Case 9 - Infection and Vaccination Flashcards

1
Q

Examples of virus’ transmitted by direct contact

A
HSV
Varicella Zoster Virus (chicken pox)
Epstein Barr
Cytomegalovirus
HPV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Examples of vector-borne virus’ and their reservoir species

A

Influenza - poultry
hantavirus’ - deer mouse
Monkey pox - rodents
Yellow fever - mosquitoes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is antibody enhancement

A

Antibodies made from contracting a different strain of the same virus enhance the pathogenicity of the newly contracted strain. This prevents vaccines from being developed because it would have to protect against all of the strains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Examples of airborne virus’

A

Influenza
Common cold
RSV
SARS-Cov2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is antigenic drift

A

Progressive small changes in envelope proteins through mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is antigenic shift

A

Sudden massive changes in the envelope protein through reassortment by changing genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Examples of blood-borne virus’

A

HBV
HCV
HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Physical barriers from pathogens

A
epithelial cells with tight junctions
mucus and cilia
tears
low stomach pH
surfactant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the three stages of an immune response

A

Detection
Communication
Disposal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which cells are involved in detecting a pathogenic presence

A

Macrophage
Dendritic
Langerhans cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which cells are involved in communication in an immune response

A

Macrophages

dendritic cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What cytokines do macrophages produce and what is their effect

A

IL-6, TNF-alpha, IL-1-beta = pyrogens - induce fever

IL-12 = activates natural killer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What do virally infected cells produce to make natural killer cells more responsive

A

interferons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the role of a plasmacytoid dendritic cell

A

Produces large amounts of interferons to make natural killer cells more responsive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the role of a conventional dendritic cell in adaptive immunity

A

Transport surface antigens from the pathogen to secondary lymphoid tissues and present the antigens to naive t cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What activates immature conventional dendritic cells

A

PAMPs (pathogen associated molecular pattern cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What part of the conventional dendritic cell loads up with pathogenic antigens

A

MHC class I receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the two types of t cells

A

CD4+

CD8+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do virus’ try to impair antigen presentation

A

By activating genes that actively work against it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are CD8+ t cells activated to become

A

cytotoxic killer t cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What induces the proliferation CD8+ cells

A

IL-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do cytotoxic killer t cells induce apoptosis

A

Recognise and binds to virus-infected cell
Programs target cell for death by inducing DNA fragmentation
Cell migrates to new target
Target cell dies by apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What do CD4+ cells differentiate into

A

t helper cells

24
Q

What are the two types of t helper cells and where are they based

A

virus-specific t cells - leave lymph

follicular helper t cells - stay in lymph

25
Q

What is the purpose of follicular helper t cells

A

They induce the expression of activation-induced cytidine deaminase by which allows for class switching recombination in the B cell

26
Q

What does class switching recombination in the B cells achieve

A

Increased binding affinity between pathogen and B cell

Allows for change in antibody production to a potentially more efficient type ie, from IgM to IgG

27
Q

What four modalities are measured in child development

A

gross motor skills
fine motor skills
hearing and vision
communication and social

28
Q

What factors can affect child development

A
Hereditary
Genetic factors
Pre-natal factors
Perinatal events
Post-natal factors
29
Q

Examples of newborn reflexes

A

grasp reflex
crawl reflex
step reflex
tonic neck reflex

30
Q

How does an antibody test work

A

This test looks for antibodies to a specific viral infection. It is generally done on a blood sample. If the antibody is found, this test can show whether a person was infected recently or in the past.

31
Q

How does a viral antigen test work

A

A viral antigen detection test is done on a sample of tissue that might be infected. Specially tagged (with dye or a tracer) antibodies that attach to those viral antigens are mixed with the sample. The tagged antibodies can be seen by using a special light (or other method). If the tagged antibodies are attached to the cells, the cells are infected with the virus.

32
Q

How does a viral culture test

A

A sample of body fluid or tissue is added to certain cells used to grow a virus. If no virus infects the cells, the culture is negative. If a virus that can cause infection infects the cells, the culture is positive. A viral culture may take several weeks to show results.

33
Q

How does a viral PCR test work

A

Using a sample of tissue or blood or other fluid (such as spinal fluid), this type of test looks for the genetic material (DNA or RNA) of a specific virus. This test can show the exact virus causing an infection

34
Q

Stages of a viral life cycle

A
Attachment
Penetration
Uncoating
Biosynthesis
Assembly
Release
35
Q

How can DNA virus’ be classed

A

Single vs double stranded

Enveloped or non-enveloped

36
Q

How can RNA virus’ be classed

A

+/-

enveloped vs non-enveloped vs double capsid

37
Q

What is the difference between a +ve and -ve RNA virus

A

+ve can use host ribosomes to directly copy RNA and acts like regular mRNA.

38
Q

Features of non-enveloped virus’

A

They display excellent heat-resistant properties, and moreover, can easily withstand a dry and acidic environment. In fact, the virus is more powerful and proliferates rapidly in an acidic environment. They can also survive in some disinfection processes. This essentially means that the virus remains active and infectious in these harsh conditions too.

39
Q

Features of enveloped virus’

A

They cannot tolerate hot temperatures or acidic environment. Moreover, they are also sensitive to dry conditions. This means that they no longer remain active in these conditions.

40
Q

Symptoms and transmission of measles

A

Symptoms:
• cold-like symptoms, such as a runny nose, sneezing and a cough
• sore, red eyes that may be sensitive to light
• a high temperature (fever), which may reach around 40C
• small greyish-white spots on the inside of the cheeks

Spread by:
• breathing in droplets
• touching a surface the droplets have settled on and then placing your hands near your nose or mouth (the virus can survive on surfaces for a few hours)

41
Q

Complications of measles

A

Common complications:
• diarrhoea and vomiting, which can lead to dehydration
• middle ear infection (otitis media), which can cause earache
• eye infection (conjunctivitis)
• inflammation of the voice box (laryngitis)
• infections of the airways and lungs (such as pneumonia, bronchitis and croup)
• fits caused by a fever (febrile seizures)

Uncommon complications:
• liver infection (hepatitis)
• misalignment of the eyes (squint) if the virus affects the nerves and muscles of the eye
• infection of the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord (meningitis) or infection of the brain itself (encephalitis)

Rare complications:
• serious eye disorders, such as an infection of the optic nerve, the nerve that transmits information from the eye to the brain (this is known as optic neuritis and can lead to vision loss)
• heart and nervous system problems
• a fatal brain complication known as subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), which can occur several years after measles (this is very rare, occurring in only 1 in every 25,000 cases)

42
Q

Symptoms of mumps

A
  • Swelling of the parotid glands is the most common symptom of mumps, along with:
  • headache
  • joint pain
  • feeling sick
  • dry mouth
  • mild abdominal pain
  • feeling tired
  • loss of appetite
  • a high temperature (fever) of 38C (100.4F), or above
43
Q

Complications of mumps

A
Complications:
•	Swollen testicles
•	Swollen ovaries
•	Viral meningitis
•	Pancreatitis

Rare complications:
• Encephalitis
• Hearing loss

44
Q

Symptoms of rubella

A
Symptoms:
•	Rash
•	aching fingers, wrists or knees
•	a high temperature of 38C or above
•	coughs
•	sneezing and a runny nose
•	headaches
•	a sore throat
•	sore, red eyes
45
Q

Risks of rubella in pregnancy

A
  • loss of the baby (miscarriage)

* serious problems after the baby is born – such as problems with their sight, hearing, heart, or brain

46
Q

Complications of rubella

A
  • Bleeding problems
  • Testicular swelling
  • Inflammation of nerves
  • Some women with rubella experience arthritis
  • Rubella may cause ear infection and encephalitis
47
Q

Contraindications for vaccines

A
Allergies
Refusal
Poor immune system
Pregnancy
Religion/cultural
48
Q

Signs of autism in young children

A
  • not responding to their name
  • avoiding eye contact
  • not smiling when you smile at them
  • getting very upset if they do not like a certain taste, smell or sound
  • repetitive movements, such as flapping their hands, flicking their fingers or rocking their body
  • not talking as much as other children
  • repeating the same phrases
49
Q

Signs of autism of older children

A
  • not seeming to understand what others are thinking or feeling
  • finding it hard to say how they feel
  • liking a strict daily routine and getting very upset if it changes
  • having a very keen interest in certain subjects or activities
  • getting very upset if you ask them to do something
  • finding it hard to make friends or preferring to be on their own
  • taking things very literally – for example, they may not understand phrases like “break a leg”
50
Q

Travel vaccines and where you need them for

A
  • Cholera (sub-Saharan Africa, Caribbean, Middle East and South East Asia)
  • Hep A (sub-Saharan Africa, Asia, Middle East, Central and South America)
  • Hep B (Africa, Asia, Middle East, Eastern Europe)
  • Japanese Encephalitis (not just found in Japan, mostly East Asia)
  • Rabies (if going to countries with lots of wild rabid animals or you plan to do lots of outdoor activity)
  • Tic borne encephalitis (forested areas in spring-summer)
  • TB (Indian Subcontinent, Africa, South East Asia, South and Central America, Middle East)
  • Typhoid - (Indian Subcontinent, Africa, South East Asia, South and Central America, Middle East)
  • Yellow Fever (tropical Africa and Central and South America)
51
Q

What is an erythematous rash and what is it indicative of

A

exhibiting abnormal redness of the skin or mucous membranes due to the accumulation of blood in dilated capillaries

Scarlet fever
Toxic shock syndrome
Kawasaki disease
Alcohol poisoning

52
Q

What is a vesiculobullous rash and what is it indicative of

A

A vesiculobullous disease is a type of mucocutaneous disease characterized by vesicles and bullae (i.e. blisters). Both vesicles and bullae are fluid-filled lesions, and they are distinguished by size (vesicles being less than 5–10 mm and bulla being larger than 5–10 mm, depending upon which definition is used)

Hand, food and mouth
Varicella
Smallpox
Necrotising fasciitis
Shingles
Atopic dermatitis
53
Q

What is a Petechial-Purpuric rash and what is it indicative of

A

The rash is basically a number of small red or purple spots in the skin. The size of the spots is on average 1 to 2 mm or about one half inch or less.

Endocarditis
Vasculitis
ITP (Immune thrombocytopenia)

54
Q

What is a maculopapular rash and what is it indicative of

A

A maculopapular rash is a type of rash characterized by a flat, red area on the skin that is covered with small confluent bumps. It may only appear red in lighter-skinned people.

Scabies
Eczema
Psoriasis
Lyme disease
Drug reaction
55
Q

Conditions causing developmental delay in children

A
  • autism spectrum disorders (ASDs)
  • cerebral palsy
  • fetal alcohol spectrum disorders
  • Landau Kleffner syndrome
  • myopathies, including muscular dystrophies
  • genetic disorders, such as Down syndrome and fragile X syndrome