretion

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11
Q

lipid soluble drugs are not

A

excreted by urine. but need to be metabolized into water soluble form by liver

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12
Q

the major route of fluoride elimation is

A

excretion from urine

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13
Q

potency and efficecacy are unrelated

A

true

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14
Q

drugs may have difference potencies but the same efficacy t/f

A

true

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15
Q

when the continuing dose of a drug is in balance with the elimination rate of the drug

A

steady state

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16
Q

larger than normal doses used when therapy is initiated with drugs that have very long half lives the purpose of loading dose is to quickly achieve a blood level of the drug that is in therapeutic range even though the drug has not reached steady state

A

loading dose

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17
Q

a drug or substance which kills bacteria or is capable of killing bacteria

A

bactericidial

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18
Q

a drug or substance that prevents growth of bacteria by keeping the microbes in the stationary phase of growth

A

bacteriostatic

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19
Q

the lowest concentration of an antimicrobial substance or drug that will inhibit the visible growth of a microorganism after overnight incubation

A

minimum inhibitory concentration MIC

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20
Q

range of activity of a drug

A

spectrum

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21
Q

interaction of two or more drugs such as the total effect is greater than the sum of the individual effects

A

synergism

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22
Q

occurs when a combo of two agents produces less effect than either agent alone

A

antagonism

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23
Q

parenteral route includes

A

injection

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24
Q

involving the oral route, drugs derived from protein sources may be inactivated by GI acidity or enzymes for example

A

insulin

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25
Q

orally delivered drugs must pass through hepatic portal stimulation termed

A

first pass effect or phase 1 reactions

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26
Q

example of p 450 induction

A

such as smoking, inducement increases enzymes activity and metabolizes drug more rapidly necessitating a larger drug dose for effect

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27
Q

the amount of drug available to produce systemic effect is reduced by

A

first pass effect

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28
Q

drugs with a high first pass effect have a greater oral to parenteral dose ratio

A

example morphine

they require a larger dose

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29
Q

what can decrease drug metabolism

A

impaired liver functioning

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30
Q

which phase is the absorption phase bypassed

A

intravascular

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31
Q

what is the most common sites for the intra muscular route

A

deltoid or gluteal

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32
Q

what is the route used to administer protein products

for example insulin and local anesthetics

A

subcutaneous

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33
Q

what route is a tuberculin skin test

A

sub route

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34
Q

topical route is contraindicted if surface is ulcerated burned or abraded

A

topical route

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35
Q

topical route is most effective when

A

less keritinized tissue

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36
Q

what may have a systemic uptake

A

topical

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37
Q

any prescription for a controlled substance requires a

A

dea number

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38
Q

both the — and the —- determine which substances are added or removed from each schedule

A

dea and fda

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39
Q

highest abuse potential
no accepted medical use
ex heroin, lsd

A

1

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40
Q

written prescription with providers sig only, no refills

examples codeine, oxycontin, fentanyl

A

2

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41
Q

prescriptions may be phoned in no more than 5 refills in 6 months . may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or high psychological dependence

A

3

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42
Q

same as 3 but less, examples include xanax soma valium ativan

A

4

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43
Q

least potential for abuse

can be purchased over the counter

A

5

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44
Q

ac

A

before meals

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45
Q

hs

A

bedtime

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46
Q

pc

A

after meals

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47
Q

prn

A

as needed

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48
Q

qd

A

everyday

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49
Q

qid

A

4 times a day

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50
Q

tid

A

3 times a day

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51
Q

ud

A

as directed

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52
Q

a NSAID

A

aspirin

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53
Q

what interferes with clotting contraindicted with coumadin (warfarin) due to drug interaction

A

aspirin and ibuprofen

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54
Q

reyes syndrome is linked to

A

aspirin

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55
Q

salicylism

A

aspirin toxicity

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56
Q

what medicine has a side effect of tinnitus (ringing in the ears)

