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Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

Define pharmacokinetics

A

Study of drug movement in the body/ effect of body on the drug

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2
Q

Define side effects

A

Unwanted effects of the therapeutic doses

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3
Q

Define agonist vs antagonist

A

Agonist: have affinity and maximal efficacy
Antagonist: have affinity and no maximal efficacy

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4
Q

Define clearance

A

Measure of the body’s ability to excrete the drug

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5
Q

Optimal effect exerted over narrow range of plasma drug concentration is …..

A

Therapeutic window phenomenon

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6
Q

Define drug efficacy vs drug potency

A

Drug efficacy: maximal effect that a drug may elicit

Drug potency : amount of drug required to produce a certain response

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7
Q

Define bioavailability

A

Fraction of the drug that reaches the blood.

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8
Q

Microsomal enzyme inducers (3)

A

Phenytoin
Phenobarbitone
Rifampicin

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9
Q

Drugs showing high first pass metabolism are (3)

A

Lignocaine
Propranolol
Salbutamol

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10
Q

Define first pass elimination

A

Metabolism of drug in liver,intestine/portal blood. + Excretion of drug into bile

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11
Q

T1/2 can determine (4)

A

Elimination time
Steady state plasma conc
Dosing rate
Maintainance dose

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12
Q

Egs of prodrugs (4)

A

Enalapril
Sulindac
Ticlopidine
Clopidogrel

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13
Q

Difference between zero order and first order kinetics

A

Zero order First order
1. Constant amount Constant fraction
2. t1/2 variable t1/2 constant
3. Rate of elimination Rate of elimination
independent dependent

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14
Q

Phases of clinical trials and it’s determination

A

Phase 1: Human pharmacology & safety
Phase 2: Efficacy, dose ranging.
Phase 3: therapeutic confirming
Phase 4: post marketing surveillance

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15
Q

Drugs causing osteoporosis (2)

A
  1. Steroid
  2. Heparin
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16
Q

Drugs with low safety margin (3)

A

Lithium
Aminoglycosides
Digoxin

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17
Q

Drugs causing hirsuitism (2)

A

Minoxidil
Phenytoin

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18
Q

Drugs causing extra pyramidal side effects (2)

A

Haloperidol
Levodopa

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19
Q

Hemolysis in G6PD deficiency caused by …(4)

A

Dapsone
Primaquine
Sulfonamides
Nitrofurantoin

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20
Q

Drug deposited in retina

Drug deposited in muscle

A

Chloroquine

Digoxin

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21
Q

Drugs causing hepatitis (4)

A

Halothane
Rifampin
INH
Pyrazinamide

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22
Q

Drugs causing intrahepatic cholestasis (2)

A

Phenothiazines
TCA

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23
Q

Egs of hepatotoxins (2)

A

CCL4
Paracetamol

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24
Q

Drug metabolised in liver (4)

A

Phenytoin
Erythromycin
Cimetidine
Diazepam

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25
Q

Drug metabolised in kidney

A

Penicillin G

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26
Q

Duration of action of a drug administered iv depends upon (5)

A
  1. Protein binding
  2. Clearance
  3. Distribution volume
  4. Lipid solubility
  5. Drug concentration
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27
Q

Effect of displacement of protein bound drug

A

Raises plasma level of that drug

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28
Q

Drug binding sites on protein are :

A

Non-specific- one drug can displace the other

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29
Q

Drugs bound to albumin (2)

A

Phenytoin
Warfarin

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30
Q

Phase 2 of drug metabolism involves (3)

A

Conjugation with glucoronide, sulfate, glutathione

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31
Q

Ach as a molecule can’t be used because

Uses of neostigmine/pyridostigmine (3)

A

It is rapidly degraded

Urinary retention
Ileus
Reversal of Nm blockade

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32
Q

Pupil in organophosphate poisoning

Rx for organophosphate poisoning

A

Pin point

Atropine + pralidoxime

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33
Q

Use of atropine (3)

A
  1. Rx of bradyarrhythmias
  2. Early mushroom poisoning
  3. Organophosphate poisoning
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34
Q

Alpha 1 agonist egs (2)

