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Micro Exam 3 > Past Exams 2008/2010 > Flashcards

Past Exams 2008/2010 Flashcards

1
Q

____________________ is a clostridial organism that causes enteric infections subsequent to antimicrobial therapy.

A

Clostridium difficile

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2
Q

__________________________ is an organism that causes rhinitis, tracheobronchitis and occasionally pneumonia in cats (probably in association with a viral agent).

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica

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3
Q

___________________________ is a cause of contagious epididymitis in rams and abortion and decreased fertility in ewes.

A

Brucella ovis

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4
Q

___________________________________ is a common cause of enteritis in humans and abortions in sheep

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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5
Q

___________________________________ is a facultative anaerobic organism that causes granulomatous, tumor like lesions primarily in the head and neck area of cattle.

A

Actinobacillus lignieresii

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6
Q

___________________________________ is an organism that causes acute inflammation of the nasal turbinates, acute air-sacculitis, swelling of the head and wattles, decreased food intake and a marked loss in egg production in egg-laying chickens.

A

Haemophilus paragallinarum

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7
Q

___________________________________ is a difficult to culture organism that is transmitted venereally but which has been eradicated from the U.S. horse population

A

Taylorella equigenitalis

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8
Q

___________________________________ is an organism that causes tracheobronchitis and chronic paroxysmal coughing and toxemia in humans. It is most damaging to infants under 1 year of age.

A

Bordetella pertussis

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9
Q

___________________________________ occasionally infects wounds and is a cause of Apitting edema@.

A

Clostridium septicum

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10
Q

___________________________________ is a cause of enteritis and focal hepatic necrosis in laboratory rodents

A

Clostridium piliformae

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11
Q

________________________ is the name of the flaccid paralysis syndrome commonly observed subsequent to infection with Campylobacter jejuni

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome

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12
Q

___________________________________ and ___________________________________ are the two main causes of bacterial meningitis in humans.

A

Neisseria meningitidis

Haemophilus influenzae

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13
Q

___________________________________ and ___________________________________ are two organisms that cause disease in ruminants in association with swampy areas and liver fluke migration

A

Clostridium novyi type B

Clostridium hemolyticum

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14
Q

________________________________ is an organism that usually enters via a wound, tick bite, or through the conjunctiva of humans. It spreads from the regional lymph nodes to the liver, spleen, bone marrow, and lymphoid tissues, forming granulomatous nodules which tend to ulcerate.

A

Francisella tularensis`

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15
Q

___________________________________ is the cause of Aforage poisoning@ in horses.

A

Clostridium botulinum

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16
Q

___________________________________ is a cause of persistent bacteremia, epididymitis and testicular atrophy in dogs

A

Brucella canis

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17
Q

___________________________________ is the substance supplied to some Haemophilus species by a Staphylococcus nurse colony.

A

NAD

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18
Q

___________________________________ is an organism that causes ulcerative enteritis of the lower 1/3 of the intestine of a variety of wild and domestic avian species.

A

Clostridium colinum

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19
Q

____________________________________ is the currently used vaccine for prevention of brucellosis in cattle.

A

RB51

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20
Q

_____ is a clostridial toxin that produces liquefactive necrosis, edema and hemorrhage in the brains of sheep.

A

Clostridium perfringens epsilon toxin

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21
Q

________________________________ is the major toxin involved in infections with Fusobacterium necrophorum.

A

Leukotoxin

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22
Q

___________________________________ is the most pathogenic species of Brucella for humans.

A

Brucella melitensis

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23
Q

___________________________________ is the cause of undulant fever in humans.

A

Brucella abortus

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24
Q

______________________ is the test used to screen milk samples for Brucella abortus infected cows.

A

Milk Ring Test

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25
Q

Why do we not routinely perform bacterial cultures for Fusobacterium necrophorum?

A

It is almost always in mixed cultures, ie., it is difficult to isolate in pure culture. Also, most of the infections are reasonably characteristic and there is no need to identify specific bacterial agents involved. (It actually isn=t hard to grow, just hard to isolate; Grows on anaerobic blood agar plates).

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26
Q

List three diseases in which Pasteurella multocida is not primarily a respiratory tract pathogen. Also list the capsular type and host animal involved

A

Disease Capsular type Host animal

Fowl cholera A Domestic and wild birds

Cat and dog bite wounds D Cats and dogs

cHemorrhagic septicemia B&E Water buffalo, bison, cattle

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27
Q

Briefly describe the mechanism by which the leukotoxin of Mannheimia haemolytica causes a marked increase in the inflammatory reaction in pulmonary tissues

A

The leukotoxin is an RTX (pore forming cytolytic toxin) that is able to damage or lyse phagocytic cells which releases the hydrolytic enzymes of those cells onto the surface of pulmonary tissues

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28
Q

Briefly explain on an immunologic basis, why some of the clostridial immunizing products are toxoids and some are formalinized whole cells?

A

Formalinized whole cell products are used to protect against infection. Toxoids may only generate antibody to neutralize toxins that are produced by an organism. In some cases, antitoxic immunity is more important than protecting against infection because some of the toxins produce disease when present in very small quantities. In other cases it is most important to protect against infection, often because there might be multiple virulence factors or toxins produced.

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29
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of Adescending tetanus@.

A

Clostridium tetani is introduced into a wound in spore form. The spores germinate and the organism produces tetanospasmin (tetanus toxin). The toxin is absorbed by the blood and lymph and transported throughout the body. It acts as a protease and blocks neurotransmitter release (specifically glycine and gamma aminobutyric acid) at the level of the spinal cord and brain stem. It selectively acts on the inhibitory nerve network and results in spastic paralysis. The nerves supplying the muscles of the head and neck are affected first followed by the respiratory muscles

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30
Q

Explain briefly how you would generate Clostridium botulinum polyvalent antitoxin.

A

(NOTE: This one gave the class fits because nobody seemed to know what polyvalent means and many students couldn=t explain how to even get antitoxin at all. There are several different toxins, A, B, C, D, E, F, etc., that are all immunologically distinct. Since the disease is very acute and we don=t have time to do the necessary tests to determine the exact toxin involved, one needs antitoxin to neutralize all of them.

Polyvalent antitoxin has antibodies to all the common toxins.) Answer: Probably the best method would be to hyperimmunize one or more horses with toxoids representing each of the main Clostridium botulinum toxin types. Bleed the horses and titer the serum antibody against the toxins to make sure you have high titers against each of the toxins. Then combine the different antibodies into a single polyvalent antitoxin. Alternatively, one could hyperimmunize one or more horses with toxoids representing all the main toxin types (a mixture of toxoids).

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31
Q

T or F Young calves do not usually maintain infection with Brucella abortus.

A

True

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32
Q

T or F In the U.S., brucellosis in cattle is now more commonly caused by biovars of Brucella suis than it is by Brucella abortus.

A

True

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33
Q

T or F Bordetella avium causes kennel cough in turkeys

A

False

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34
Q

T or F Thrombotic meningoencephalitis in feedlot cattle is usually seen in the spring and summer and is associated with a change in diet.

A

False

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35
Q

T or F Essentially all serotypes of Mannheimia haemolytica and Bibersteinia trehalosi produce the same leukotoxin.

A

True

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36
Q

T or F Cattle, sheep, goats and pigs are the major domestic animal species affected by Bibersteinia trehalosi.

A

False

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37
Q

T or F Bibersteinia trehalosi causes only respiratory tract disease in domestic animals.

A

False

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38
Q

T or F Mannheimia haemolytica type A2 is commonly found in the upper respiratory tract and tonsils of normal cattle.

A

True

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39
Q

T or F Most cattle going to slaughter in the U.S. have antibody against the organism that causes foot rot in cattle.

A

True

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40
Q

T or F Most feeder cattle going to slaughter in the U.S. have antibody against the organism that commonly causes liver abscesses.

A

True

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41
Q

T or F Actinobacillus equuli frequently infects the leg joints of foals with Asleepy foal disease@.

