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Micro Exam 3 > Past Exam 2006-2007 > Flashcards

Past Exam 2006-2007 Flashcards

1
Q

______________________________ is a halophilic organism common in shellfish that is a frequent cause of food poisoning in humans.

A

Vibrio parahemolyticus

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2
Q

______________________________ is the cause of severe osmotic diarrhea in humans and is most commonly associated with fecal contamination of food and water.

A

Vibrio cholerae

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3
Q

______________________________ is an organism frequently associated with esophageal lesions in feeder lambs that causes septicemia when it gains access to the blood.

A

Pasteurella trehalosi

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4
Q

______________________________ is an organism that dogs and causes the development of a hacking, paroxysmal cough of several days to weeks duration.

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica

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5
Q

______________________________ is an organism that can be detected in a dairy herd by testing a bulk tank sample of milk for antibody against the organism

A

______________________________ is an organism that can be detected in a dairy herd by testing a bulk tank sample of milk for antibody against the organism

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6
Q

______________________________ is the cause of contagious equine metritis.

A

Taylorella equigenitalis

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7
Q

______________________________ is an organism that produces a Afilamentous hemagglutinin@ and possibly pertactin and fimbriae that are thought to be involved in attachment to mammalian cells.

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica

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8
Q

___________________________ is a bacterial toxin that blocks the release of the neurotransmitters glycine and gamma-aminobutyric acid at the level of the spinal cord and brainstem

A

tetanospasmin

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9
Q

______________________________ is the organism most likely involved in the development of hemorrhagic bowel syndrome in cattle

A

Clostridium perfringens

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10
Q

______________________________ causes extensive myonecrosis that usually affects cattle 6 months to 2 years of age

A

Clostridium chauvoei

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11
Q

______________________________ causes mesocolonic edema in piglets 1-7 days of age and pseudomembraneous colitis in humans

A

Clostridium difficile

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12
Q

______________________________ infects wounds and causes the development of extensive subcutaneous pitting edema

A

Clostridium septicum

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13
Q

______________________________ is the bacterial organism considered to be the cause of foot-rot in cattle.

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

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14
Q

______________________________ is an organism that is frequently transmitted to humans through the consumption of unpasteurized goat milk

A

Brucella melitensis

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15
Q

Briefly describe the mechanism of action of the leukotoxin of Mannheimia haemolytica

A

It is an RTX toxin (forms pores in the cell membranes of ruminant leukocytes and platelets

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16
Q

What was done to Haemophilus influenzae type b vaccines that altered the immune response from a T-cell independent to a T-cell dependent response?

A

The type b capsular polysaccharide was conjugated with a protein such as tetanus toxoid or mutant diphtheria toxin

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17
Q

What is the proposed mechanism by which infection with Enterococcus faecalis or Escherichia coli lead to increased susceptibility to systemic infection and severe purulent meningitis caused by Neisseria meningitidis?

A

Co-infection or prior infection with E. faecalis or E. coli stimulates the production of IgA antibody that cross-reacts with N. meningitidis antigens. Once N. meningitidis produces a systemic infection, this IgA binds to the organism and blocks IgM and IgG from binding. Since IgA is non-opsonic, the N. meningitidis is able to avoid phagocytosis and killing, resulting in a fulminating septicemia

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18
Q

List the two major methods by which Francisella tularensis is transmitted to humans.

A

Transmitted by ticks or other arthropod vectors

Contact with infected rabbits (often gains entrance via the mucous membranes or by ingestion

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19
Q

List two major obstacles that have made eradication of Brucella suis in the U.S. difficult

A

Feral swine and occasionally other wildlife such as reindeer can be infected and we are unable to eradicate these animals. Only way to get rid of the infection is to slaughter these animals.

The serologic test gave a lot of false positives

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20
Q

The available immunizing products for use against foot-rot in sheep are considered to have marginal efficacy because:

a. The vaccines stimulate a T-cell independent response against fimbrial antigens.
b. The vaccines do not stimulate a CMI response.
c. IgG is required for protection and the vaccines only stimulate an IgA response.
d. All the above.
e. Only a and b above.
f. None of the above.

A

NONE of the above

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21
Q

Which of the following organisms is least likely to require some type of inducing agent or co-infection in order to produce disease?

a. Actinobacillus equuli
b. Pasteurella multocida
c. Mannheimia haemolytica
d. Moraxella bovis
e. Dichelobacter nodosus

A

Actinobacillus equuli

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22
Q

Which of the following seems to be less of a problem in so called a high health status swine herds?

a. Contagious pleuropneumonia (APP)
b. Polyserositis (Haemophilus parasuis infection)
c. Atrophic rhinitis
d. All the above
e. Only a and b above.

A

Atrophic rhinitis

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23
Q

Tyzzer=s disease:

a. Most commonly affects lab rodents, wild rabbits and muskrats.
b. Causes a severe meningitis.
c. Causes a severe nephritis.
d. All the above.
e. Only a and c above.

A

Most commonly affects lab rodents, wild rabbits and muskrats.

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24
Q

Which of the following causes a disease in swine that is most similar to contagious pleuropneumonia?

a. Haemophilus parasuis
b. Mannheimia haemolytica
c. Actinobacillus suis
d. Pasteurella trehalosi
e. Bordetella bronchiseptica

A

Actinobacillus suis

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25
Q

The major economic loss associated with Haemophilus paragallinarum infection is:

a. Mortality due to respiratory disease.
b. Decrease in growth rate and lack of feed efficiency in broiler chickens.
c. Chronic lameness.
d. Immunosuppression that leads to serious problems with a variety of secondary invaders.
e. Loss of egg production in layer hens.

A

Loss of egg production in layer hens

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26
Q

Histophilus somni:

a. Is the most common cause of bacterial respiratory disease in sheep.
b. Produces a lipo-oligosaccharide that may play a role in apoptosis of endothelial cells.
c. Causes respiratory infection most commonly in late winter and early spring months.
d. Rarely produces systemic disease.
e. Requires a source of adenine, guanine and GMP or it will not grow

A

Produces a lipo-oligosaccharide that may play a role in apoptosis of endothelial cells.

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27
Q

Which of the following organisms has recently been incriminated as a cause of peritonitis in chickens and is thought by some to work in combination with Escherichia coli?

a. Bordetella avium
b. Actinobacillus seminis
c. Haemophilus paragallinarum
d. Gallibacterium anatis
e. Clostridium colinum

A

Gallibacterium anatis

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28
Q

Some members of the genus Bordetella:

a. Produce severe systemic infections after gaining access to the blood through the respiratory tract.
b. Destroy ciliated tracheal epithelium leading to secondary bacterial infection.
c. Are usually restricted to growth in the respiratory tract and do not invade other tissues.
d. Cause severe systemic disease by the elaboration of toxins.
e. Only a, b and d above.
f. Only b, c and d above.

A

Only b, c and d above

b. Destroy ciliated tracheal epithelium leading to secondary bacterial infection.
c. Are usually restricted to growth in the respiratory tract and do not invade other tissues.
d. Cause severe systemic disease by the elaboration of toxins.

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29
Q

Immunization against Moraxella bovis:

a. Has been difficult because there are several fimbrial types that must be protected against.
b. Killed bacterins have not been effective in stimulating an IgA response in the tears that is necessary for good protection.
c. The dominant cell antigens have stimulated only a weak T-cell independent response.
d. The killed bacterins have not stimulated a good CMI response that is necessary for preventing infection.
e. All the above.
f. Only a and b above
g. Only c and d above.

A

Only a and b above

a. Has been difficult because there are several fimbrial types that must be protected against.
b. Killed bacterins have not been effective in stimulating an IgA response in the tears that is necessary for good protection.

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30
Q

Therapy against botulism poisoning:

a. Requires aggressive antimicrobial therapy.
b. Requires timely treatment with polyvalent antitoxin.
c. Usually produces rapid improvement.
d. All the above.

A

Requires timely treatment with polyvalent antitoxin.

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31
Q

T or F A successful immune response in tularemia is primarily humoral

A

False

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32
Q

T or F The typhoidal form of tularemia is the most common in humans

A

False

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33
Q

T or F The toxins of Clostridium botulinum are readily destroyed by boiling for 3 minutes

A

True

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34
Q

T or F Clostridium difficile is considered to be normal flora in the intestinal tract of adult horses

A

False

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35
Q

T or F When sheep with foot-rot are removed from a pasture, that pasture is safe for other sheep in about 2 weeks

A

True

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36
Q

T or F Dichelobacter nodosus is frequently involved in post-partum metritis in dairy cattle

A

False

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37
Q

T or F Brucella abortus only causes abortions in cattle

A

False

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38
Q

T or F Vaccination against Brucella abortus is limited to female calves approximately 3 to 8 months of age.

