PCS 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Where can you hear the heart valves

A

Aortic valve - right 2nd intercostal space
Pulmonary valve - left 2nd intercostal space
Tricuspid valve - left 4th/5th intercostal space
Mitral valve - mid axillary line intercostal space

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2
Q

How can you tell if someone has cardiomegaly

A

if heart shadow on xray is more than half the thorax shadow

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3
Q

What are the two layers of the pericardium

A

Fibrous pericardium

Serous Pericardium

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4
Q

What are the contents in the posterior mediastinum

A
Descending aorta
Azygous, hemiazygous veins
Thoracic ducts
Esophagus
Sympathetic trunk
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5
Q

What part of vessel wall is responsible for dilation and constriction

A

Tunica media

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6
Q

What happens in primary haemostasis

A

causes soft clot rich in platelets and Von Willebrand factor. Von Willebrand factor attaches to subendothelial collagen which causes platelets to bind. This changes the platelet shape causing them to degranulate causing their surface to be negatively charged

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7
Q

What happens in secondary haemostasis

A

Reinforces soft clot with fibrin. Cell based and classical pathways.

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8
Q

Describe the extrinsic pathway of clotting

A

Uses tissue factor

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9
Q

Describe the intrinsic pathway of clotting

A

Series of coagulation factors causing fibrinogen to turn into fibrin

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10
Q

Describe the steps of the cell based model of clotting

A

initiation, amplification, propagation

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11
Q

What converts testosterone to oestrogen

A

aromatase

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12
Q

What is lucitropy

A

the rate of muscle relaxation

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13
Q

What is preload

A

The amount of sarcomere stretch experienced by cardiac muscle cells at the end of ventricular filling

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14
Q

What is myocardial contractility

A

ability of the heart to contract

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15
Q

What are some positive inotropic agents

A

Digitalis
Catecholamine
Phosphodiesterase inhibitors

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16
Q

What are some negative inotropic agents

A

Beta adrenoceptor antagonists

Calcium channel antagonists

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17
Q

What is afterload

A

Pressure the heart must work against to eject blood during systole

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18
Q

What conditions are beta blockers prescribed for

A
Angina
Heart failure
Atrial fibrillation
Heart attack
High Blood Pressure
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19
Q

How are beta blockers dangerous to people with asthma or COPD

A

Bronchoconstriction because it activated the sympathetic nerves innervating the bronchioles

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20
Q

What conditions can be managed with calcium channel blocking drugs

A

High blood pressure
cardiac arrhythmias
coronary heart disease
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

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21
Q

What proteins metabolise adrenaline

A

Monoamine oxidase

Catechol - o - methyl transferase

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22
Q

Which node in the heart is most receptive to adrenaline

A

Sino atrial

23
Q

Features of steroid hormones

A

Made of cholesterol
Acts in cytosol and nucleus
Modifies transcription by binding to DNA
More permanant

24
Q

Features of peptide hormones

A

Made of amino acids
Acts of cell surface
Rapid less permanant

25
Q

How are signals from the hypothalamus transmitted to the anterior pituitary gland

A

Portal blood vessels and capillary beds

26
Q

How are signals from the hypothalamus transmitted to the posterior pituitary gland

A

Transport down nerve fibres

27
Q

What hormones are released from the posterior pituitary gland

A

Oxytocin

ADH

28
Q

What hormones are released from the anterior pituitary gland

A
Growth hormone
Prolactin
Adenocorticotropic hormone
Thyroid stimulating hormone
FSH
LH
29
Q

Metabolic effects of growth hormone

A

Muscle building
Increased lipolysis
Increased gluconeogenesis - produces IGF

30
Q

Indirect metabolic effects of growth hormone

A

Growth plates make more cartilage increasing bone length

31
Q

What are the male sex hormones

A
Androsterone
Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)
Androsteridiol
testosterone
dihydrotestosterone
32
Q

What hormones are produced in the adrenal cortex

A

Aldosterone
Cortisol
Androgens

33
Q

What cells in the testes secrete testosterone

A

Leydig cells

34
Q

How do signals transmit through cells

A

Ca2+ signalling cascades

35
Q

Which vitamins are fat soluble

A

A,D,E,K

36
Q

which vitamins are water soluble

A

B1, B2, B3, B5, B6, B9, B12, C

37
Q

What are the 5 types of vertebrae

A
Cervical
Thoracic
Lumbar
Sacral
Coccygeal
38
Q

What are the 4 nerve axon type

A

General sensory afferent
General visceral afferent
General somatic efferent
General visceral efferent

39
Q

What does the sympathetic system innervate

A

Thoracic and lumbar (fight or flight)

40
Q

What does the parasympathetic system innervate

A

Cervical and sacral (rest and digest)

41
Q

How does a nicotinic receptor work

A

When activated, pore opens and ions pass through.

42
Q

How does a muscarinic receptor work

A

protein coupled receptor that sets off a cell signalling chain

43
Q

What is an agonist

A

drug binds to receptor to produce an effect. These drugs have an affinity for the receptor and causes intrinsic activity

44
Q

What is an antagonist

A

drugs bind to receptor but doesn’t produce and effect. It prevents access of the neurotransmitter to the receptor

45
Q

What is nociception

A

Information from nociceptors indicated tissue damage

46
Q

What part of the brain controls the information received about sensory information

A

Thalamus

47
Q

What do A delta nerve fibres do

A

Simple, naked nerve endings
Thinly myelinated
Responsible for the initial sharp pain

48
Q

What do C fibres do

A

Follow initial pain responsible for slow poorly localised pain

49
Q

What do sensory nerves use as its transmitters

A

Glutamate
CGRP
Substance P

50
Q

What is the mechanism of action of painkillers

A

They block enzymes that produce prostaglandins. Prostaglandins + histamines increase nociceptor sensitivity

51
Q

What does the spinothalamic tract do

A

Pain, temperature, simple touch

52
Q

What does the dorsal tract do

A

Discriminative touch, proprioception, vibration

53
Q

Varieties of pain

A

Cutaneous
Somatic
Visceral
Referred

54
Q

Consequences of nerve damage

A

Axons sprout from cut ends of nerves and they grow in the wrong place