A

asprin

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57
Q

mechanism of action, prostaglandin synthesis

A

ibuprofen

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58
Q

ibuprofen is available in suspension form for — uses an an antipyretic

A

pediatric

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59
Q

ibupforen can decrease the pharmacological effects of many drugs including
ace inhibitors, aspirin, beta blockers, corticosteroids cyclosporine lithium loop

A

when in doubt dont choose this an option due to the many contraindictions

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60
Q

NSAID
reversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase 1 and 2 cox 1 and cox 2 enzymes which results in decreased formation of prostaglandin precursors

A

naproxen (aleve)

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61
Q

side effects are possible increased risk of serious cardiovascular thrombotic events, myocardial infarction and stroke, prolongs bleeding time

A

naproxen (aleve)

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62
Q

taking an nsaid and phentyoin can increase phenytoin levels as a result people who take phenytoin should have a blood test to monitor the phenytoin level when starting or increasing the dose of an nsaid

A

true

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63
Q

—– has no anti-inflammatory action therefore is not considered an nsaid or effect on clotting

A

acetaminphen tyenol

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64
Q

drug of choice for patients on anticoagulants (coumadin) or with peptic ulcer disease

A

acetaminophen tyenol

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65
Q

side effects of —- include
hepatoxicity
liver necrosis
death

A

tyenol, RARE

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66
Q

blocks pain receptors in the brain without loss of consciousness

A

narcotic/opiod

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67
Q

Morphine, demerol, dilaudid, vicodin, and codeine are

A

narcotics / opiods

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68
Q

what is the most commonly used opiod in dentistry usually in conjuction with tyenol

A

codeine

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69
Q

sign of overdose with narcotics is

A

pinpoint pupils

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70
Q

codeine may lead to constipation

A

true

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71
Q

what is used to treat opiod overdose

A

naloxone

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72
Q

what medicine is only effective in cases of addiction to heroin, morphine, and other opiod drugs

A

methadone

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73
Q

rest and digest
stimulates salivary gland secretions
constricts bronchiolar diameter

A

parasympathetic autonomic nervous system

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74
Q

neuro transmitter is acetylcholine

A

parasym.

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75
Q

cholinergic agents are used to treat

A

xerostomia
urinary retention
glaucoma

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76
Q

examples of cholinergic drugs are

A

pilocarpine

nictonie

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77
Q

contraindictions include

asthmas, peptic ulcer, cardiac disease, gi urinary obstruction

A

cholingergic drugs

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78
Q

inhibits parasympathetic effects by blocking acetylcholine receptors

A

anticholinergic agents

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79
Q

prototype of anticholinergic drugs, used pre operatively to decrease salivary flow in the dental setting

A

atropine

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80
Q

helpful hint of the effects of anticholinergic agents

A

A= antichol. agents

b. blurred vision and bladder retention
c. constipation
d. dry mouth

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81
Q

fight or flight
acetylcholine and no repinephrine
dialation of bronchial tubes in the lungs and pupils in the eyes
decrease in saliva

A

sympathetic

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82
Q

adrenergic drug

A

bronchodilators

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83
Q

thrush can occur when a patient used

A

asthma inhaler

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84
Q

epinephrine**
dopamine
ephedrine
pseydoephedrine

A

vasopressers

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85
Q

what helps keep anesthetic in the area of administration

A

vasoconstriction

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86
Q

what is commonly used as a cardiac stimulator

A

epinephrine

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87
Q

used in tx of attention deficit hyperactivity disorders

A

ritalin/adderal

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88
Q

what is the only local anesthetic agent with vasoconstrictive properties

A

cocaine

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89
Q

what is contraindicted in a cocaine or methamphetamine abuser if the abuser has used in the last 24 hours

A

epinephrine

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90
Q

often suffered from rampant caries and burned mucosal surfaces

A

methamphetamine

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91
Q

the oral mucosal irritation from meth abuse is likely the results of

A

the method of drug administation not the drug itself

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92
Q

currently no meds are available to treat meth addiction or overdose the only avenue for addicts is cognitive behavioral interventions that help modify harmful actions and teach coping skills