A

Phenylephrine
Methoxamine

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35
Q

Alpha 2 blockers

A

Yohimbine
Mirtazapine

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36
Q

Egs of beta agonists

A

Isoproteronol ( beta 1= beta 2)
Dobutamine (beta 1> beta 2)

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37
Q

Egs of beta 2 agonist (3)

A
  1. Salmeterol
  2. Terbutaline
  3. Ritodrine
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38
Q

Timolol is c/i for …..(2)

A

Heart block
Asthma

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39
Q

Shortest acting beta blocker

A

Esmolol

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40
Q

Egs of 5HT 1 A and 5HT 1 B agonist

A

5HT 1A agonist : Buspirone

5HT 1B agonist : sumatriptan

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41
Q

Eg of 5HT 4 agonist.

Egs of 5 HT 2A antagonist (2)

A

Cisapride

Cyproheptadine
Ketanserin

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42
Q

Egs of 5HT 2A/2C antagonist

Egs of 5HT 3 antagonist

A

Clozapine

Ondansetron

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43
Q

2 roles of PG

A

Cytoprotective for stomach
Contract uterus

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44
Q

Rx for NSAID induced ulcer

Thromboxane is a …….

A

Misoprostol

Platelet aggregator

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45
Q

Uses of alprostadil (2)

A

PGE1
Causes vasodilation
Useful in erectile dysfunction

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46
Q

Uses of dinoprostone (3)

A

PGE 2
Contraction of uterus
Abortificant
Cervical ripening

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47
Q

Eg of irreversible COX inhibitor

Egs of selective COX 2 inhibitor
They lack ……

A

Aspirin

Lumiracoxib
Valdecoxib
They lack anti platelet action

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48
Q

Nimesulide and diclofenac are …..COX inhibitors

A

Preferential COX 2 inhibitor

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49
Q

NSAID with good tissue perfusion

NSAID with good conc in synovial fluid

A

Ketorolac

Diclofenac

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50
Q

Non narcotic non steroidal drug is ….
Acts on ….

A

Ketorolac
Opioid receptors

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51
Q

Indapamide is a …….drug
Side effects of the above . (2)

A

Thiazide diuretic drug

Hyperglycaemia
Hypercalcemia

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52
Q

Important feature of thiazides

A

Used in rx of hypercalciuria, but they themselves cause hypercalcemia and renal calculi

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53
Q

Furosemide is a …….derivative

Side effects of furosemide (3)

A

Sulfamoyl derivative

  1. Hyperuricemia
  2. Hypocalcemia
  3. Hyperlipidemia
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54
Q

Spironolactone antagonises ……

A

Sodium retaining effect of aldosterone

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55
Q

Active metabolite of spironolactone is …..

A

Caneronone

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56
Q

MOA of mannitol

A

Increases ECF and renal blood flow especially to medulla

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57
Q

C/I of mannitol (3)

A
  1. Acute tubular necrosis
  2. Anuria
  3. Pulmonary Edema
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58
Q

Effect of metformin on glucose metabolism (2)

A
  1. Increased glycolysis
  2. Decrease gluconeogenesis
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59
Q

Special feature of metformin (2)

A

Does not cause weight gain, hence used in obesity
Obesity is not a c/I

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60
Q

Egs of alpha glucosidase inhibitor (2)

A

Acarbose
Miglitol

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61
Q

MOA of Acarbose , miglitol (2)

A
  1. Reduces fibrinogen level
  2. Decrease progression of impaired glucose tolerance to overt disease
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62
Q

Special feature of Acarbose,miglitol

A

Do not cause hypoglycemia

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63
Q

Features of tolbutamide (3)

A

It’s a sulfonylureas
Causes hypoglycemia that is
Severe
Prolonged for days
Fatal - elderly and heart failure

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64
Q

Effect of pioglitazone (2)

A

Acts by binding to PPARS
Increases insulin sensitivity

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65
Q

t1/2 of insulin

Difference of human and pork insulin

A

5 minutes

Differs by 1 amino acid

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66
Q

Humulin is ……

A

Human insulin

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67
Q

Max mineralocorticoid activity shown by ….
Max glucocorticoid activity shown by ….

