Pathology II Flashcards

1
Q

What is the pathophysiology associated with secondary hyperaldosteronism?

A

Renal perception of low intravascular volume. This results in an overactive renin-angiotensin system (p.296)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name five causes of secondary hyperaldosteronism.

A

Renal artery stenosis, chronic renal failure, CHF, cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome (p.296)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What lab finding is characteristic of secondary hyperaldosteronism?

A

Elevated plasma renin (p.296)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the treatment for secondary hyperaldosteronism?

A

Spironolactone (p.296)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Addison’s disease?

A

Chronic primary adrenal insufficiency due to adrenal atrophy or destruction by disease (p.297)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name three types of disease states that can cause chronic primary adrenal insufficiency.

A

Autoimmune, Infection (TB), metastasis (p.297)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What endocrine hormones are deficient in primary adrenal insufficiency?

A

Aldosterone and cortisol (p.297)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the typical clinical findings in a patient with primary adrenal insufficiency?

A

Hypotension (hyponatremic volume contraction due to lack of aldosterone), hyperkalemia, acidosis, skin hyperpigmentation (due to MSH, a by-product of increased ACTH production from POMC) (p.297)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What endocrine hormone is elevated in primary adrenal insufficiency?

A

ACTH (p.297)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What characterizes primary adrenal insufficiency?

A

Adrenal atrophy and absence of hormone production from all three cortical divisions. Medulla is spared (p.297)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What lab finding distinguishes primary adrenal insufficiency from secondary adrenal insufficiency?

A

High ACTH in primary adrenal insufficiency; decreased pituitary ACTH production in secondary adrenal insufficiency (p.297)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What clinical features distinguish primary adrenal insufficiency from secondary adrenal insufficiency?

A

Secondary adrenal insufficiency has no hyperpigmentation and no hyperkalemia (p.297)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Waterhouse- Friderichsen syndrome?

A

Acute primary adrenal insufficiency due to adrenal hemorrhage (p.297)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What four pathologies are associated with Waterhouse Friderichsen syndrome?

A

Neisseria meningitidis, septicemia, DIC, and endotoxic shock(p.297)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a pheochromocytoma?

A

The most common tumor of the adrenal medulla in adults. Symptoms occur in spells and are relapsing/remitting (p.297)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

From what cells are pheochromocytomas derived?

A

Chromaffin cells (which arise from neural crest) (p.297)

17
Q

Where do chromaffin cells arise from?

A

Neural crest (p.297)

18
Q

What is most commonly secreted by pheochromocytomas?

A

Epinephrine, Norepinephrine, dopamine (p.297)

19
Q

What symptoms are associated with pheochromocytomas?

A

Episodic hyperadrenergic symptoms- pressuire (elevated BP), Pain (headache), Perspiration, Palpitations (tachycardia), Pallor (p.297)

20
Q

What lab findings are consistent with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma?

A

Urinary VMA and plasma catecholamines are elevated (p.297)

21
Q

What is Vanillylmandelic acid?

A

A breakdown product of norepinephrine and epinephrine. Elevated in the urine with pheochromocytoma (p.297)

22
Q

What three conditions are pheochromocytomas associated with?

A

MEN 2A, MEN 2B, Neurofibromatosis type 1 (p.297)

23
Q

What is the treatment for pheochromocytoma?

A

Surgical removal after effective a-and b-blockade is achieved (p.297)

24
Q

What treatment is required before a patient can undergo surgery to remove a pheochromocytoma?

A

Before surgery, irreversible a-antagonists (phenoxybenzamine) must be given to avoid a hypertensive crisis. B-blockers are then given to slow heart rate (p.297)

25
Q

What is the rule of 10s associated with pheochromocytoma?

A

10% are: malignant, bilateral, extra-adrenal, calcified, in children (p.297)

26
Q

Outline the pathway of epinephrine production.

A

Phenylalanine –> Tyrosine –> L-Dopa –> Dopamine –> Norepinephrine –> Epinephrine (p.297)