A

true

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93
Q

adverse effects of ——- agents
CNS disturbances anxiety fear tension headache and tremor
cardiac arrythmias**
cereral hermorrhage

A

adrenergic agents

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94
Q

— should not be used in patients with angina, uncontrolled hypertension and uncontrolled hyperthyroidism

A

adrenergic drugs

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95
Q

how many types of beta receptors are they

A

3

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96
Q

which beta receptors are located in the heart primarily, eye and kidneys

A

b1

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97
Q

receptors are found in the lungs primarily, gastrointestinal tract, liver, uterus blood vessels and skeletal muscle

A

b2

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98
Q

receptors are located in fat cells

A

b3

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99
Q

—- primarily block —- by blocking the effects of norepinephrine and epinephrine, reduce heart rate. they may constrict air passages by stimulating the muscles that surround the air passages to contract, considered an adverse side effect

A

beta blockers, adrenergic blocking agents, or b blockers

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100
Q

what can manage a post heart attack (myocardial infarction, or generalized anxiety disorders

A

beta blockers

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101
Q

propranolol (hemangeol)
metoprolol (lopressor, toprol xl)
atenolol (tenormin)

A

beta

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102
Q

discovered the first natural anitbiotic, penicillin in 1928

A

alexandar fleming

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103
Q

what cannot fight viral infections
can either kill bacteria or slow its growth
side effects include diarrehea oral candidiasis and gi upset

A

anitbiotics

104
Q

most commonly prescribed antibiotic in dentistry

A

penicillins

105
Q

penicillin is safe for

A

pregnant women

106
Q

pencillins are classfied as beta lactam antibiotics based upon the presence of beta lactam ring

A

true

107
Q

what is preferred more Penicillin vk or penicillin g

A

VK because G is inactivated by gastric acids

108
Q

as a beta lactam antibiotic, penicillins are not effective againsst penciliilinase which is an enzyme produced by penicillin resistant organsisms

A

true

109
Q 
combats primarily respiratory diseases
examples
erythromycin
clarithromycin
azithromycin
A

macrolides

110
Q

what can be used for premed if a patient is allergic to penicillin

A

clarithromycin and azithromycin

111
Q

is tetra bactericidal or static

A

static

112
Q

tetra should be taken with

A

a full glass of water on an empty stomach, atleast 1-2 hours after meals, tetra cannot be taken with milk or other dairy products

113
Q

tetra especially doxycycline concentrate in the

A

gingival crevicular fluid and have anti collagenase effect

114
Q 
effective against obligate anerobes only
example metrondazole (flagyl)
due to anabuse like reaction alcohol should be avoided
A

nitromidazoles

115
Q 
class of b lactam antibiotics
10 percent of patients allergic to penicillin are also allergic
A

cephalosporins

116
Q

if a patient indicates they are taking isoniazid or rifampin only, they are likely taking the antibiotic as

A

preventive agent

117
Q

in general for patients with prostehtic joint implants

A

prophy. antibitoics are not recommended prior to dental procedures

118
Q

the current infective edocarditis heart disease the use of preventive antibiotics with

A 
prosthetic cardiac valves
history of infective endocarditis
cardiac transplant
unrepaired cynotic congenital heart disease
residual shunts
119
Q

suggested antibiotic regiment for dental prophylaxis

A

amoxicillin 2000 mg, 30 minutes to one hour prior to invasive proceudre

120
Q

if a patient is allergic to penicillin and needs dental prophy..

