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LECOM PBL spring 2017 > pathology 8 (362-385) bacterial infections > Flashcards

pathology 8 (362-385) bacterial infections Flashcards

1
Q

describe the stain and shape of staphylococcus

A

pyogenic gram positive cocci that form clusters resembling bunches of grapes

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2
Q

what type of staphylococcus can cause UTIs in women

A

S. saprophyticus

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3
Q

what does protein A of staphylococcus do

A

binds the Fc portion of immunoglobulins, allowing the organisms to escape antibody-mediated killing

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4
Q

what does alpha toxin of S. aureus do

A

protein that intercalates into the plasma membrane of host cells, forming pores that allow toxic levels of calcium to leak into cells

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5
Q

what do the exfoliative A and B toxins produced by S.aureus do

A

serine proteases that cleave the desmosomal protein desmoglein 1, which holds epidermal cells tightly together

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6
Q

what do the super antigens produced by S. aureus cause

A

food poisoning and TSS

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7
Q

what, besides S. aureus, can cause TSS

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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8
Q

what is another name for staphylococcal scalded-skin syndrome

A

ritter disease

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9
Q

what type of infections do streptococci cause

A

suppurative infections

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10
Q

describe the shape of streptococci

A

gram positive cocci that grow in pairs or chains

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11
Q

what diseases does S. pyrogenes cause

A

pharyngitis, scarlet fever, erysipelas, impetigo, rheumatic fever, TSS, and glomerulonephritis

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12
Q

how do enterococci grow

A

gram positive cocci that grow in chains

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13
Q

how does S. mutans cause dental caries

A

by metabolizing sucrose to actin acid and by secreting high-molecular weight gluons that promote aggregation of bacteria and plaque formation

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14
Q

what is the emergence of enterococci as pathogens primarily due to

A

resistance to antibiotics

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15
Q

what is erysipelas caused by

A

exotoxins from superficial infection with S. pyogenes

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16
Q

what is diphtheria caused by

A

corynebacterium diphtheriae

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17
Q

describe the stain and shape of corynebacterium

A

slender gram positive rod with clubbed ends

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18
Q

what blocks host cell protein synthesis with C. diptheriae

A

phage-encoded A-B toxin

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19
Q

what finding in CSF is virtually diagnostic for L. monocytogenes infections

A

gram positive, mostly intracellular bacilli in the CSF

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20
Q

what is anthrax characterized by

A

necrotizing inflammatory lesions in the skin or GI tract or systemically

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21
Q

describe the shape and stain of bacillus anthrax

A

large, spore-forming gram positive rod-shoed bacterium found in environmental sources

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22
Q

which subunit of the toxin is toxic for anthrax

A

A subunit

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23
Q

what does EF of anthrax bind to in the cytoplasm

A

calcium and calmodulin to form adenylate cyclase

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24
Q

what does LF of the toxin of anthrax do

A

protease that destroys MAPKKs

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25
Q

what histologic finding is most indicative of anthrax

A

presence of large, boxcar-shaped gram positive extracellular bacteria in chains

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26
Q

where are nocardia found

A

gram positive bacteria found in soil that appear in branching filaments

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27
Q

what type of stain do nocardia stain with

A

modified acid-fast stain (fite-faraco stain)

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28
Q

what can N. gonorrheae infection in men cause

A

urethritis

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29
Q

what does the long pili of N. gonorrheae bind to

A

CD46 (protein expressed on all human nucleated cells)

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30
Q

what bacteria causes pertussis/whooping cough

A

bordetella pertussis (gram negative coccobacillus)

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31
Q

how is the diagnosis of pertussis made

A

PCR

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32
Q

what does B. pertussis colonize

A

the brush border of the bronchial epithelium and also invade macrophages

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33
Q

what does the A subunit of the A-B toxin produced by B. pertussis do

A

ADP-ribosylates and inactivates guanine nucleotide-binding proteins

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34
Q

what is the stain and shape of pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

opportunistic aerobic gram negative bacillus

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35
Q

who is pseudomonas infection particularly deadly in

A

people with cystic fibrosis, severe burns or neutropenia

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36
Q

what does P. aeruginosa secrete in the lungs of people with cystic fibrosis

A

alginate, which forms a biofilm that protects bacteria from antibodies, complement, phagocytes and antibiotics

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37
Q

what infection is likely if there is a gram-negative bacterial vasculitis accompanied by thrombosis and hemorrhage

A

P. aeruginosa

38
Q

how does Y. pestis ensure its owns spread

A

forming a biofilm that obstructs the gut of the infected flea

39
Q

where is the infected fleabite usually located with bubonic plague

A

in the leg, where it forms a small pustule or ulcer

40
Q

what causes chancroid

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

41
Q

describe (generally) mycobacterium

A

slender, aerobic rods that grow in straight or branching chains

42
Q

what is the critical mediator that enables macrophages to contain the M. tuberculosis infection

A

IFN-gamma

43
Q

what cells are the primary mediators of M. tuberculosis infection

A

Th1 cells

44
Q

what part of the lung does secondary pulmonary TB classically involve

A

apex of the upper lobes of one or both lungs

45
Q

what do bacteria are involved in MAC infection

A

Mycobacterium avium and Mycobacterium intracellulare

46
Q

MAC infection is uncommon except in people with what>

A

T-cell immunodeficiency due to AIDS or immunosuppression resulting from treatment for transplant rejection or autoimmune disease

