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Board 2019 > microbiology and immunology > Flashcards

microbiology and immunology Flashcards

1
Q

gram positive stain

A

blue

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2
Q

gram negative stain

A

red

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3
Q

not all organisms are susceptible to gram staining and therefore require specific considerations

A

true

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4
Q

What is used when finding MTB mycobacterium

A

acid fast techniques

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5
Q

both syphilis and lyme disease are caused by /also associated with nup and nug

A

spirochetes

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6
Q

NUG/NUG

A

treponema denticola

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7
Q

what is required to identify spirochetes

A

dark field microscopy

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8
Q

lacking distinct shape

A

pleomorphic

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9
Q

bacteria can be classified based on

A

oxygen metabolism

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10
Q

what is highly reactive

A

molecular oxygen

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11
Q

must have oxygen source to survive

A

obligate aerobes

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12
Q

can grow in the absence of oxygen by using fermentation

A

facultative anerobes

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13
Q

most disease causing organism is

A

facultative anerobes

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14
Q

aerotolerant anaerobes

A

microaerophilic bacteria

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15
Q

cannot tolerate oxgen

can live in periodontal pockets and sulcus

A

obligate anerobes

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16
Q

microbes exhibit — distinct phases of growth

A

4

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17
Q

growth is slow at first as bacteria acclimate to their environment

A

lag phase

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18
Q

Cellular metabolic activity was NOT increased during the

A

lag phase

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19
Q

growth occurs exponentially

A

logarithimic (exponential) phase

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20
Q

what is the phase that microogranisms are most prone to breakdown by antimicrobial agents

A

log phase

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21
Q

no net increase or decrease in cell numbers as nutrients are used up and waste products build up

A

stationary phase

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22
Q

spherical gram positive cocci usually arranged in chains or pairs
microaerophilic
non mobile
all are catalase negative

A

streptoccous

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23
Q

streptococcus is divided into three groups

B A G

A

beta hemolytic
alpha hemolytic
gamma hemolytic

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24
Q

completely lyse red blood cells

A

beta hemolytic

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25
Q

facultative gram positive cocci
grows in chains
causes numerous infections in humans including pharyngitis strep throat tonsillitis scarlet fever and cellulitis

A

GAS

group a streptococcus or streptococcus pyogenes

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26
Q

highly communicable and primarly spread through person to person contact

A

gas

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27
Q

most of the viridian groups are

A

alpha hemolytic

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28
Q

normal inhabitants of the nasopharynx and gingival crevices

A

viridans group of streptococcus

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29
Q

some of the viridans group (especially strep mutans) which can bind to teeth by producing dextran polysaccharides in the presensce of sucrose can produce

A

acid and dental caries

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30
Q

strep mutans metabolize —— which creates an acidic environment which can demineralize enamel

A

lactic acid

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31
Q

sucrose is also used by strep mutans to produce

A

dextrans

all other sugars create lactic acid

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32
Q

what is not associated with periodontal disease

A

strep mutans

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33
Q

dental manipulations can release —– into the blood stream where they implant on the endocardial surface of the heart by producing extracellular glycan

A

streptococcus viridans

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34
Q

infections with -streptococcus viridans (especially streptococcus mitis) are causative for the majority of

A

endocarditis cases

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35
Q

principle commensal bacterium of the oral cavity
one of the first microbes to colonize an infants mouth
associated with the tongue

A

strep salivarius

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36
Q

has powerful arsenal of enzymatic and endotoxic weapons, spherical gram positive cocci arranged in grape like clusters, typical lesions are abcess

A

staphyloccous

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37
Q

significant endotoxins are coagulase and hylaurandize and major producer of proteins called leuocidins

A

staphylococcus aureus

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38
Q

what is the most resistant disease causing organism

A

MRSA

methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus

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39
Q

what are often the first antibiotic to be used in the treatment of MRSA

A

vancomycin and bactrim

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40
Q

advanced carious lesion

A

lactobacillius

gram positive rod

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41
Q

one of the most commonly used probitotics

A

lactobacillus acidophilus

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42
Q

lump jaw

A

actinomyces israelii

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43
Q 
gram negative rod
obligate anerobe
pregnancy related gingivitis
isolated from pericoronitis
implicated in nup/nug
A

prevotella intermedia

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44
Q

major player in perio disease and gram negative obligate anerobe

A

porpyromanas gingivallis

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45
Q

idea treatment option in perio disease because of anti collagense properties

A

tetra

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46
Q

posses surface fimbrae which allow the bacteria to adhere to epithelial and tooth surfaces, also produces collagenese

A

porp. gingivalis

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47
Q

of the 11 species that colonize humans only two are pathogens. Neisseria menigtidis and neisseria gonorrhoae

A

true

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48
Q

is stimulated by the presence of female sex hormones inplicated in pregnancy gingivitis

A

camphylobacter rectus

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49
Q

many studies have proven with conviction that the presence of both streptococcus mutans and lactobacillius are predictive of the development of root surface lesions