A

cephalexin (keflex)(2000 mg one hour before)
clindamycin (600 mg one houro before)
azithromycin (500 mg one hour before)
clarithromycin (500 mg one hour before)

121
Q

most frequently used in dentristy to tx fungal infections

A

nystatin

5 ml qid for 2 weeks

122
Q

what is fuconazole (diflucan)

A

antifungal meds
systemic

mycelex (clotrimazole)
nizoral (ketoconazole)

123
Q

patients with — allergies/ should not recieve an anesthetich with a vasoconstrictor

A

sulfite

124
Q

asthmatic patients who are given local anesthetic agents with a vasoconstrictor and sulfite need to be watched for

A

signs of wheezing and chest tightness

125
Q

inhibit the influx of sodium ions by competing with calcium for binding sites

A

local anesthetic agents

most commonly employed drugs in the dental office

126
Q

local anesthetic decrease the rate of depolarization

and effects small —- first, and the large heavily — fibers last

A

myelinated

127
Q

function is lost following administration of local anesthesia in this order

A 
autonomic
temp
pain
touch pressure
vibration 
motor
regain function in reverse order
128
Q

used primarily topically benzocaine

A

ester

other examples pricaine novicain
propoxycaine ravocaine
tetracaine pontocaine

129
Q

—- metabolized in the liver and — metabolized in the blood

A

ester

amide

130
Q

lidocaine (xylocaine)
mepivacaine (carbocaine)
prolocaine (citanest

A

amide

131
Q

lidocaine

A

2 percent with 1:100,000 epineprhine for medium duration

132
Q

which amide is safe in pregnancy and during lactation

A

lidocaine

133
Q

mrd for lidocaine is

A

300 mg

134
Q

not available topically
available with vaso or plain
shorter duration than lidocaine
mrd is 300 mg

A

mepivicaine (carbocaine)

135
Q

longer duration and lower epinephrine content (1:200,000) than lidocaine. Should not be used in patients with oxygenation problems

mrd is 400 mg

A

prilocaine *citanest, citanest forte

136
Q

—- administration is contraindicted for patients with methemoglobinemia

A

prilocaine

137
Q

longest duration

90 mg rmd

A

bupivicaine (marcaine)

138
Q

used in 4 percent solution with epinephrine 1:100,000 concentarion. has longer duration than prilocaine and shorter duration than marcaine
mrd is 500 mg

A

articane (septocaine)

139
Q

shortest duration is

A

mepivicaine

140
Q

vasoconstrictors are added to anesthetics to

A

prolong anesthetic action
reduce anesthetic toxicity
delays absorption
decrease bleeding

141
Q

what anesthetic agents are available without a vasoconstrictor

A

lidocaine
mepivicaine
citanest

142
Q

what two will always contain a vaso

A

articane and bupivicane

143
Q

max number of carpules containing 1:100,000 epinephrine allowed for a hypertensive patient

A

2

144
Q

for asa 1 or 2 patients limit epinephrine to — per appt

A

.2mg

145
Q

for asa 3 or 4 — is the max dose

A

.04

146
Q

mrd for epi in a healthy patient:

A

3mg/pound up to max 500 mg

147
Q

in a 2 percent anesthetic solution there is

A

36 mg of anesthetic

148
Q

benzocaine is an

A

ester

149
Q

— is a long acting barbiturate used in the tx of epilepsy

A

phenobarbitol

150
Q

barbiurates has no analgesic effect

A

board alert

151
Q

can be used for allaying apprehensions in fearful dental patients, most commonly used type of drug in the dental setting for this purpose

A 
benzodipines
example diazepam (valium)
lorazepam ativan
xanx alprazoloam 
tranxene
152
Q

what reverses status epileptiucus and seiure associated with local anesthetic overdose

A

benzodiazepines

153
Q

what works by raising pain threshold, has rapid onset and rapid recovery

A

nitrous oxide

154
Q

must be in place for removal of nitrous oxide leaked into the environment

A

scavenger systems

155
Q 
contraindictions for -------
COPD
URI includes stuffy nose
emotional behavioral instability
pregnancy first trimester
cystic fibrosis **
A

oxygen sedation

156
Q

nitrous oxide sedation maintains the patient in

A

stage 1 anesthesia

157
Q

– can be effective in reducing the orofacial muscle tonus in cerebral palsy patients during dental treatment