A

True

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42
Q

T or F Vaccination of mares has been shown to be of benefit in preventing Asleepy foal disease@ but treatment of affected foals with hyperimmune antisera is not very effective.

A

True

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43
Q

T or F Clinical disease caused by Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae is usually most severe in endemically-infected swine herds

A

False

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44
Q

T or F The clinical disease and lesions caused by Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae are almost indistinguishable from those caused by Haemophilus parasuis.

A

False

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45
Q

T or F The best control mechanism for fowl Acoryza@ is to maintain the birds on a therapeutic level of tetracycline in their rations for at least 3 weeks and then closely monitor their health for the following month.

A

False

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46
Q

T or F Histophilus somni is an important cause of abortion in cattle and sheep in the U.S.

A

False

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47
Q

T or F Endotoxin is thought to be the major toxin of Histophilus somni involved in disease production.

A

True

48
Q

T or F Septicemic infections with Histophilus somni in feedlot cattle usually occur 2 to 4 weeks following shipping and are more common in cold, wet weather.

A

True

49
Q

T or F The immune response in contagious equine metritis is relatively good and mares and stallions will usually clear the infection within 3 to 4 weeks.

A

False

50
Q

T or F Bordetella bronchiseptica attaches in its smooth phase via fimbria to the cilia of the nasal and bronchial epithelium of pigs.

A

True

51
Q

T or F Pasteurella multocida type D plays an important role in the development of kennel cough in dogs.

A

False

52
Q

T or F Moraxella bovis/Moraxella bovoculi are not considered to be very invasive organisms under normal conditions.

A

True

53
Q

T or F Most of the cases of tularemia in the U.S. are caused by biovar palaearctica.

A

False

54
Q

T or F Essentially all cytolytic toxins act by forming pores in target cell membranes.

A

False

55
Q

T or F Equine manure should not be used to fertilize garden soil because it markedly increases the chances of the gardener getting tetanus.

A

False

56
Q

T or F Fusobacterium necrophorum subspecies funduliforme is more important in human diseases than it is in diseases of domestic animals.

A

True

57
Q

T or F Campylobacter abortions in sheep can easily be prevented by placing the ewes on feed-grade antibiotics beginning 6-weeks prior to lambing.

A

False

58
Q

T or F Campylobacter abortions in sheep can be at least partially prevented by vaccinating ewes during the early portion of gestation

A

True

59
Q

T or F Campylobacter coli is a relatively common cause of disease in both domestic animals and humans.

A

False

60
Q

T or F Campylobacter coli is now thought to be transmitted to humans from normal intestinal flora of pigs

A

False

61
Q

T or F It is important to identify the species of any campylobacter found in the semen of bulls bound for export.

A

True

62
Q

T or F Brucella suis is more likely to cause sterility in swine than other Brucella species do in their main hosts.

A

True

63
Q

T or F Brucella pinnipediae and Brucella cetaceae are proposed names for Brucella associated with abortions in marine mammals

A

True

64
Q

Which of the following organisms does NOT have an RTX toxin that is important in production of disease?

a. Moraxella bovis
b. Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
c. Mannheimia haemolytica
d. Actinobacillus suis
e. Haemophilus parasuis

A

Haemophilus parasuis

65
Q

Which of the following is NOT caused by or associated with infection by Clostridium perfringens Type A?

a. Malignant edema
b. Yellow lamb disease
c. Enteritis in neonatal pigs
d. Gangrene in humans
e. Hemorrhagic bowel syndrome in dairy cattle

A

a. Malignant edema

66
Q

MacConkey=s agar with 1% dextrose is useful for isolating Bordetella bronchiseptica from nasal swabs because:

a. It is one of the few organisms that grow on MacConkey=s which does not ferment dextrose or lactose.
b. It is one of the few organisms in the nasal passages of pigs that grow on MacConkey=s.
c. It produces a characteristic green-colored colony that is unique to this organism.
d. All the above.
e. None of the above.

A

It is one of the few organisms that grow on MacConkey=s which does not ferment dextrose or lactose.