A

true

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50
Q

research had associated —– with root caries in the past but findings suggest that it plays a limited role at bet

A

actinomyces viscous

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51
Q

most fungi are

A

obligate aerobes

NEED OXYGEN

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52
Q

typically fungi kill other cells and absorb

A

nutrients

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53
Q

Normal flora of skin and mucous membranes suppress

A

fungi

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54
Q

fungi are

A

eukaryotic

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55
Q

bacteria are

A

prokaryotic

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56
Q

will kill most bacteria but is ineffective against fungal organisms

A

antibiotic therapy

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57
Q

when a person is taking antibioitics fungal organisms are unaffected and often overtake the hosts ability to suppress fungal infections

A

true

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58
Q

most common fungus encountered in the dental setting

A

candida albicans

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59
Q

superficial candidasis appears as

A

thrush

60
Q

systemic infection of candida may involve lungs kidneys heart and

A

espophagous

61
Q

treatment of candida albicans

A

topical nystatin and clotrimazole

systemic tx ketoconazole and fluconazole

62
Q

helical or icosahedral

A

a symmetrical structure with 20 faces in shape

63
Q

to move the info contained in dna to the host cells cytoplasm where protein synthesis and viral replication takes place

A

role of mRNA

64
Q

primary function of mRNA

A

Translation

65
Q

Transcription is from

A

DNA to RNA

66
Q

Once a host cell has been infected by a virus, there are four possible outcomes

A

1 death
2 transformation
3. latent infection
4 chronic slow infections

67
Q

classes of viruses are based on

A

RNA or DNA never both

68
Q

HIV is an example of

A

RNA

69
Q

Hep a c d e influenza virus mumps measles

A

RNA

70
Q

epstein bar virus, HPV, Herpes simplex 1 and 2, varcella zoster is an example of

A

dna

71
Q

dna has

A

positve and negative strands

72
Q

rna has

A

either positive or negative not both

73
Q

primary function of mRNA was

A

translation

74
Q

transcription is from

A

dna to rna

75
Q

true/false
once a host cell has been infected by a virus, there are four possible outcomes
death, transformation, latent infection, chronic slow infections

A

true

76
Q

true/false

RNA viruses must provide RNA dependent polymerases (replicase and transcriptase) because host cell cannot replicated RNA

A

true

77
Q

examples of RNA viruses include

hep a, c, d,e influenza virus, mumps, measles and

A

HIV

78
Q

what cannot be translated into proteins until it is transcribed into mRNA

A

DNA virus

79
Q

examples of dna viruses include

hep b, small pox, human papillioma virus, herpes simples 1 and 2. and

A

Epstein bar virus

80
Q

HBeAG

A

high infectivity and active infection

81
Q

anti- HBsAg

A

no active disease, immune

82
Q

HBsAg

A

disease (acute or chronic)

83
Q

hep b vaccine is an example of

A

artificial acquired active immunity

84
Q

gamma globulin is an example of

A

passive immnunity

85
Q

HPV 16 linked to oropharyngeal —

A

malignancy

86
Q

how many types of herpes virus are there

A

8

87
Q

varicella zoster virus
Epstein barr virus
kaposis sarcoma herpesvirus

A

herpes virus

88
Q

varcellla zoster virus causes

A

chicken pox

89
Q

the Epstein bar virus is the causative organism for —– —– and may also be implicated in malignancies such as nasopharyngeal carcinoma and burkitts lymphoma

A

infectious mononucleosis

90
Q

epv implicated in

A

oral hairy leukoplakia

91
Q

herpes virus is the causative organism for

A

Epstein barr infections

92
Q

associated with aids

A

Kaposi sarcoma herpesvirus

93
Q

causative organism for herpangina

A

coxsackie virus

94
Q

what is the immune system made up of

A

leukocytes

95
Q

where are leukocytes produced

A

in the bone marrow

96
Q

the first line of defense that the immune system relies on is

A

physical barriers

example skin

97
Q

what is the second line of defense involving the immune responce

A

innate or “natural”

98
Q

acute inflamtion is a —- response characterized by edema, redness, and pain

A

vascular

99
Q

neutrophils are

A

phagocytes

100
Q

process of —– allows PMNS to sqeeze through endothelials cells to relocate into connective tissue

A

diapedesis

101
Q

when something is wrong with neutrophil functions what results

A

periodontal disease

102
Q

what are responsible for transporting and processing antigens

A

macrophages

103
Q

—- — cells are a group of white blood cells that destroy tumor cells and virally infected cells

A

natural killers cells

104
Q

Natural killer cells are not phagocytes

A

true

105
Q

—- cells are common at sites in the body that are exposed to the external environment and are found in close proximity to blood vessels

A

mast cells

106
Q

what two antibodies are capable of activating the complement system

A

IgG

IgM

107
Q

when a cell becomes infected with a virus the host cell secretes a group of proteins called