A

nitrous oxide

158
Q

long term recreational abuse of nitrous oxide can lead to

A

neurological symptoms similar to parkinsons

vitamin b 12 deficiency

159
Q

used to treat mood disorders such as bipolar. a total of 1164 drugs are known to interact with this including acetaminophen and ipbuprofren

A

lithium

160
Q

do not use epinephrine in patients taking

A

trycylic anti depressants

161
Q

considered effective for treating depression that is resistant to other drugs. Although cyclic antidepressants can be effective some people find their side effects difficult to tolerate (including risk of suicide)

A

tricylic antidepressants

162
Q

in addition to treating depression they are also used for treating parkinsons examples include rasagline (azilect) and seleginline (eldepryl, zelapar), buproprian (zyban)

A

MAOI’s

163
Q

buproprian (zyban) was originally prescribed as an antidepresssant however in 1997, the fda approved zyban as the first medication to help

A

people stop smoking

164
Q

although it is not clear exactly how buproprion works researchers do know that it blocks some of the chemicals in the brain that react with nicotine to increase the feel good component when a person smokes

A

true

165
Q

controls parital seizures and generalized tonic clonic seuzures. side effect gingival enlargement on the anterior facial region generally, increased hair

A

phenytoin dilantin

166
Q

first choice for parital generalized tonic clonic and mixed seizures, often used in the dental setting to treat trigeminal neuraligia

A

carbamazepine (tegretol)

167
Q

effective in short term tx of all seizures. used often in the emergency room to stop a seizure parituclarly status epilepticus which can occur following local anestheisa overdoze

A

benzodipines

diazepam (valium) lorazepam (ativan) and clonazepam (klonopin

168
Q

oldest epilepsy medicine still in use

used to treat most forms of seizures and is known for its effectiveness and low cost

A

phenobarbitol

169
Q

treating type 2 diabetes with medications

A

meformin (glucophage)

Glyburide

170
Q

long acting bronchodialotirs

A

salmeterol (serevent) and formoterol (foradill)

171
Q

is an oral medication used to treat chronic asthma and in the bronchospasm associated with emphysema and chronic bronchitis, ertythromycin can increase serum levels of theophylline and toxicity may result

A

theophylline

172
Q

what should be avoided in asthmatics

A

aspirin

173
Q

what can cause insomnia

A

albuterol

174
Q

rapidly alleviates an acute asthma attack when taken by inhalation but its rarely used as a bronchodialtor

A

isoproteerenol

175
Q

produces dilation of the bronchioles and improves airway function, useful as a bronchodialtor in the tx of asthma and for reversal of bronchospasm

A

metaproterenol (alpunet)

176
Q

most prevalant GI disease in the US
associated with failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to close properly which results in reflux of acid into the unprotected lining of the esophagus

A

GERD

177
Q

an imbalaance between mucosal defenses, low bicarbonate secretion, and elevated acid as well as pepsin lvels in the stomach

A

peptic ulcer disease

178
Q

the fining that —- —- infection may be associted with 80 to 90 percent of gastic ulcers was a milestone discovery in medicine. it is not associated with the developed of gerd though

A

helicobacter pylori

179
Q

—- is an alkalinizing agent that reduces stomach acid, commonly used antacid to treat heartburn acid ingestion and upset stomach

A

sodium bicarbonate (baking soda)

180
Q

people with heart failure on sodium restriction should avoid high sodium containing antacids

A

true

181
Q

people with kidney failure tend to have problems with ecetrolyte balance and aluminum toxicity —- should be used with caution

A

antacids

182
Q

most powerful meds available for treating gerd

A

ppis

183
Q

omeprazole (Prilosec)
Iansoprazole (Prevacid)
rabeprazole (aciphex)
esomeprazole (nexium)

