Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PSYC475 psychopharm > pharmacokinetics / pharmacodynamics > Flashcards

pharmacokinetics / pharmacodynamics Flashcards

1
Q

ADME

A

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Elimination

ADME = bioavailability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

pharmacokinetics studies…

A

how does a drug get to its target?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

pharmacodynamics studies…

A

when a drug binds to its target, what is the effect?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

absorption includes…

A

how does a drug get into the bloodstream?

ROA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

enteral ROA

A

(through the GI tract)
oral
rectal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

parenteral ROA

A

(non GI)
injection
inhalation
topical (skin)
mucousal / sublingual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

requirements for oral ROA

A

water soluable

stable / resistant to stomach acids & enzymes and liver enzymes

partially lipid soluable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

first pass metabolism

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

prodrug

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

advantages / disadvantages of oral ROA

A

+: easy / non invasive
-: stomach upset / nausea ; actual concentration in blood stream less accurate compared to parenteral; many drugs cannot withstand GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

common drug abbreviations

A

ac – before meals
pc – after meals
hs – at bedtime
NTE – not to exceed
prn – as needed (also qs)
qXh – every X hours
qd – once daily
bid – twice a day
tid – 3 times a day
qid – 4 times a day
XR – extended release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

rectal ROA advantages / disadvantages

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

parenteral ROA advantages / disadvantages

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

IV ROA advantages / disadvantages

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

IM ROA advantages / disadvantages

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

subcutaneous ROA advantages / disadvantages

A

Advantages:
-fairly rapid

Disadvantages:
-Large volumes not recommended
-Skin irritation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

inhalation ROA advantages / disadvantages

A

Advantages:
Extremely rapid – can be even faster than i.v.!
Rapid accumulation in brain

Disadvantages:
Extremely rapid
lung irritation, possible
lung disease with
repeated administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

mucosal ROA advantages / disadvantages

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

sublingual / buccal ROA advantages / disadvantages

A

Advantages: non-invasive, relatively easy, does not go through GI system (more drug gets into system)

Disadvantages: may be unpleasant, have to be able to hold substance in mouth and not swallow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

topical ROA advantages / disadvantages

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Cmax

A

highest level of concentration in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

bioavailability

A

% of drug in system (compared to IV administration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

volume of distribution (define)

a higher Vd is associated with________

A

The volume necessary to contain the total amount of administered drug at the same concentration observed in plasma.

In general, higher Vd is associated with:
longer excretion time
more drug needed to get into brain
longer time to get into brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

BBB

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

metabolism is…

A

how are drugs broken down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

most common route of elimination

A

kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

drug half life

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
A
34
Q

**drug accumulation

A

If a second dose of drug is given before the first dose is eliminated, the overall concentration in the blood will be greater than that of the first dose alone.
With repeated administrations, concentrations are additive.
If 100 mg of a drug with a half-life of 4 hrs is given at noon, at 4:00pm there will be 50 mg in the blood.
If another 100 mg of drug is given at 4:00pm, how much drug will be in the blood at 8:00pm?
75 mg = 25mg (1st dose; 2nd half-life) + 50mg (2nd dose; 1st half-life)

35
Q

**steady state concentration

A

Consistent level of drug in body achieved by repeated, regular-interval dosing
~4-6 half-lives
1st = 50%
2nd = 75%
3rd = 87.5%
4th = 93.75%
5th = 96.875%
6th = 98.44%
At steady state the amount of drug eliminated per unit time is equal to the amount of drug absorbed per unit time

36
Q

theraputic drug monitoring

A
37
Q

drug tolerance

A

A progressive decline in response with repeated usage of a drug.

38
Q

types of drug tolerance

A

1: Metabolic tolerance
Usually due to upregulation of enzymes

2: Pharmacodynamic tolerance
Down-regulation of receptors or sensitivity

3: Behavioral conditioning (learning)
Homeostatic theory
Physiological processes can be conditioned to specific stimuli or environments

39
Q

dependence

A

Administration of drug is required to avoid withdrawal symptoms

40
Q
A
41
Q

special populations? considerations?

A

1: pregnant people
2: children
3: elderly

42
Q

3 reasons drugs may differ in their effectiveness

A

1: different mechanisms
2: lipid soluability
3: affinity for site of action

43
Q

bonds formed between drug and receptor are typically ______

A

ionic (weak, reversible)

44
Q

3 types of drug names

A

1: chemical
2: generic
3: trade

45
Q
A
46
Q
A
47
Q

how do ionotropic receptors work?