A
  1. Aldosterone
  2. Dexamethasone
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68
Q

Androgen receptor blocker:

Anti-estrogen drug

A

Cyproterone

Clomiphene

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69
Q

Tamoxifen decreases……

Agents used for ca breast (3)

A

FSH

  1. Tamoxifen
  2. Exemastine
  3. Letrozole
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70
Q

S/E of danazol (3)

A
  1. Acne
  2. Weight gain
  3. Occasionally hot flashes
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71
Q

Flutamide and nilutamide are …..

Use of flutamide

A

Antiandrogens

Metastatic prostate cancer along with GNRH analogues

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72
Q

MOA of theophylline and doxofylline (5)

A
  1. Inhibit PDE4
  2. Increase CAMP conc
  3. Blocks adenosine receptors
  4. Beta 2 agonist
  5. Stimulator of mucociliary movement
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73
Q

Factors decreasing theophylline levels (2)

A
  1. Smoking
  2. Enzyme inducers
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74
Q

Factors increasing plasma levels of theophylline (3)

A
  1. Erythromycin
  2. Ciprofloxacin
  3. Cimetidine
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75
Q

MOA of monteleukast (2)

A
  1. CysLT1 receptor antagonist
  2. Blocks action of leukotriene D4 on cysLT1 receptor in lungs
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76
Q

Uses of monteleukast (3)

A
  1. Used in maintenance therapy of asthma
  2. Relief of seasonal allergies
  3. Not used in acute attacks
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77
Q

Steroid in asthma
Act by ….(3)

A

No role in acute attacks/ status asthmaticus
1. Anti I.F / reduce airway I.F
2. Increase lipocortin levels
3. Blocks phospholipid breakdown

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78
Q

Commonly used steroids in asthma (3)

A
  1. Budesonide
  2. Triamcinolone
  3. Fluticasone
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79
Q

S/E of parenteral steroid

Zafirlukast is taken …..

A

Posterior subcapsular cataract

Once daily

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80
Q

Egs of anticholinergic bronchodilators (2)

A

Ipratropium
Tiotropium

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81
Q

Drugs which inhibit cross linking (transpeptidases) and impair cell wall synthesis (5)

A
  1. Penicillin
  2. Cephalosporins
  3. Vancomycin
  4. Imipenem
  5. Aztreonam
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82
Q

Drugs binding to 30S ribosomal units and inhibiting protein synthesis (2)

A
  1. Streptomycin
  2. Tetracycline
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83
Q

MOA of trimethoprim

A

Inhibit nucleotide synthesis of tetrahydrofolate

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84
Q

Penicillinase resistant drug is ….(2)

A

Methicillin (acid labile )
Cloxacillin

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85
Q

Quinupristin/dalfopristin are ……
(Bactericidal/bacteriostatic)

Used in …..

A

Bacteriostatic

Vancomycin resistant enterococcus fecalis

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86
Q

Imipenem is inhibited by ……

A

Dihydropeptidase

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87
Q

Special feature of aztreonam

A

Can be safely given to patients allergic to penicillin and related group of drugs - coz they lack cross reactivity

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88
Q

Egs of glycopeptide antibiotics (2)

A

Vancomycin
Teicoplanin

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89
Q

S/E of vancomycin

DOC for MRSA infection

A

Red man syndrome

Metronidazole 1st
Vancomycin 2nd

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90
Q

Drug used to rx pseudomembranous colitis

Cefoperazone has ……activity

A

Vancomycin

Antipseudomonal activity

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91
Q

Azithromycin is effective against (4)

A
  1. Chlamydia
  2. Mycoplasma
  3. Ureaplasma
  4. Legionella
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92
Q

Macrolides cause GIT distress why?

Drug used for penicillin allergies

A

Coz they stimulate motilin receptors

Erythromycin

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93
Q

Complications arising from outdated tetracycline

S/E of doxycycline

A

Fanconi’s syndrome

Photodermatitis

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94
Q

Tetracycline causing hyperpigmentation

A

Minocycline

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95
Q

S/E of tetracycline (3)

A
  1. Teratogenic
  2. Superinfection
  3. Tooth discoloration
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96
Q

MOA of chloramphenicol

MOA of clindamycin

A

Bind to 50S subunit
Block elongation of peptide chain

Bind to 50S subunit and inhibit protein synthesis

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97
Q

MOA of aminoglycosides (3)

A
  1. Inhibit translation
  2. Bactericidal
  3. Distribution only extracellular
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98
Q

Streptomycin is used in …..

S/E of aminoglycosides

A

Plague/tularemia

  1. Teratogenic
  2. Ototoxic
  3. Vestibulotoxic
  4. Nephrotoxic
  5. Causes Nm blockage- should not be used for rx of myasthenia gravis
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99
Q

Framycetin, sisomycin belong to …

One of the most resistant aminoglycosides to bacterial inactivating enzyme is ….

A

Aminoglycosides

Amikacin

100
Q

Longest acting quinolone is …..

Most phototoxic quinolone is ….

A

Sparfloxacin

Sparfloxacin

101
Q

Quinolone should be avoided in …..

A

Children -causes arthropathy

102
Q
  1. DOC in cholera
  2. DOC for toxoplasmosis
A
  1. Doxycycline
  2. Sulfamethoxazole + pyrimethamine
103
Q

DOC in MRSA

DOC in syphilis

A

Vancomycin

Penicillin G

104
Q

DOC in legionella

DOC in LGV

A

Azithromycin/ levofloxacin

Azithromycin

105
Q

DOC in gonorrhoea

DOC in P. Carinii

A

Ceftriaxone

Co-trimoxazole

106
Q

DOC in Actinomycosis

DOC in plague

A
  1. Penicillin G

2 streptomycin

107
Q

DOC in kala azar

A

Sodium stibogluconate

108
Q

Chemoprophylactic agent for cholera

Chemoprophylactic agent for rheumatic fever

A

Tetracycline

Benzathine penicillin

109
Q

Prophylaxis for streptococci

Prophylaxis for neisseria meningitis

A

Penicillin

Rifampicin/ ciplox

110
Q

Prophylaxis for clostridium perfringens

Prophylaxis for clostridium tetani

A

Metronidazole

Penicillin

111
Q

Prophylaxis for yersinia pestis- plague is ….

Prophylaxis for bordetella pertusis is …

A

Tetracycline/ cotrimoxazole

Erythromycin

112
Q

Mycobacterium TB prophylaxis

Prophylaxis for leptospirosis

A

INH+ rifampicin

Doxycycline

113
Q

Drug used for chloroquine resistant malaria

Drug for chloroquine resistant p falciparum and p vivax

A

Mefloquine

Halofantrine

114
Q

S/E of chloroquine (5)

A
  1. Retinal toxicity
  2. Corneal deposits
  3. Blurred vision
  4. Pigmentary bulls eye retinopathy
  5. Myopathy
115
Q

Primaquine is effective for

Primaquine is ineffective against …

A

Radical cure of P.vivax

P.falciparum

116
Q

S/E of primaquine

Lumefantrine and pyronaridine are …..

A

Hemolysis in G6PD

Anti malarial

117
Q

DOC for cerebral malaria

A

Artesunate 1st
Quinine 2nd

118
Q

S/E of quinine

Special feature of quinine

A

Hypoglycemia

Safe in pregnancy

119
Q

MOA of ketoconazole (2)

A

Impairs ergosterol synthesis
Inhibit lanosterol 14 demethylase

120
Q

How is amphotericin B given

Parenteral amphotericin B is indicated in rx of ….(2)

A

Iv with glucose solution

Cryptococcal and fungal septicaemia

121
Q

Structurally ido xuridine is …(2)

A
  1. Thymidine analogue
  2. Cannot be given orally
122
Q

Efavirenz belongs to ….group

Eg of protease inhibitor (2)

A

NNRTI

Saquinavir
Nelfinavir

123
Q

Peripheral neuropathy is commoner with (3)

A
  1. Stavudine
  2. Didanosine
  3. Zalcitabine
124
Q

S/E of zidovudine (2)

A
  1. Myelosuppression
  2. Megaloblastic anemia
125
Q

Tuberculocidal antiTb drugs (4)

A

INH
Rifampicin
Pyrazinamide
Streptomycin

126
Q

MOA of INH

S/E of INH (2)

A

Inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

  1. Peripheral neuritis- slow acetylator
  2. Hepatotoxicity -common in elderly,alcoholics
127
Q

AntiTb with max resistant in India

Special feature of INH (2)

A

INH

  1. Bacteriostatic against resting bacilli
  2. Bacteriocidal against rapidly multiplying org- both intra and extra cellular.
128
Q

INH associated hepatitis is more with …(3)

A
  1. Daily alcohol consumption
  2. Concomitant rifampin administration
  3. Slow INH acetylator
129
Q

Rex of INH induced peripheral neuritis

A

100mg pyridoxine OD with INH

130
Q

Syndromes associated with rifampicin (4)

A
  1. Respiratory syndrome
  2. Cutaneous syndrome
  3. Flu like syndrome
  4. Abdominal syndrome
131
Q

S/e of pyrazinamide (3)

A
  1. Hepatotoxic
  2. Hyperuricemia
  3. Hyperglycaemia
132
Q

Pyrazinamide is used for …..
MOA

A

Short course therapy of TB
MOA: ~INH -inhibits mycolic acid cell wall synthesis but intracellular action

133
Q

Special features of pyrazinamide

Most potent drug against M leprae

A

Levels of CSF are high

Rifampicin

134
Q

S/E of clofazimine (2)

A
  1. Reddish black discolouration of skin
  2. Acneform eruptions
135
Q

DOC for leprosy , s/e

A

Dapsone
Hemolysis in G6PD

136
Q

DOC for cysticercosis

A

Praziquantel

137
Q

Benefits of losartan over ACEI

Beta blockers are used in …(3)

A

Does not cause cough/ angioedema

  1. Angina
  2. Migraine prophylaxis
  3. HTN
138
Q

ACEI cause cough because of ……

C/I of ACEI (3)

A

Bradykinin

  1. B/L renal artery stenosis
  2. Pregnancy
  3. Pheochromocytoma
139
Q

DOC for malignant HTN. Why is it given?

A

Nitroprusside as it dilates both arterioles and veins

140
Q

Special feature of nitroprusside (3)

A
  1. Increase guanylate cyclase
  2. No central effects
  3. Raised NO level with nitrates + hydralazine coadministration
141
Q

Special feature of diazoxide

Special feature of hydralazine

A

Inhibits labor

Causes drug induced lupus

142
Q

Doc for HTN crisis in pregnancy

Drugs ass with torsades de pointes (3)

A

Hydralazine

  1. Quinidine
  2. Cisapride
  3. Procainamide
143
Q

Class of antiarrythmics:
1. Lignocaine
2. Potassium channel blockers

A
  1. Class 1B
  2. Class 3.
144
Q

DOC for
1. Ventricular arrhythmias
2. PSVT
3. WPW syndrome

A
  1. Lidocaine
  2. Adenosine
  3. Procainamide
145
Q

DOC Acute heart failure

Special feature of nisertide (2)

A
  1. Furosemide
  2. Recombinant BNP
  3. Has shorter t1/2
146
Q

Therapeutic level of digoxin

Toxicity of digoxin is ….

A

0.5-1.5ng/ml

More than 2.4 ng/ml

147
Q

MOA of digoxin (2)

A
  1. Increase Na/K + ATPase
  2. Increase ventricular contractile force
148
Q

Route of excretion of digoxin

C/I of digoxin

A

Kidney

HOCM

149
Q

Digoxin toxicity consists of …(2)

A
  1. Hypokalemia
  2. Hypomagnesemia
150
Q

Effects of nitrates on CVS physiology (2)

A
  1. Decreases preload and afterload
  2. Decrease myocardial oxygen consumption
151
Q

S/E of nitrates (2)

A
  1. Reflex tachycardia
  2. Hypotension
152
Q

Long acting nitrates are not used chronically because…..

A

Tolerance develops - due to -SH groups

153
Q

MOA of niacin (2).