67
Q

Turkey poults can be partially protected against rhinotracheitis (coryza) by:

a. Vaccinating the breeder hen turkeys so that antibodies are passed in the egg.
b. Injecting all poults with an antibiotic shortly after hatching.
c. Keeping the water fountains cleaned out and the water adequately chlorinated.
d. All the above.
e. None of the above.

A

All the above.

68
Q

In order to successfully protect cattle, pinkeye vaccines:

a. Need to stimulate the production of IgM antibody against multiple fimbrial types.
b. Need to stimulate the production of IgA antibody against the O-Antigen of M. bovis.
c. Need to stimulate the production of IgG2 antibody against the cytotoxin/hemolysin.
d. All the above.
e. None of the above.

A

e. None of the above.

69
Q

Serologic tests for some Brucella species have to be re-run after treating an animal=s serum with a reducing agent because:

a. The reducing agent clarifies the serum so the test result can be seen.
b. The reducing agent breaks up non-specific IgG that could have formed against other bacterial antigens that are similar to those found in the Brucella species.
c. The reducing agent breaks up non-specific IgM that could have formed against other bacterial antigens that are similar to those found in the Brucella species.
d. All the above.
e. Only a and b above.

A

The reducing agent breaks up non-specific IgM that could have formed against other bacterial antigens that are similar to those found in the Brucella species.

70
Q

Contagious foot-rot in sheep:

a. Is most common during wet seasons.
b. Is most common in arid areas where sheep have to forage over large distances and are more prone to foot trauma.
c. Can easily be eradicated from a flock of sheep with a single, relatively simple foot-bath.
d. Only a and c above.
e. Only b and c above.

A

Is most common during wet seasons.

71
Q

Treatment of dogs infected with Brucella canis is not usually recommended because:

a. It is difficult to completely clear the organism from the dogs and they frequently remain carriers for life.
b. The organism is resistant to most antibiotics.
c. The dogs are usually very debilitated due to the infection and do not respond very well to treatment.
d. The dogs develop neurologic signs following the development of brain lesions and can become aggressive.
e. Only a and c above.

A

It is difficult to completely clear the organism from the dogs and they frequently remain carriers for life.

72
Q

__________________ is the name of the disease or lesion in foals caused by Lawsonia intracellularis.

A

Proliferative enteritis

73
Q

__________________ is an organism that can be transmitted from puppies but is most commonly transmitted to humans from undercooked or carelessly handled poultry.

A

Campylobacter jejuni

74
Q

___________________ is a cause of arthritis, pneumonia and skin lesions that can mimic those of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae in swine older than about 3 months.

A

Actinobacillus suis

75
Q

____________________________ is the cause of granulomatous, tumor-like infections usually in the head and neck area of cattle

A

Actinobacillus lignieresii

76
Q

_______________ is a term that best describes the oxygen requirement/tolerance of Campylobacter species

A

Microaerophilic

77
Q

_______________________ is a chronic, suppurative inflammation of the lateral cartilage of the third phalanx of horses.

A

Quittor

78
Q

____________________________ is the cause of contagious epididymitis and occasional abortions in sheep

A

Brucella ovis

79
Q

____________________________ is the cause of mesocolonic edema and mild diarrhea in 1-7-day-old piglets.

A

Clostridium difficile

80
Q

____________________________ is the cause of acute turbinate inflammation, airsacculitis, sneezing, conjunctivitis, anorexia and a marked loss in egg production in chickens.

A

Haemophilus paragallinarum

81
Q

____________________________ is commonly found in the upper respiratory tract of normal piglets but an important cause of polyserositis, arthritis and occasional meningitis in pigs.

A

Haemophilus parasuis

82
Q

____________________________ is associated with infection of verminous aneurysms in horses.

A

Actinobacillus equuli

83
Q

____________________________ is a cause of pneumonia, conjunctivitis, subcutaneous abscesses and mastitis in mice, rats, Guinea pigs and hamsters.