A

Ionotropic receptors have recognition sites located on the ion channel.

Activation of receptor change shape of channel

fast / brief / rapid open and close / affect membrane voltage

48
Q

metabotrophic receptors

A

A recognition site extends into the extracellular fluid, and a special protein called a G protein is located on the receptor’s intracellular side.
G proteins can open nearby ion channels or activate second messengers.

slower / longer / varied effects

actions can be direct or indirect

49
Q

competitive vs noncompetitive binding

A

Competitive Binding: Drug occupies the same binding site on the receptor that the NT occupies
-drug with higher affinity / concentration wins

Noncompetitive Binding: Drug occupies a different binding site on the receptor than the NT

50
Q

isomers

A

Molecules that have the same molecular formula, but a different shape:

Same “ingredients” - put together in diff ways
Isomers bx diff

51
Q

optical isomers

A

Isomers that are mirror images of each other

Enantiomers

The distinction is important, as often only one form will be biologically active, or the different forms will produce different effects

52
Q
A
53
Q

racemic mixture / racemate

A

Most substances contain both isomers in equal proportions (50% L and 50% D)

Only ½ the molecules are biologically active

54
Q

why purify a racemate?

A

By purifying a racemic mixture so that the drug only contains the biologically active isomer, a drug’s potency can be increased.

55
Q

why do side effects happen

A

Same receptors responsible for multiple bx , or sometimes other receptors / systems activated other than target

56
Q

what do dose response curves tell us?

A

Potency: Amount of drug required to elicit response

Efficacy: Maximum effect obtainable

Slope: The difference in concentration required between a minimal and maximal effect

Variability: individual differences in response

57
Q

ED50 is….

A

the dose at which a 50% response is achieved

58
Q

LD50 is….

A

the dose at which 50% of subjects die

59
Q

the larger the TI ….

A

the safer the drug

60
Q

TI formula

A

TI = LD50/ED50

61
Q

drug interactions

A
62
Q

placebo effects

A
63
Q

Which route of administration is characterized as “enteral”?

A

oral and rectal

64
Q

Drugs administered “sublingually” (under the tongue) and drugs administered orally are absorbed mostly in the ____________ and ____________, respectively.

A

mouth; small intestine

65
Q

What are the two main differences between capillaries in the periphery and capillaries in the brain?

A

Capillaries in the brain have tighter junctions and are surrounded by membranes of astrocyte cells

66
Q

which is the most dangerous mode of drug administration?

A

IV

67
Q

The degradation of drugs by enzymes present in the gastrointestinal tract and liver is known as:

A

first pass metabolism

68
Q

most drugs are excreted via …

A

the kidneys

69
Q

The time for the plasma level of a drug to fall by 50% is called the

A

elimination half life

70
Q

The “steady-state” concentration of a drug (the stable level achieved in blood with repeated, regular dosing) is

A

achieved when the amount of drug administered per until time equals the amount eliminated per unit time

71
Q

The ability of liver enzymes to degrade a drug more efficiently in the continued presence of the drug is termed

A

Metabolic tolerance

72
Q

“Pharmacodynamic” tolerance occurs in the _______________; “metabolic” tolerance occurs in the ____________________.

A

Synapse/neuron; liver

73
Q

The study of the effects a drug has when it binds to it’s target/receptor is termed

A

pharmacodynamics

74
Q

A drug that is more efficacious than another drug has

A

a larger maximum effect

75
Q

most side effects are…

A

predictable and mild

76
Q

The observation that caffeine cannot exert as much central nervous system stimulation as amphetamine indicates that caffeine

A

is less efficacious than amphetamine

77
Q

during pregnancy, intestinal motility…..

A

intestinal motility decreases

78
Q

a drug that is more potent than another drug has ….

A

a smaller ED50

79
Q

According to the DEA the most dangerous drugs are typically scheduled as

A

schedule 1

80
Q

affinity refers to…

A

the strength of attraction between a molecule (ligand) and it’s target (receptor)

81
Q

A drug that blocks the effect of the naturally occurring (endogenous) compound is called:

A

antagonist

PSYC475 psychopharm (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions