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RT Program > Patient Assessment Mod 1 Review > Flashcards

Patient Assessment Mod 1 Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is the expected role of the RT

A

–promote lung health and wellness
–patient medication and education
–assess the patient for cardiopulmonary statues

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2
Q

Where are the majority of RTs employed?

A

–hospitals
–long term care
–home care
–clinics
– nursing homes: nursing skill facilities
–acute care

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3
Q

Who is the “ father of medicine?

A

–Hippocrates

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4
Q

What were RTs first called

A

–inhalation therapist
–tank junkies

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5
Q

What was the primary duties?

A

–deliver oxygen

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6
Q

When did the term Respiratory Therapist become standard

A

–In 1974

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7
Q

Who developed the ability to produce oxygen on a large-scale?

A

–In 1907, Carl Von Linde

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8
Q

What was the AARC first called?

A

–Inhalation Therapy Association

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9
Q

What year did it become AARC

A

–in 1982

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10
Q

What is the ALSRC

A

–is the Alabama Society for Respiratory Care

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11
Q

NBRC stands for?

A

–is the National Boards for Respiratory Care
– they do the boards exams
– to take the board exams you must pass from a CoARC school

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12
Q

CoARC stands for?

A

–Commission on Accreditation for Respiratory Care
–they do accreditation for the program specifically for school programs
– they tell what the school needs to do to pass the boards exams
–deals with competence

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13
Q

ASBRT stands for?

A

–Alabama State Board of Respiratory Care

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14
Q

Which organization develops the board exams?

A

– the NBRC

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15
Q

– What is the purpose of the board exams

A

–it shows the minimal standards of competence
–must graduate from the CoARC program and prove that you have learned from the school

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16
Q

What is the role/responsibility of the Medical Director

A

–The supervision of all Respiratory Therapist in the department in the hospital

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17
Q

What does the term licensure refer to?

A

–getting approval to practice Respiratory Therapy

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18
Q

Who is the Joint Commission?

A

–is the accreditation for hospitals
–they inspect hospital to make sure they are doing what they are supposed to do by the standards that are established

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19
Q

Who is the CMS?

A

–is the Center for Medicare and Medicaid Services

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20
Q

What is the PDSA?

A

–is the plan that one gets closer to that difficult to achieve “perfect” product or service
–P: Plan Phase; determine the specific goal, duration, data collection strategy, and the team that will run the quality improvement process
–D: Do Phase; the intervention has begun, so collect data and record the observations
–S: Study Phase; the observations are analyzed and derive conclusions
–A: Act Phase; modifications are made in the process for improvement, act for the next cycle

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21
Q

What is the Six Sigma: DMAIC

A

–this method is based on the improvement to existing processes
–D: Define: describes and validate the problem, create solutions, create a process map and timeline for completion of the project
–M: Measure; identify metrics, develop data collection plan, collect baseline data
–A: Analyze; evaluate collected data in the measure phase, determine root causes for the problem, and estimate the relative impact of each
–I: Improve; discuss, develop, and implement solutions to the root causes, confirm that the intervention is well targeted
–C: Control; continue to implement solutions and follow metrics to ensure maintenance and adoption

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22
Q

What is Lean Management

A

– is a business management philosophy that focuses on eliminating waste or non-value-added activities
–eliminating waste of time, excess work, and unevenness of product are the goal

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23
Q

What does electrical shock do to the heart?

A

–most sensitive
– if the heart is not working correctly the electrical shock helps it get back in a rhythm

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24
Q

What elements are needed for fire

A

–oxygen it’s self is not flammable but it is combustible
– fuel
–heat source

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25
Q

what does RACE stand for?

A

–R: rescue
–A: alert
–C: contain
–E: evacuate

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26
Q

what does PASS stand for

A

–P: pull
–A: aim
–S: squeeze
–S: sweep

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27
Q

what can you do to improve listening skills

A

–minimal distractions, you want to listen to the patient
–active listening
–maintain composer
–contain your emotions
–no judgement
–ask questions / keep an open mind
–hear the speaker out before making evaluations

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28
Q

What is the two patient identifier system

A

– make sure to ask for the patients name and DOB before doing any kind of treatment
–for safety

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29
Q

what transmits infections most in healthcare

A

–humans spread infections

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30
Q

What is the first step in equipment processing

A

–cleaning

31
Q

What is Cleaning?

A

– to get rid of all the visible stuff off the equipment

32
Q

what is Disinfecting?

A

–depends on what the equipment is
–describes a process that destroys the vegetative form of many or all pathogenic organisms except spores
–pasteurization is the most common physical method
–chemical disinfection: involves the application of chemical solutions to contaminated equipment or surfaces, must be immersed for a set period of time

33
Q

what is Sterilization?

