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C21 Phase 1 > PCS 2 > Flashcards

PCS 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is compliance

A

A measure of the ability of the lungs to stretch

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2
Q

What is elastic recoil

A

a measure of a tissue’s tendency to recoil

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3
Q

Effect of elastin and collagen on lung compliance

A

Elastin increases compliance

Collagen decreases compliance to prevent overexpansion

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4
Q

Surface tension in lungs and relationship to compliance

A

Air is saturated in lungs creating surface tension from water molecules, causes lungs to stretch

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5
Q

Where is surfactant created

A

alveolar type II cells

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6
Q

Factors influencing lung compliance

A 
insufficient surfactant
damage to parenchyma
damage to pleural cavity
scoliosis
obesity
emphysema
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7
Q

What is airway resistance and what are 3 major determinants of it

A

restriction of airflow in inhalation and exhalation
gas viscosity
length of tube
radius of tube

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8
Q

How is airflow resistance influenced biologically

A

Controlled by autonomic nervous system
Causes bronchorestriction/dilation
Influenced by hormones and receptors

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9
Q

How does mucus affect air flow

A

Increased resistance

Turbulent flow - surface of tube is not straight

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10
Q

What is vital capacity a measure of

A

the volume of air that can be expelled from the lungs with maximum effort after maximum inspiratory effort

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11
Q

What is FEV1 a measure of

A

Volume of air that can be expelled with forced breath out

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12
Q

What would reduce vital capacity

A

Restrictive conditions where bronchioles are constricted and expiratory ability is decreased - eg, asthma

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13
Q

What would reduce FEV1

A

Obstructive conditions which causes a lack of compliance in lungs making them unable to fill fully eg. pulmonary fibrosis

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14
Q

What are the three phases of digestion

A

Cephalic
Gastric
Intestinal

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15
Q

What happens in the cephalic phase

A

This phases is initiated by the smell, sight. thought or taste of food. Neurological signals originate from amygdala to hypothalamus then transported through dorsal motor nuclei of vagi and then through vagus nerve. Parasympathetic system excite pepsin and acid production

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16
Q

What cells produce salivary amylase

A

acinar cells

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17
Q

What are the long and short reflexes of the gastric phase

A

Long - mediated through vagus nerves and brainstem, travels greater distance and takes longer
Short - Mediated through myenteric nerve plexus. Takes less time as is a local nerve plexus

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18
Q

What exocrine secretion is released in gastric secretions

A

Gastrin - released by G cells in the pancreas and stomach, stimulates the production of more gastric juice

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19
Q

What exocrine secretion is released in pancreatic secretions

A

Cholecystokinin - The enzyme component of pancreatic secretions

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20
Q

What exocrine secretion is released in biliary secretion

A

Secretin - stimulates duct cells to produce bicarbonate

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21
Q

Symptoms of anorexia

A

restriction of energy intake
intense fear of gaining weight or being overweight
body dysmorphia
dislike of body shape or image

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22
Q

Name the physiological stimuli for release, key release site and role in regulation of appetite of leptin

A

Stimulus - food intake, fat intake, oestrogen
release site - adipose cells, enterocytes
role in regulation - inhibits hunger, regulation of adipose tissue

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23
Q

Name the physiological stimuli for release, key release site and role in regulation of appetite of ghrelin

A

Stimulus - stomach empty
release site - stomach, pancreas, small intestine
role in regulation - acts of hypothalamus to make you more hungry, increases after dieting and stimulates growth hormone release

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24
Q

Name the physiological stimuli for release, key release site and role in regulation of appetite of orexin

A

Stimulus - low blood sugar, ghrelin
release site - lateral hypothalamus
role in regulation - increases appetite, promotes wakefulness, increases sense of smell

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25
Q

Name the physiological stimuli for release, key release site and role in regulation of appetite of CCK

A

stimulus - presence of fat
release site - enteroendocrine cells
role in regulation - minor hunger suppressant, encourages release of digestive enzymes

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26
Q

Name the physiological stimuli for release, key release site and role in regulation of appetite of PYY

A

Stimulus - food intake
release site - ileum and colon
role in regulation - decreases appetite, stops churning of stomach, maximises digestion and reabsorption

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27
Q

How might overweight people be affected by leptin differently

A

they become leptin resistant and are not stopped from feeling hungry. Normally high levels of leptin give you low rewards this is reversed in obese people

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28
Q

What is the function of telomeres

A

Non-coding bits of DNA on chromosomes that stop different chromosomes sticking together

