pathology 17 (785-796): infectious enterocolitis Flashcards

1
Q

what are the shape and stain of vibrio cholerae

A

comma-shaped, gram negative

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2
Q

how is cholera primarily transmitted

A

contaminated drinking water

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3
Q

what are needed for efficient bacterial colonization of V. cholerae

A

flagellar proteins

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4
Q

what metalloproteinase is important for bacterial detachment and shedding in the stool with V. cholerae

A

hemagglutinin

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5
Q

what does the B subunit of cholera toxin do

A

binds GM1 ganglioside on the surface of intestinal epithelial cells and is carried by retrograde transport to the ER

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6
Q

describe the stools that are associated with V. cholerae

A

resembles rice water and are sometimes described as having a fishy odor

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7
Q

what is the most common bacterial enteric pathogen in developed countries

A

campylobacter jejuni

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8
Q

what are most infections by campylobacter jejune associated with

A

injection of improperly cooked chicken

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9
Q

what are the 4 major properties that contribute to pathogenesis of campylobacter infection

A

motility, adherence, toxin production and invasion

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10
Q

what patients are most susceptible to developing reactive arthritis as a result of campylobacter jejuni infection

A

those with HLA-B27

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11
Q

describe the shape and staining of campylobacter

A

comma shaped, flagellated, gram-negative organisms

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12
Q

describe shigella (stain)

A

gram negative unencapsulated, non-motile, facultative anaerobes

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13
Q

why does shigella have an extremely low infectious dose

A

because it is resistant to the harsh acidic environment of the stomach

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14
Q

what takes up shigella once it is in the intestine

A

M/microfold cells

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15
Q

where are shigella infections most prominent

A

left colon

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16
Q

what is the typical incubation period for shigella

A

up to 1 week

17
Q

describe the self-limiting disease caused by shigella

A

characterized by 1 week of diarrhea, fever and abdominal pain

18
Q

what do the transferred proteins involved with salmonella activate

A

host Rho GTPases, thereby triggering actin rearrangement and bacterial endocytosis allowing bacterial growth within endosomes

19
Q

what T cells are involved in limiting salmonella infection

A

Th1 and Th17

20
Q

what are the specialized bacterial proteins used by Yersinia to bind to host cell beta1 interns

A

adhesions

21
Q

what encodes the iron uptake system that mediated iron capture and support with yersinia

A

pathogenicity island

22
Q

where do yersinia infections preferentially involve

A

ileum, appendix and right colon

23
Q

what are the principle cause of travelers diarrhea

A

ETEC

24
Q

how does ETEC spread

A

contaminated water or food

25
Q

what are EIEC organisms most bacteriologically similar to

A

shigella

26
Q

what does EIEC cause

A

acute self-limited colitis

27
Q

what generally causes pseudomembranous colitis

A

C. difficile

28
Q

what does toxins released by C. difficile cause

A

ribosylation of small GTPases, such as Rho, and lead to disruption of epithelial cytoskeletal, tight junction barrier loss, cytokine release, and apoptosis

29
Q

what are the risk factors for C.difficile associated colitis

A

advanced age, hospitalization and antibiotic treatment

30
Q

what is the malabsorptive diarrhea of whipple disease due to

A

impaired lymphatic transport

31
Q

describe the genome of rotavirus

A

encapsulated virus with segmented, DS RNA genome

32
Q

who are most vulnerable to rotavirus

A

children between 6 months and 24 months of age

33
Q

what does rotavirus selectively infect and destroy

A

mature enterocytes in small intestine and villus surface is repopulated by immature secretory cells

34
Q

where do strongyloides mature into adult worms

A

intestine

35
Q

where do adult worms commonly reside with schistosomiasis

A

mesenteric veins

36
Q

what deficiency can D. datum cause

A

B12 deficiency and megaloblastic anemia because it competes with the host for dietary B12