A

Pasteurella pneumotropica

84
Q

__________________________ are the animal species most commonly affected by infection with Clostridium piliformae.

A

Lab rodents, rats, mice

85
Q

_______________________________ is the best method for diagnosis of infections caused by Clostridium piliformae

A

Histopathology

86
Q

The typing systems used for classifying Pasteurella multocida are based on what two antigens:

A

Capsular antigens

Somatic antigens

87
Q

Briefly describe the clinical signs of undulant fever

A

Fever which rises and falls over a long period of time, profuse perspiration, joint and back pain, weakness, anorexia, depression

88
Q

Briefly discuss on an immunological basis why vaccination against Dichelobacter nodosus for ovine foot-rot is usually unable to prevent infection but may play a role in lessening the severity of infection

A

The vaccine can=t prevent the infection because the horny portion of the hoof is initially involved and there is almost nothing that systemic antibody can do at this site. Once deeper tissues start to be involved in the infection, antibody has a chance to reach the organism and lessen the severity

89
Q

List three diseases in three different species caused by Clostridium perfringens Type A.

A

Disease Animal species

Yellow lamb disease Sheep

Neonatal diarrhea Pigs

Possible hemorrhagic bowel syndrome Dairy cows

Necrotic enteritis in broiler chicks, severe enteritis in sheep and foals, Wound infections and gas gangrene in humans.

90
Q

List the three subspecies of Pasteurella multocida and discuss the significance of this organism into the subspecies

A

Subspecies multocida, septica and gallicida. This was an attempt to better classify the organisms causing disease in the different animal species based on genetic similarities between organisms but most of the disease is still caused by subspecies multocida and there really isn=t a very good correlation

91
Q

Administration of antimicrobials to help treat botulism is only useful under what circumstances?

A

In toxico-infectious or wound botulism. Several students indicated that it was only useful when given early in the Adisease@ which isn=t really correct since antimicrobials could be given at any stage of toxico-infectious or wound botulism

92
Q

T or F Campylobacter jejuni most commonly causes crypt abscesses and necrosis in the colon which leads to a bloody diarrhea

A

False

93
Q

T or F Macrolide antimicrobials are usually reserved for gram positive infections.

A

False

94
Q

T or F Gentamicin and spectinomycin (aminoglycosides) are especially useful against infections caused by anaerobic bacteria such as the Clostridia

A

False

95
Q

T or F Campylobacter fetus subspecies fetus is commonly found in the intestinal tracts of cattle.

A

True

96
Q

T or F Campylobacter fetus subspecies fetus is a common cause of abortion in cattle and early embryonic death and infertility in sheep and goats

A

False

97
Q

T or F Lack of specificity in serologic testing for brucellosis is usually due to the presence of cross-reacting IgA

A

False

98
Q

T or F The lack of specificity in serologic testing for Brucella ovis and B. canis is due to the fact that these organisms are naturally Arough@ and are therefore more likely to have the core region of LPS exposed.

A

True

99
Q

T or F Obligate anaerobes are unable to survive in the bloodstream and tissues and therefore do not usually cause systemic infections

A

False

100
Q

T or F Bacillary hemoglobinuria is thought to have been spread from America to other countries via importation of infected animals showing no clinical signs

A

True

101
Q

T or F Hepatic damage and necrosis is usually not observed in Black disease in sheep.

A

False

102
Q

T or F Blackleg usually only affects cattle

A

Flase

103
Q

T or F Botulinum toxins act at the level of the spinal cord and brainstem to cause flaccid paralysis.

A

False

104
Q

T or F Disease caused by Haemophilus parasuis is much less severe when immediately preceded by infection with a viral agent such as the influenza virus because the virus primes the immune system non-specifically.

A

False

105
Q

T or F IgA is the primary class of antibodies that protect against thrombotic meningoencephalitis in cattle.

A

False

106
Q

T or F The LOS of Histophilus somni is thought to induce apoptosis in endothelial cells.