A

Proton pump inhibitor

184
Q

the patient who lists tagamet on the health history is likely being treated for

A

gastric ulcers

185
Q

what does not cause gingival bleeding

A

gastric ulcerations

186
Q

erosion on the enamel on the lingual surfaces of the max anterior teeth are common in patients with

A

gast. reflux disease

187
Q

most common medications prescribed for osteoporosis treatment

A

bisphosphanates

188
Q

Alendronate (Fosamax)

A

biphosphonates

189
Q

— use is associated with heightened risk of osttenecrosis of the jaw and impaired wound healing

A

bisphosphonate

190
Q

acute myocardial infarction cannot be treated if it has been with in the last

A

3-6 months

191
Q

Diuretics
b- adrenergic blocking agents
CCB
Ace inhibitors

A

anti hypertension meds

192
Q

considered first line therapy for hypertension

works by promoting excretion of sodium and water which in turn decreases blood volume and pressure

A

diuretics

193
Q

what is the most commonly used thiazide

A

hydrochlorothiazide

194
Q

most common loop diruetic

A

furosemide (lasix)

195
Q

used in the management of hypertensive patients with congestive heart failure

A

furosemide (lasix)

196
Q

Propranolol

metaprolol

A

b adrenergic blocking agents

197
Q

avoid using —- in patients taking a nonspecific beta blocker such as propanolol

A

epi

198
Q

Gingival enlargement also occurs in

A

CCBS

199
Q

Cardizem *dilitizaem
norvasc *amlodipine
verapamil *isoptin
Nifedipine *procardia

A

CCB common

200
Q

— is lowered when these drugs block the conversion of angitension 1 to angiotension 2 causes vasodilation

A

blood pressure

201
Q

whats a fairly common oral side effect to ACE inhibitors

A

dysgeusia *altered taste sensation

202
Q

common ace inhibitors

A

Lisonorpil *prinivil, zestril
catopril *capoten
enalapril (vasotec)

203
Q

decrease the effectiveness of ace inhibitors

A

NSAIDS

204
Q

avoid —- — with ace inhibitors

A

postural hypotension

205
Q

most common type of drug used in treatment of congestive heart failure

A

Digitalis glycosides

digoxin lanoxin is most commonly used

206
Q

in combination with sympathomimetics (adrenergic agents) —- can lead to cariac arrythmias

A

digoxin

cautious with vaso for this reason!

207
Q

what increases digoxin levels in ten percent of patients

A

tetra and ertyhromycin

208
Q

drug of choice for acute angina

A

nitroglycerin

209
Q

what acts as a smooth muscle relaxant

A

nitroglycerin

210
Q

how is nitroglycerin generally given

A

sublingual to prevent angina attacts

211
Q

most common anticoagulant

A

warfarin (coumadin)

212
Q

the most serious drug interaction of warfarin is with

A

asprin (increases bleeding tendencies)

213
Q

what prevents the conversion the inactive vitamin k to active form

A

anticoagulant

214
Q

one of the most commonly employed anticoagulant agents in hopsitalized patients, given by injection only

A

heparin

215
Q

often used to prevent blood clots after a recent heart attack or stroke in people with certian disorders of the heart or blood vessels

A

PLAVIS (clopidogrel) BOARD

216
Q

class of drugs that lowers the level of cholesterol in the blood by reducing the production of cholesterol by the liver. Known as statin therapy

A

antihyperlipidemics

217
Q

atorvastitin *lipitor
lovastatin *mevacor, altoprev
rosuvastatin *crestor
simvastatin *zocor

A

antihyperlipidemics

218
Q

standard tx for hypothyroidism *hashimitos disease, involves daily use of the synthetic thyroid hormone —-

A

levothyroxine

219
Q

thyroid meds restores adquate hormone levels — ,—

A

T3 T4

220
Q

Hyperthyrodism

A

graves disease

221
Q

dilantin phenytoin
ccb
cyclosporine

A

gingival overgrowth

222
Q

anticougulatians, coumadin

aspirin

A

gingival bleeding

223
Q

anaphylaxis

A

epi

224
Q

adrenal crisis

A

hydrocortisone

225
Q

chest pain

A

nitroglycerin

226
Q

insulin shock hypoglycemia

A

oral carb/glucose

227
Q

management of seizure status

A

diazepam valium

228
Q

syncope

A

ammonia inhalent

229
Q

opiod overdose

A

naloxone

230
Q

most emergencies not hyperventilation or COPD

A

oxygen

231
Q

-cyclovir

A

antiviral

232
Q
  • azepam

- azolam

A

benzodi.