47
Q

what is the hallmark of MACinfections in patients with HIV

A

abundant acid-fast bacilli within macrophages

48
Q

what is the virulence of M. leprae based on

A

components of its cell wall (it secretes NO toxins)

49
Q

what determines if the M. leprae infection with cause tuberculoid or lepromatous leprosy

A

the Th cells response

50
Q

describe the stain and shape of spirochetes

A

gram negative, slender corkscrew-shaped bacteria with axial periplasmic flagella wound around a helical protoplasm

51
Q

what bacteria causes syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum

52
Q

what finding is characteristic of all stages of syphilis

A

proliferative endarteritis affecting small vessels with a surrounding plasma cell-rich infiltrate

53
Q

how is infantile syphilis most often manifested

A

nasal discharge and congestion (snuffles) in the first few months of life

54
Q

what is the main finding with primary syphilis

A

chancre

55
Q

what is the triad often associated with late manifestations of congenital syphilis

A

interstitial keratitis, hutchinson teeth and 8th nerve deafness

56
Q

what causes lime disease

A

arthropod-borne illness caused by Borrelia burgdorferi

57
Q

what is is the arthropod used to transmit lime disease

A

ixodes deer ticks

58
Q

what bacteria causes gas gangrene

A

C. perfringens

59
Q

what does C. botulinum do

A

blocks synaptic release of ACh and causes flaccid paralysis of respiratory and skeletal muscles

60
Q

what is the most important toxin that C. perfringens produces and what does it do

A

alpha toxin: it is a phospholipase C that degrades lecithin, a major component of cell membranes, and also destroys RBCs, platelets and muscle cells, causing myonecrosis

61
Q

what is the name for the infectious body of Chlamydial trachomatis

A

elementary body: metabolically inactive, spore-like structure

62
Q

what is the metabolically active part of chlamydial trachoma’s

A

reticulate body

63
Q

what is the primary infection caused by C. trachomatis characterized by

A

mucopurulent discharge containing a predominance of neutrophils

64
Q

how is epidemic typhus (caused by rickettsia) transmitted

A

from person to person via body lice

65
Q

how is scrub typhus trnasmitted

A

by chiggers

66
Q

how is rocky mountain spotted fever transmitted to humans

A

by dog ticks

67
Q

what cells do rickettsia infections primary effect

A

endothelial cells

68
Q

how does bordetella pertussis appear microscopically

A

gram-negative coccobacillus

69
Q

which staphylococcus aureus hemolytic toxin lyses RBCs

A

gamma toxin

70
Q

what is similar about whooping cough and cholera toxins

A

pertussis and cholera ADP-ribosylate G proteins to stop signal transduction

71
Q

what is similar about diphtheria and pseudomonas toxins

A

diphtheria (A-B toxin) and pseudomonas (exotoxin A) prevent protein production (ADP-ribosylate ribosomes)

72
Q

what protein does Yersinia pests express to prevent phagocytosis

A

plague uses Yops to wreck phagocytosis and cytokine production as it spreads through the lymph nodes

73
Q

what causes epidemic relapsing fever and what is it

A

caused by spirochete B. recurrent, features multi organ failure, fever, chills, recurs, with lesser severity each time or spontaneous cure

74
Q

what disease causes erythema chronic migraines

A

B. burgdorferi

75
Q

what is a classic lesion in the immunosuppressed with infection of cryptococcus neoformans

A

soap bubble lesions form in the virchow-robin spaces as gelatinous masses of fungi grow unchecked

76
Q

what fungus often causes allergies and produces aflatoxin when it grows on peanuts

A

aspergillus

77
Q

what are the invasive signs and lesion of aspergillus infection

A

primary lesions are necrotizing pneumonia with sharply delineated hemorrhagic borders; target lesions; spreads widely throughout the body

78
Q

why are many gambians immune to P. vivax infections

A

gambians tend to have no duffy blood group antigens, which are the protein that P. vivax binds to

79
Q

how can Babes be distinguished from malarial microbes

A

Babes forms maltese crosses in erythrocytes and symptoms tend to be milder

80
Q

what transmits leishmania

A

sand files

81
Q

how does hydatid disease occur

A

consumption of Echinococcus granulosus/multilocularis eggs

82
Q

what chronic problem does T. spiralis cause

A

myositis

83
Q

What parasite should be considered with biliary tract disease, cholangiocarcinoma

A

Clonorchis sinensis

84
Q

What parasite should be considered with brain cysts and seizures

A

Taenia sodium (neurocysticerosis)

85
Q

What parasite should be considered with hematuria, squamous cell bladder cancer

A

Schistosomes haematobium

86
Q

What parasite should be considered with liver (hydatid) cysts

A

Echinococcus granulosus

87
Q

What parasite should be considered with microcytic anemia

A

Ancylostoma, Necator

88
Q

What parasite should be considered with Myalgias, periorbital edema

A

Trichinella spiralis

89
Q

What parasite should be considered with perinatal pruritis

A

Enterobius

90
Q

What parasite should be considered with portal hypertension

A

Schistosomes Manson I, Schistosoma japonicum

91
Q

What parasite should be considered with vitamin B12 deficiency

A

Diphyllobothrium Latum

LECOM PBL spring 2017 (16 decks)

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