A

True

107
Q

T or F Actinobacillus suis and A. pleuropneumoniae can cause almost identical respiratory tract lesions largely because they produce the same RTX toxins

A

True

108
Q

T or F Pigs that recover from contagious pleuropneumonia are relatively immune to multiple serotypes of the Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

A

True

109
Q

T or F Clostridium chauvoei is commonly associated with disease in swine

A

False

110
Q

The mechanism of action of cholera toxin is:

a. NAD-Dependent ADP ribosylation of elongation factor 2 (interrupts protein synthesis).
b. Pore-forming (RTX toxin) that damages mucosal epithelial cells
c. Thiol-activated (cholesterol sequestering or dependent) toxin that damages mucosal epithelial cells
d. Phospholipase that causes necrosis of intestinal epithelial cells.
e. None of the above.

A

none

111
Q

Clostridium septicum

a. Must be the dominant organism in lesions to be considered significant
b. Usually only causes disease when found in association with traumatic wounds to the skin.
c. Infection is correlated with the loss of deciduous teeth in cattle.
d. Is a frequent secondary invader in liver abscesses in cattle.
e. Produces a highly potent leukotoxin.

A

a. Must be the dominant organism in lesions to be considered significant
b. Usually only causes disease when found in association with traumatic wounds to the skin.

112
Q

Clostridium perfringens Type D:

a. Is usually associated with bacillary hemoglobinuria in cattle and other ruminant species.
b. Was originally isolated only from the Rocky Mountain areas of the western U.S.
c. Is commonly associated with blackleg in ruminants.
d. Is the main cause of enterotoxemia in piglets
e. None of the above

A

e. None of the above

113
Q

Anti-inflammatory agents such as corticosteroids and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents:

a. Are often of benefit in diseases where leukotoxins lyse phagocytic cells.
b. Are usually contraindicated in diseases where leukotoxins lyse phagocytic cells.
c. Are often of benefit in diseases where endotoxemia is not a problem.
d. Only a and c above.
e. Only b and c above

A

a. Are often of benefit in diseases where leukotoxins lyse phagocytic cells

114
Q

Match each of the following with the most common biotype, serotype or toxin type causing the disease:

__ Hemorrhagic septicemia A. Clostridium perfringens Type A
__ Bovine respiratory disease B. Clostridium perfringens Type D
__ Atrophic rhinitis C. Clostridium perfringens Type C
__ Fowl cholera D. Mannheimia haemolytica multiple serotypes
__Ovine enterotoxemia E. Mannheimia haemolytica A1
__ Bovine enterotoxemia F. Pasteurella multocida Capsular type A
__Ovine respiratory disease G. Bibersteinia trehalosi multiple serotypes
__Liver abscesses in feedlot cattle H. Pasteurella multocida Type F
I. Haemophilus influenzae Type B
J. None of the above.

A

__J__ Hemorrhagic septicemia

__E__ Bovine respiratory disease

F or J Atrophic rhinitis

__F__ Fowl cholera

__B__ Ovine enterotoxemia

__C__ Bovine enterotoxemia

__D__ Ovine respiratory disease

__J__ Liver abscesses in feedlot cattle

115
Q

Match each of the following organisms with their most common natural habitats:

____ Clostridium difficile A. Soil
____ Campylobacter fetus subspecies fetus B. Decaying vegetation at the bottom of ponds and
____ Bibersteinia trehalosi many other anaerobic environments.
___ Clostridium septicum C. Water and sewage
____ Pasteurella multocida Type B D. Intestinal tracts of horses
____ Actinobacillus equuli E. Intestinal tracts of sheep and cattle
____ Histophilus somni F. Upper respiratory tract and external genitalia of
____ Actinobacillus suis cattle
___ Clostridium botulinum G. Intestinal tracts of many animals
____ Actinobacillus lignieresii

A

__G__ Clostridium difficile

__E__ Campylobacter fetus subspecies fetus

__L__ Bibersteinia trehalosi

__G_ Clostridium septicum

__L__ Pasteurella multocida Type B

__D__ Actinobacillus equuli

__F__ Histophilus somni

__J__ Actinobacillus suis

B or G Clostridium botulinum

__K__ Actinobacillus lignieresii

Micro Exam 3 (17 decks)

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