A

–destroys all microorganisms on the surface article or in a fluid.
–Steam sterilization is the most common
—- its includes ethylene oxide

34
Q

what special precautions must be taken when a patient has C. DIff

A

–isolation
–must wash hands with soap and water only

35
Q

Precautions for TB

A

–Airborne precautions
–place patient in a negative pressure room
–must wear gloves, 95-mask, gown, and eye protection

36
Q

Precautions for Measles

A

-airborne precautions
–place patient in a negative pressure room
–must wear gloves, 95-mask, gown, and eye protection

37
Q

Precautions for Smallpox

A

–droplet transmission
–must wear grown, gloves, mask

38
Q

Precautions for Covid

A

– droplet transmission
–must wear mask, and gloves

39
Q

What Rt equipment has a history of being a common source of infection

A

–nebulizers, ventilators circuits, BVM, and suction equipment

40
Q

what is Contact precautions

A

–is the most common route of transmission
–Direct transmission: occurs when the pathogen is transferred directly from one person to another
—–occurs less frequently than indirect contact in the health care environment
–Indirect: involves transfer of a pathogen through a contaminated intermediate object or person
—- it can cause fomites, when instruments have not been cleaned properly

41
Q

what is Droplet precautions

A

–a form of transmission via respiratory droplets in the air
–large, contaminated droplets into the air by coughing, sneezing, or talking, suctioning, and bronchoscopy
–examples: smallpox. and SARS

42
Q

what is Standard precautions

A

–the simplest level of infection control based on the recognition that all blood, body, fluids, secretions, and excretions may contain transmissible infectious agents.

43
Q

what is Airborne Precautions

A

–occurs via the spread of small airborne droplet nuclei
–can remain suspended in the air for long periods and travel further distances
–patient is places negative pressure room
–examples: Chickenpox, and measles
–must wear: gloves, eye protection, gown, and N-95

44
Q

Describe 5 key components of an infection prevention program

A

–Surveillance: is an ongoing process of monitoring patients and health care personal for the acquisition of infection
–Investigation: use microbiology-based data including resistance patterns for pathogens of significance
–Prevention: establishments of risk stratification for infection risk when available
–Control: monitoring the results prospectively and identifying trends indicating unusual rates of infection or transmission
–Reporting: provide feedback to stakeholders within the institution

45
Q

What is Ethics

A

–one of the disciplines of philosophy which primarily concerned with the question of how should act
–respect the humanity in persons

46
Q

What is the goal of Ethics

A

–to determine what is right and wrong

47
Q

How does Ethics affect healthcare

A

–the rationing of care, dealing with conflicts associated with third party, imposed standards of care, and delivery of the appropriate standard of care.
–Staffing issues

48
Q

What is patient privacy so important

A

–to respect the secrets which are confidential
–to protect the patients’ rights

49
Q

What is the AARC Code of Ethics

A

–this code seeks to establish parameters of behavior for members of profession

50
Q

What is Nonmaleficence?

A

–requires healthcare providers to avoid harming patients

51
Q

What is Autonomy?

A

–acknowledges the personal liberty of patients and their right to decide their own course of treatment and follow through on a plan on which the patient agrees
–informed consent
–veracity is often associated with autonomy

52
Q

What is Justice?

A

–involves fair distribution of care
– balance must be found between health care expenses and ability to pay

53
Q

What is Role Fidelity

A

–an RT must have a Phyician to give orders on what to do
–practitioners must understand limits of role and practice with fidelity

54
Q

What is Benevolent Deception

A

–when the truth is withheld from the patient for supposedly his or her own good

55
Q

When is it ok to Breach Confidentiality?

A

–in certain situations, when health care workers are permitted to share patient’s medical information with other

56
Q

What is Distributive Justice

A

– rationing of health care services

57
Q

What actions are involved in making an Ethical decision

A

– Formalism: relies on rules and principles
–Consequentialism: in which decisions are based on the assessment of consequences
–Virtue Ethics: asks what a virtuous person would do in a similar circumstance
–Intuitionism: when intuition is involved in the decision-making process

58
Q

What is Civil Law

A

–protects private citizens and organizations from others who might seek to take unfair advantages
–concerned with the recognition of enforcement with the rights and duties of private individuals
–most common with hospitals

59
Q

What is Administrative Law

A

– consists of regulations set by government agencies

60
Q

What is Criminal Law

A

–deal with acts or offenses against the welfare or safety of the public

61
Q

What is Negligence

A

–is the failure to perform one’s duties competently

62
Q

How do you prove Negligence

A

–All 4 torts must be claimed:
—the practitioner owes a duty to the patient
–the practitioner breaches that duty
–the breach of duty was the cause of damages
–damage or harm came to the patient

63
Q

What is HIPPA?

A

–Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996

64
Q

What are economic damages that can be imposed during a negligence lawsuit?

A

– awarded for economic loss
–medical expenses are paid for

65
Q

What is CCO?

A

–corporate compliance officer

66
Q

what is the role of the CCO?

A

–oversees hospitals business practices and ensures conformity law
–they allow for employees to report a wrong doing from another worker that could be causing harm to a patient

67
Q

What is the NLRA?

A

–the National Labor Relations Act

68
Q

What does the NLRA do for the RTs

A

–protects workers when he or she engages in an act that would benefit all employees

69
Q

what does VAP stand for

A

–Ventilator associated program

70
Q

what does CLABSI stand for?

A

–central line associated bloodstream

71
Q

what does CAUTI stand for?

A

–catheter associated urinary tract

72
Q

what does IVACs stand for?

A

–infection related ventilator associated complications

73
Q

what does PVAP stand for?

A

–possible ventilator associated pneumonia

74
Q

what does PEEP stand for?

A

–positive end expiratory pressure

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