A

True

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39
Q

T or F IgA immobilizes Campylobacter fetus subspecies venerealis in the vagina and prevents higher penetration of the reproductive tract

A

True

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40
Q

_____________________ causes contagious pleuropneumonia in swine

A

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

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41
Q

___________________ causes acute enteritis and septicemia in newborn foals and can infect verminous aneurysms in adult horses.

A

Actinobacillus equuli

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42
Q

_____________________ is the proposed species name of a Brucella sp. that apparently causes disease in marine mammals.

A

maris

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43
Q

_________________________________ is the cause of mesocolonic edema and mild enteritis in 1- to 7-day-old pigs

A

Clostridium difficile

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44
Q

_________________________________ is the cause of proliferative enteritis in foals

A

Lawsonia intracellularis

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45
Q

_________________________________ is the cause of proliferative enteritis in swine.

A

Lawsonia intracellularis

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46
Q

_________________________________ is an organism that causes extensive muscle necrosis in ruminants, especially cattle between 6 months and 2 years of age.

A

Clostridium chauvoei

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47
Q

____________________ is a halophilic organism that is a frequent cause of food poisoning associated with raw or undercooked shellfish

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

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48
Q

_________________________________ is the cause of contagious epididymitis and occasional abortion in sheep

A

Brucella ovis

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49
Q

__________________is the cause of Glasser=s disease

A

Haemophilus parasuis

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50
Q

_________ infects the soft tissues of the lower jaw, neck and tongue resulting in the formation of granulomatous abscesses.

A

Actinobacillus lignieresii

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51
Q

_________________________________ is the organism associated with acute gastritis and gastric and duodenal ulcers in humans.

A

Helicobacter pylori

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52
Q

The available immunizing products for use against foot-rot in sheep are considered to have marginal efficacy because:

a. The vaccines stimulate a T-cell independent response against fimbrial antigens.
b. The vaccines do not stimulate a CMI response.
c. IgG is required for protection and the vaccines only stimulate an IgA response.
d. All the above.
e. Only a and b above.
f. None of the above.

A

NONE of the above

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53
Q

Which of the following organisms is least likely to require some type of inducing agent or co-infection in order to produce disease?

a. Actinobacillus equuli
b. Pasteurella multocida
c. Mannheimia haemolytica
d. Moraxella bovis
e. Dichelobacter nodosus

A

Actinobacillus equuli

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54
Q

_________________________________ has been recognized relatively recently as a major cause of enteric disease in pigs that to some extent mimics E. coli infection

A

Clostridium perfringens type A

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55
Q

_________________________________ and _________________________________ are the two major causes of bacterial meningitis in humans.

A

Neisseria meningitidis

Haemophilus influenzae

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56
Q

Which of the following causes a disease in swine that is most similar to contagious pleuropneumonia?

a. Haemophilus parasuis
b. Mannheimia haemolytica
c. Actinobacillus suis
d. Pasteurella trehalosi
e. Bordetella bronchiseptica

A

Actinobacillus suis

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57
Q

The major economic loss associated with Haemophilus paragallinarum infection is:

a. Mortality due to respiratory disease.
b. Decrease in growth rate and lack of feed efficiency in broiler chickens.
c. Chronic lameness.
d. Immunosuppression that leads to serious problems with a variety of secondary invaders.
e. Loss of egg production in layer hens.

A

Loss of egg production in layer hens

58
Q

Histophilus somni:

a. Is the most common cause of bacterial respiratory disease in sheep.
b. Produces a lipo-oligosaccharide that may play a role in apoptosis of endothelial cells.
c. Causes respiratory infection most commonly in late winter and early spring months.
d. Rarely produces systemic disease.
e. Requires a source of adenine, guanine and GMP or it will not grow

A

Produces a lipo-oligosaccharide that may play a role in apoptosis of endothelial cells.