A
  1. Raises HDL
  2. Lowers TG and LDL levels
154
Q

MOA of bile acid sequestrants (2)

A
  1. Decrease bile acid absorption
  2. Increase hepatic conversion of cholesterol to bile acids
155
Q

MOA of gemfibrozil (2)

A

Fibric acid derivative
1. Increase activity of LPL
2. Decrease release of fatty acid from adipose tissue

156
Q

MOA of Nicotinic acid (2)

A
  1. Decrease VLDL production
  2. Decrease lipolysis in Adipocytes
157
Q

Ulcer protective drug is …..

Use of cetumixab

A

Sucralfate

For EGFR positive CRC ( as a single agent)

158
Q

Use of trastuzumab

Drug used in GIST

A

Breast cancer

Imatinib ( TK inhibitor)

159
Q

Structurally, heparin is a …..

S/E of heparin (2)

A

Polysaccharide

  1. Osteoporosis
  2. Hyperkalemia
160
Q

Warfarin inhibits …..

Warfarin induced skin necrosis is due to ….

A

Vit K dependent factors 2,7,9,10

Protein kinase C deficiency

161
Q

Drugs used in acute gout (3)

Drug used in chronic gout …

A

NSAIDS
Colchicine
Steroids

Allopurinol

162
Q

Uricosuric drugs are (2)

A

Probenecid
Sulfinpyrazone

163
Q

MOA of colchicine (2)

A
  1. Inhibits microtubule polymerization
  2. Stabilizes tubulin in microtubules
164
Q

Special feature of colchicine

A

Neither analgesic nor anti I.F

165
Q

Mc S/E of colchicine

Second generation TCA

Clomipramine is …..

A

Bloody diarrhoea

Maprotiline

TCA

166
Q

S/E of amiodarone (3)

A
  1. Pulmonary fibrosis
  2. Hyperuricemia
  3. Hypo/hyperthyroidism
167
Q

Akathesia is commonly caused by …..rx…

A

Caused by haloperidol
Rx propanolol

168
Q

Early feature of TCA overdose

A

Anticholinergic symptoms (4)
Dry mouth
Dilated pupils
Sinus tachy
Blurred vision

169
Q

Extrapyramidal s/e are rare with …..

What are the EPS ?

A

Clozapine

Parkinsonism
Akathesia
Tardive dyskinesia
Acute dystonia

170
Q

Apart from epilepsy, carbamazepine is also indicated in …(3)

A
  1. Maniac psychosis
  2. Trigeminal neuralgia
  3. Atypical pain syndrome
171
Q

S/E of carbamazepine

A

Increased ADH secretion—> hyponatremia

172
Q

Prolonged sodium channel inactivation is MOA of …..(4)

A
  1. Phenytoin
  2. Carbamazepine
  3. Lamotrigine
  4. Valproate
173
Q

Facilitation of GABA mediated chloride channel opening is by ……(5)

A

Barbiturates
BZP
Vigabatrin
Gabapentin
Valproate

174
Q

Inhibition of T-type calcium channel (3)

A
  1. Ethosuximide
  2. Trimethadione
  3. Valproate
175
Q

Eg of dopamine agonists

Eg of COMT inhibitor

A

Bromocriptine

Tolcapone

176
Q

DOC for myoclonic epilepsy

DOC for partial seizure

A

Valproate

Carbamazepine

177
Q

MOA of cyclosporine

A

Decrease IL-2 release —> decrease in clonal proliferation of T cells

178
Q

Cyclosporine acts on ……

S/E of cyclosporine (5)

A

CD4 T cells

  1. Nephrotoxicity
  2. HTN
  3. Hyperkalemia
  4. Hypertricosis
  5. Tremors
179
Q

MOA of tacrolimus
Tacrolimus belongs to ……antibiotic

A

Inhibit IL-2 release
Macrolides

180
Q

Use of tacrolimus

S/e of tacrolimus (2)

A

Organ transplant

Nephrotoxicity
Glucose intolerance

181
Q

Uses of Octreotide (2)

A
  1. Variceal/ esophageal bleeding
  2. AIDS patients with secretary diarrhea who failed to respond to antimicrobial or antimotility agents
182
Q

DOC in thyroid storm

T 1/2 of propylthiouracil

A

Propylthiouracil

1-2 hrs

183
Q

Indications of bromocriptine (3)

A
  1. Indicated in galactorrhoea and infertility due to Hyperprolactinemia
  2. In acromegaly
  3. Idiopathic/post encephalitic parkinsonism - along with levodopa/carbidopa
184
Q

DOC for legionnaires disease

A

Erythromycin

185
Q

Main s/e of ethacrynic acid

A

Ototoxicity

186
Q

Nm blockers should never be used along with …..