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29
Q

What happens over time to telomere length

A

They shorten with every cell division until theyre gone and cell division stops

30
Q

What are post-mitotic cells

A

a mature cell no longer capable of dividing as they have no DNA or none of the required proteins for DNA replication

31
Q

DNA damage can cause arrest at what stages of the cell cycle

A

G1 and G2 checkpoints

32
Q

What role does p53

A

Tumour suppressor gene codes for this protein which causes apoptosis preventing cancer formation

33
Q

What are the defining characteristics of teratomas

A

Comprised of multiple tissue types they develop from pluripotent stem cells unlike cancers which develop from mature specialised cells

34
Q

What types of genes do euchromatin and heterochromatin contain

A

Euchromatin - contains active

Heterochromatin - contains inactive

35
Q

What does highly conserved genes mean

A

kept the same and found commonly in both organism

36
Q

Name anti-apoptotic genes

A

BCl2

37
Q

Name the function and main gene products of B lymphocytes

A

Antibodies and immunoglobulins

38
Q

Name the function and main gene products of basophils

A

Inflammation and histamines

39
Q

Name the function and main gene products of dendritic cells

A

Messengers and MHCs

40
Q

Name the function and main gene products of platelets

A

Clotting and coagulation factors

41
Q

Name the function and main gene products of erythrocytes

A

Carriage of oxygen and haemoglobin

42
Q

What cells aid recovery of muscle injuries

A

satellite cells

myoblast -> myocyte -> myotube

43
Q

What is the normal pH of blood

A

7.35-7.45

44
Q

What are the three pH buffers the body uses

A

Bicarbonate
Haemoglobin
Phosphate

45
Q

Which buffer system in used in extracellular fluid

A

Bicarbonate

46
Q

Which buffer system is used in blood

A

Bicarbonate and haemoglobin

47
Q

Which buffer system is used in intracellular fluid

A

phosphate

48
Q

How do the kidneys control acid-base homeostasis

A

Proximal CT - preserves bicarb

Distal CT - excretes acid

49
Q

How do the lungs control acid-base homeostasis

A

Controls how much CO2 and therefore how much carbonic acid is in the blood

50
Q

What is an isotonic muscle contraction

A

tension remains the same, muscle length shortens

51
Q

What is an isometric muscle contraction

A

generates force without changing muscle length

52
Q

What is an eccentric muscle contraction

A

generating force whilst causing muscles to lengthen

53
Q

What is Starlings law of the heart

A

the stroke volume of the heart increases in response to an increase of blood in the ventricles before contraction

54
Q

How are the volumes in the heart chambers related

A

What goes in must come out and vise versa, volume of the left ventricle must by the same right atrium

55
Q

What is laminar flow

A

all fluids running in the same direction without obstructions reduces forces against flow

56
Q

Why do arteries have low compliance

A

To maintain pressure

57
Q

How is blood pressure controlled over short time periods by the body

A

ANS

Negative feedback loop

58
Q

What does vagal withdrawel do to heart rate

A

Has a sympathetic effect and increases heart rate

59
Q

How does the AVN delay show on an ECG trace

A

PR interval

60
Q

How does heart rate differ in heart transplant patients

A

Vagus nerve is cut and so heart rate is naturally higher. Heart rate does not increase with exercise very much as it is already higher

61
Q

How does stroke volume change in heart transplant patients

A

Increased venous return causes increased stroke volume during exercise

62
Q

Why does cardiac output increase even when heart rate does not during moderate exercise

A

Sympathetic nerves are enhanced increasing contractility

63
Q

How is the link reaction rate controlled

A

Inhibition by phosphorylation by ATP and NADH

Ca2+ speeds up reaction and is released from muscle contraction - positive feedback

64
Q

How is Krebs cycle rate controlled

A

At the 1st two places NADH is made

ATP is allosteric inhibitor

65
Q

How are electrons moved through mitochondria

A

Shuttles

66
Q

How are electrons moved along the chain of donors and acceptors

A

Move along a gradient with increasing energy

67
Q

Why must reactive oxygen species be turned into safe waste products

A

They are so reactive they damage proteins and cells

68
Q

What are the types of enzymes

A 
Oxidoreductases
Transferases
Hydrolases
Lyases
Isomerases
Ligases
69
Q

In working muscle, how is muscle mass conserved during fasting

A

As it is broken down for gluconeogenesis, new proteins are transcribed from the broken down amino acids, whereas it is not conserved in non-working muscle

70
Q

What are the classes of antibodies

A 
IgA
IgG
IgD
IgM
IgE
71
Q

What do antibodies do

A

Agglutination
Opsonisation
Neutralisation

C21 Phase 1 (45 decks)

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