233
Q
  • statin
A

lipid lowering drugs regylgates blood cholesterol

234
Q

pril

A

ace

235
Q
  • sone

- lone

A

corticosteroids

236
Q

-prazole

A

PPI

237
Q

dilates pupils and bronchioles

A

sympathetic

238
Q

constricts pupils and bronchioles

A

para

239
Q

Which of the following local anesthetic agents may be useful in patients with hepatic dysfunction?

a. carbocaine
b. marcaine
c. xylocaine
d. articaine

A

d

240
Q

Diruetics are used in the treatment of hypertension. Which of the following is an example of a loop diuretic?

a. furosemide
b. indapamide
c. chlorthalidone
d. hydrochlorothiazide

A

a

241
Q

All of the following are drugs used to treat tb except one. What medicatin is the exception?

a. rifampin
b. isonizid
c. prednisone
d. ethambutol

A

c

242
Q

nitroglycerin works by

a. decreasing blood pressure
b. relieving neural pain
c. increasing vasoconstriction
d. relaxing arterial smooth muscle

A

d

243
Q

corticosteroid drugs are useful in treating many conditions such as autoimmune disorders, rashes, allergy, addisons disease and asthma. use of these steroidal meds can result in side effects such as

a. weight loss
b. hypertension
c. delayed wound healing
d. increased risk of infection

A

weight loss

244
Q

All of the following medications affects bleeding times except one. Which drug is the exception?

a. aspirin
b. xarelto
c. coumadin
d. acetaminophen

A

d

245
Q

Fosamex is often used as a medication to treat osteoporosis. What adverse oral side effect has been linked to fosamex use

A

jaw necrosis

246
Q

nitrous oxide is eliminated via

A

exhalation

247
Q

A patient presents for periodontal debridement in the upper left quad. Generalized erythema, edema, and bleeding on probing is noted in the area to be treated. What anesethetic considerataions should be anticipated?

a. increase dose of anesthethic agent
b. decreased need for vasoconstriction
c. avoidance of injectable anesthetic agents
d. use of nitrous oxide/oxygen is recommended

A

a

248
Q 
the primary site for drug metabolism is 
a. liver
b. sweat
c kidneys
d. gingival crevicular fluid
A

liver

249
Q

Your patient presents with peptic ulcer disease and is taking coumadin for stroke prevention. Which of the following analgelsic agents should you recommend following invasive procedures?

a. aspirin
b. ibuprofen
c. naproxen
d. acetaminophen

A

d

250
Q 
omeprazole is a medication primarily used in the tx of
A. gerd
b. hypertension
c. muscle spasm
d. high cholesterol
A

gerd

251
Q

which of the following meds can cause gingival hyperplasia

A

nifidipine

252
Q

how are latency and drug dose related

a. they are unrelated
b. drug dose increases with increased latency
c. latency is dependant on high dose infusion
d. the latent period varies inversely with dose

A

d

253
Q

an abnormal drug responce that is usually genetically related is termed

a. ididosyncratic reaction
b. teratogenic responce
c. potency efficiacy reaction
d. type 2 hypersensitivity reaction

A

a

254
Q

which route of drug administration is used to administer insulin

a. oral route
b. intravenous route
c. intramuscular route
d. sub route

A

d

255
Q

antibiotic steroids are classified as

a. schedule 1 drug
b. schedule 2
c. 4
d. 3

A

d

Board 2019 (12 decks)

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