A

Aminoglycosides

187
Q

Drug resistant cases of Kala azar (2)

A

Pentamidine
Amphotericin B

188
Q

Most effective extraerythrocytic antimalarial drug

A

Primaquine

189
Q

Which antimalarial drug is safe in G6PD deficiency?

A

Pyrimethamine

190
Q

Which is a sulfonamide diuretic?

Post exposure prophylaxis for tb in children exposed to open cases of Tb

A

Acetazolamide

INH

191
Q

Monoclonal antibody used in RCC

Most hepatotoxic anabolic steroid

A

Sunitinib

Stanozolol

192
Q

MOA of bicalutamide

Which effect of morphine has the least tolerance ?

A

Binds to Androgen receptor

Constipation

193
Q

Action of Dapsone is antagonized by ….

Corticosteroid which needs least systemic monitoring

A

PABA

Budesonide

194
Q

Which anti asthmatic drug needs monitoring?

Corticosteroid given by inhalational route

A

Theophylline

Beclomethasone

195
Q

Eg of ino dilator drugs (2)

A

Amrinone, Milrinone

196
Q

Mefloquine not given with …….to prevent risk of developing ventricular arrhythmias

MOA of raloxifene

A

Quinidine

SERM

197
Q

Shortest acting muscle relaxant

Post tetanic facilitation is shown by which class of muscle relaxants

A

Succinyl choline

Nondepolarising

198
Q

Anesthetic agent c/I in biers block/ IVRA

Anesthetic agent which is cerebroprotective

A

Bupivacaine

Propofol

199
Q

MOA of flutamide

Vasopressor of choice in hypotension due to spinal anesthesia

A

Anti androgen

Ephedrine

200
Q

Only iv anesthetic agent with marked analgesic effect

Best inhalational induction agent for pediatric anesthesia

A

Ketamine

Sevoflurane

201
Q

DOC for tennia solium

Halofantrine used for ….

A

Praziquintal

Chloroquine resistant cases of p falciparum and p vivax

202
Q

Doc for lithium induced polyuria

Local anesthetic causing methHb

A

Amiloride

Prilocaine

203
Q

Longest acting local anesthetic

Anesthetic agent with least analgesic property

A

Dibucaine

Halothane

204
Q

Beta blocker with shortest t1/2

Least cardiotoxic anesthetic agent

A

Esmolol

Isoflurane

205
Q

Beta 1 selective blocker used as anti glaucoma

206
Q

Shortest acting Nm blocking agent

A

Mivacurium

207
Q

Anesthetic drug which increases intracranial pressure

AntiHTN which acts by producing NO

A

Ketamine

Sodium nitroprusside

208
Q

Mc side effect of 5FU

Longest active beta blocker

A

Gastrointestinal toxicity

Nadolol

209
Q

DOC for filariasis (2)

A
  1. DEC
  2. Ivermectin
210
Q

Aspirin acts by inhibiting the production of …..

Antipsychotic drug having least extrapyramidal symptoms

A

Thromboxane A2

Clozapine

211
Q

HUS is the s/e of which anticancer drug

NRTI with max tendency to cause peripheral neuropathy

A

Mitomycin

Stavudine

212
Q

Mgt of choice for scorpion bite

Effect of d-tubocurarine can be antagonized by ….(2)

A

Anti venin

Neostigmine
Edrophonium

213
Q

MOA of aminophylline

Mc side effect reported with Rx with haloperidol

A

PDE4 inhibitor

Akathesia

214
Q

Opioid derivative which is partial agonist as well as antagonist

A

Nalorphine
Pentazozine

215
Q

Quinidine exerts it’s action on heart by …..

Relationship of zero order kinetics to plasma drugs level

A

Inhibiting sodium channels

Independent

216
Q

Long post antibiotic effect is seen with which group of drugs (2)

A

FQ
Aminoglycosides

217
Q

DOC for nocardiosis

Drug used for common cold which can cause stroke

A

Co-trimoxazole

Phenyl-propanol-amine

218
Q

Orally administered anti kala azar drug

Amphotericin B toxicity is monitored by

A

Miltefosine

Serum potassium levels

219
Q

Anti IgE antibodies used in asthma

Drug used in prophylaxis of H influenza

A

Omalizumab

Rifampicin

220
Q

Chemical used for sclerotherapy for varicose veins

A

Ethanolamine oleate
Phenol

221
Q

MOA of ketotifen

Doc for diabetes insipidus

A

Mast cell stabilization

Intranasal desmopressin

222
Q

Anti diabetic drug which causes lactic acidosis

Side effect of chlorpropamide

A

Phenformin > metformin

Cholestatic jaundice

223
Q

Anticraving drug used for alcohol intoxication (4)

A
  1. Topiramate
  2. Acamprosate
  3. Naltrexone
  4. Fluoxetine
224
Q

Retroperitoneal fibrosis is a side effect of ….

A

Methylsergide

225
Q

DOC for cardiogenic shock

Intranasal calcitonin is used for ….

A

Dopamine

Post menopausal osteoporosis

226
Q

Doc for malignant hyperthermia

A

Dantrolene sodium

227
Q

DOC for maduramycosis

Which ATT causes longest lag period in bacterial growth?

A

Itraconazole

Ethambutol

228
Q

MOA of ketanserin

Which drug is highly distributed in body fats?

A

5 HT 2 antagonist

Thiopentone

229
Q

Which drug causes hand and foot syndrome?

Aprepitant is ….antagonist. Use

A

5FU

NK receptor antagonist
Use: prevents vomiting

230
Q

Which drug inhibit folate synthase?

A

Solfonamide

231
Q

True for inverse agonist

Drug used in relapse of P.vivax

A

Affinity + intrinsic activity

Primaquine

232
Q

Antidepressant drug having least anticholinergic side effects

A

Fluoxetine

233
Q

Imipramine is not displaced from protein binding sites by ….

Digoxin toxicity is not ppt by …..

A

Lithium

Phenytoin

234
Q

Which drug causes osteoporosis long term?

Estrogen acts on ….

A

GnRH analogue

Cytoplasmic receptors

235
Q

Antimalarial drug effective in preerythrocytic phase in liver is …..

Least glucocorticoid activity is seen with ….

A

Proguanil

Triamcinolone

236
Q

Mx side effects of chronic use of phenothiazines

Food does not interfere in absorption of ….

A

Tardive dyskinesia

Cimetidine

237
Q

Antiepileptic drug which acts by release of inhibiting transmitter GABA

Eg of non selective 3rd generation beta blocker

A

Valproic acid

Cartelol

238
Q

SSRI used for depression and …..

Which drug is P2Y12 receptor antagonist and has reversible inhibition of ADP action?

A

Premature ejaculation

Ticagrelor

239
Q

Effect of allopurinol on kidney

Use of locaserin

A

Causes interstitial nephritis

Anti obesity

240
Q

Which drug should be used with caution in patients with conduction defect?

A

Beta blockers

241
Q

Use of telotristat

Antiepileptic drug acting by opening of chloride channels

A

Diarrhoea induced by carcinoid tumor

Tiagabine

242
Q

PD1 inhibitor anticancer drug

A

Pembrolizumab

243
Q

Hyperprolactinemia is maximally caused by which atypical antipsychotic

A

Risperidone

244
Q

Deficiency of which enzyme results in 5FU induced mucositis,myelosuppression,and neuropsychiatric manifestations

A

Dihydro-pyrimidine dehydrogenase

245
Q

Drug used to reverse Nicotinic receptor acting competitive Nm blocking drug

A

Suxamethonium

246
Q

A girl on sulphonamides, developed ab pain presenting to ER with seizures. Dx

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

Neet Pg (11 decks)

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