pathology 17 (785-796): infectious enterocolitis Flashcards

1
Q

what are the shape and stain of vibrio cholerae

A

comma-shaped, gram negative

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2
Q

how is cholera primarily transmitted

A

contaminated drinking water

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3
Q

what are needed for efficient bacterial colonization of V. cholerae

A

flagellar proteins

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4
Q

what metalloproteinase is important for bacterial detachment and shedding in the stool with V. cholerae

A

hemagglutinin

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5
Q

what does the B subunit of cholera toxin do

A

binds GM1 ganglioside on the surface of intestinal epithelial cells and is carried by retrograde transport to the ER

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6
Q

describe the stools that are associated with V. cholerae

A

resembles rice water and are sometimes described as having a fishy odor

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7
Q

what is the most common bacterial enteric pathogen in developed countries

A

campylobacter jejuni

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8
Q

what are most infections by campylobacter jejune associated with

A

injection of improperly cooked chicken

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9
Q

what are the 4 major properties that contribute to pathogenesis of campylobacter infection

A

motility, adherence, toxin production and invasion

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10
Q

what patients are most susceptible to developing reactive arthritis as a result of campylobacter jejuni infection

A

those with HLA-B27

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11
Q

describe the shape and staining of campylobacter

A

comma shaped, flagellated, gram-negative organisms

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12
Q

describe shigella (stain)

A

gram negative unencapsulated, non-motile, facultative anaerobes

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13
Q

why does shigella have an extremely low infectious dose

A

because it is resistant to the harsh acidic environment of the stomach

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14
Q

what takes up shigella once it is in the intestine

A

M/microfold cells

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15
Q

where are shigella infections most prominent

A

left colon

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16
Q

what is the typical incubation period for shigella

A

up to 1 week

17
Q

describe the self-limiting disease caused by shigella

A

characterized by 1 week of diarrhea, fever and abdominal pain

18
Q

what do the transferred proteins involved with salmonella activate

A

host Rho GTPases, thereby triggering actin rearrangement and bacterial endocytosis allowing bacterial growth within endosomes

19
Q

what T cells are involved in limiting salmonella infection

A

Th1 and Th17

20
Q

what are the specialized bacterial proteins used by Yersinia to bind to host cell beta1 interns

21
Q

what encodes the iron uptake system that mediated iron capture and support with yersinia

A

pathogenicity island

22
Q

where do yersinia infections preferentially involve

A

ileum, appendix and right colon

23
Q

what are the principle cause of travelers diarrhea

24
Q

how does ETEC spread

A

contaminated water or food

25
what are EIEC organisms most bacteriologically similar to
shigella
26
what does EIEC cause
acute self-limited colitis
27
what generally causes pseudomembranous colitis
C. difficile
28
what does toxins released by C. difficile cause
ribosylation of small GTPases, such as Rho, and lead to disruption of epithelial cytoskeletal, tight junction barrier loss, cytokine release, and apoptosis
29
what are the risk factors for C.difficile associated colitis
advanced age, hospitalization and antibiotic treatment
30
what is the malabsorptive diarrhea of whipple disease due to
impaired lymphatic transport
31
describe the genome of rotavirus
encapsulated virus with segmented, DS RNA genome
32
who are most vulnerable to rotavirus
children between 6 months and 24 months of age
33
what does rotavirus selectively infect and destroy
mature enterocytes in small intestine and villus surface is repopulated by immature secretory cells
34
where do strongyloides mature into adult worms
intestine
35
where do adult worms commonly reside with schistosomiasis
mesenteric veins
36
what deficiency can D. datum cause
B12 deficiency and megaloblastic anemia because it competes with the host for dietary B12