A

interferons

108
Q

defense against infections, mycobacterium tuberculosis, viral, and fungal. Delayed hypsersensitivity

A

t cells

cellular immunity

109
Q

allergic response example hay fever

A

humoral immunity

b cells and plasma cells

110
Q

the precursors of t lymphocytes arise in the — —- and eventually migrate to the thymus to mature

A

bone marrow

111
Q

during the maturation phase, t cells develop specific receptors that allow them to differentiate into two main types of t lymphocytes

A

t helper cells and t cytotoxic cells

112
Q

cd4=

A

helper t

113
Q

these cells kill virus infected cells without the help of other cells, also capable of killing tumor infected cells

A

cytotoxic t cells

114
Q

main players in humoral immunity

A

B cell

115
Q

most abundant antibody only one to be able to cross the placental barrier

A

IgG

116
Q

which antibody is the most efficeient in agglutination

A

IGM

117
Q

most active antibody in response to allergens, binds to mast cells and basophils

A

IgE

118
Q

main immunoglobulin in secretions SALIVA

A

IgA

119
Q

allergic reaction that appears very quickly after exposure to a previously encountered allergen

A

type 1 anaphylactic

120
Q

are the most likely antibiotic class to produce anaphylaction reaction

A

penicillin

121
Q

type — blood results in the formation of anti AB antibodies

A

0

122
Q

Hypersensitivity reaction types

A

type 1- anaphylactic reaction
type 2- cytotoxic reaction
type 3- immune complex reaction
type 4- cell mediated or delayed reaction

123
Q

common example are the Mantoux skin test

A

type 4 cell mediated reaction

124
Q

scleroderma is an example of

A

an autoimmune disorder

125
Q

scleroderma is associated with

A

raynauds phenomenon and generalized widening of the periodontal ligament space

126
Q

what type of hepatitis is a dental hygienist least likely to get

A

hep e

127
Q

in plaque biofilm what makes up the bulk of deposits

a. bacteria
b. cytokines
c. acquired pellicle
d. exopolysaccharides

A

expo

128
Q 
which is the first antibody to be produced after birth?
a. IgG
b. IgA
c, IgM
d. IgE
A

IgM

129
Q

which blood type can be given to all individuals

A

0 negative

130
Q

which of the following organisms is causative for strep throat pharyngitis and scarlett fever

A

step. pyogenes

131
Q

which microorganism can be encapsulated with a polysaccharide layer?

a. actinomyces israellil
b. Neisseria menigtidis
c. staphylococcus aureus
d. streptococcus pneumoniae

A

d.

132
Q

the complement system aids in the immune response by

a. creating antibodies
b. increasing vasodialation
c. decreasing inflammation
d. increasing lysis and opsonization

A

d.

133
Q

in characterizing gram + organisms which of the following characterizes the cell wall structures of these bacteria?

A

thick 2 layer cell wall structure that stains blue on examination

134
Q

which microscopic technique must be employed to identify mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

acid fast staining

135
Q

at what stage of bacterial growth are organisms MOST susceptible to antimicrobial growth?

a. lag phase
b. death phase
c. stationary phase
d. logarithimic phase

A

d

136
Q

which bacteria is an early colonizer that is associated with the tongue?

a. step mitis
b. strep sobrinus
c. strep salivarius
d. step sanguinis

A

c

137
Q

which characteristics are associated with porphyromonas gingivalis?

a. gram - bacillius, aciduirc stains blue
b. gram + aerobe produces collagenase
c. gram- rod obligate anerobe surface fimbrae
d. gram-cocci aerotolerant anerobe stains red

A

c

138
Q

all of the following are RNA viruses except one. which is the exception

a. hiv
b. mumps
c. hep a
d. Epstein barr

A

d

139
Q

which of the following viruses has been linked to a heightened risk of oropharyngeal cancer?

a. coxsackie virus
b. cytomegalovirus
c. varicella zoster virus
d. hpv

A

d

140
Q

a positive Mantoux skin test is an ex. of

a. allergic dermatitis
b. tuberculosis diagnoses
c. antibody mediated reaction
d. cell mediated hypersensitivity reaction

A

d

141
Q

all of the following are characterisitcs of autoimmune disorders except one.

a. early onset
b. multifactorial
c. antibody mediated
d. more common in females

A

a

142
Q

which immune cell is most active in cellular immunity

a. t cell
b. b cell
c. plasma cell
d. macrophage

A

a

143
Q

allergies to pollen is an example of

a. iga stimulation
b. mast cell inactivity
c. humoral immunity
d. primarily dependent on t cells

A

c

144
Q

a virion is

a. viral envelope
b. complete virus
c. cytoplasmic enclosure
d. remnant of a virus used in diagnostic tests

A

a complete virus

145
Q 
the shape of most viruses is
a. rod like
b spherical
c. icosahedral
pleomorphic
A

c

Board 2019 (12 decks)

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