59
Q

Which of the following organisms has recently been incriminated as a cause of peritonitis in chickens and is thought by some to work in combination with Escherichia coli?

a. Bordetella avium
b. Actinobacillus seminis
c. Haemophilus paragallinarum
d. Gallibacterium anatis
e. Clostridium colinum

A

Gallibacterium anatis

60
Q

_________________________________ and _________________________________ are the two rough species of Brucella (ie., they do not possess either the A or M antigens).

A

ovis and canis

61
Q

___________________________ is an infection caused by infection with Clostridium septicum.

A

malignant edema

62
Q

Therapy against botulism poisoning:

a. Requires aggressive antimicrobial therapy.
b. Requires timely treatment with polyvalent antitoxin.
c. Usually produces rapid improvement.
d. All the above.

A

Requires timely treatment with polyvalent antitoxin.

63
Q

T or F A successful immune response in tularemia is primarily humoral

A

False

64
Q

T or F The typhoidal form of tularemia is the most common in humans

A

False

65
Q

T or F The toxins of Clostridium botulinum are readily destroyed by boiling for 3 minutes

A

True

66
Q

T or F Clostridium difficile is considered to be normal flora in the intestinal tract of adult horses

A

False

67
Q

T or F When sheep with foot-rot are removed from a pasture, that pasture is safe for other sheep in about 2 weeks

A

True

68
Q

T or F Dichelobacter nodosus is frequently involved in post-partum metritis in dairy cattle

A

False

69
Q

T or F Brucella abortus only causes abortions in cattle

A

False

70
Q

T or F Vaccination against Brucella abortus is limited to female calves approximately 3 to 8 months of age.

A

True

71
Q

T or F IgA immobilizes Campylobacter fetus subspecies venerealis in the vagina and prevents higher penetration of the reproductive tract

A

True

72
Q

_____________________ causes contagious pleuropneumonia in swine

A

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

73
Q

___________________ causes acute enteritis and septicemia in newborn foals and can infect verminous aneurysms in adult horses.

A

Actinobacillus equuli

74
Q

_____________________ is the proposed species name of a Brucella sp. that apparently causes disease in marine mammals.

A

maris

75
Q

_________________________________ is the cause of mesocolonic edema and mild enteritis in 1- to 7-day-old pigs

A

Clostridium difficile

76
Q

_________________________________ is the cause of proliferative enteritis in foals

A

Lawsonia intracellularis

77
Q

_________________________________ is the cause of proliferative enteritis in swine.

A

Lawsonia intracellularis

78
Q

_________________________________ is an organism that causes extensive muscle necrosis in ruminants, especially cattle between 6 months and 2 years of age.

A

Clostridium chauvoei

79
Q

____________________ is a halophilic organism that is a frequent cause of food poisoning associated with raw or undercooked shellfish

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

80
Q

_________________________________ is the cause of contagious epididymitis and occasional abortion in sheep

A

Brucella ovis

81
Q

__________________is the cause of Glasser=s disease

A

Haemophilus parasuis

82
Q

_________ infects the soft tissues of the lower jaw, neck and tongue resulting in the formation of granulomatous abscesses.

A

Actinobacillus lignieresii

83
Q

_________________________________ is the organism associated with acute gastritis and gastric and duodenal ulcers in humans.

A

Helicobacter pylori

84
Q

_________________________________ is the cause of infectious necrotic hepatitis and the production of extensive blood-stained subcutaneous edema primarily in sheep

A

Clostridium novyi type B

85
Q

_________________________________ is associated with hemorrhagic bowel syndrome in adult dairy cattle.

A

Clostridium perfringens type A

86
Q

_________________________________ has been recognized relatively recently as a major cause of enteric disease in pigs that to some extent mimics E. coli infection

A

Clostridium perfringens type A

87
Q

_________________________________ is assumed to be the cause of acute death in feeder lambs until proven otherwise.

A

Clostridium perfringens type D

88
Q

_________________________ is a diarrheal disease of hamsters that is caused by Lawsonia intracellularis, E. coli, Campylobacter jejuni and other bacterial organisms

A

wet tail

89
Q

_________________________________ is an organism that produces a potent toxin that results in lysis of up to 50 to 60% of the RBC=s of infected cattle, deer or elk.

A

Clostridium haemolyticum

90
Q

_________________________________ and _________________________________ are the two screening tests used to detect animals or herds infected with Brucella abortus.

A

Card Test

Milk Ring Test

91
Q

_________________________________ and _________________________________ are the two rough species of Brucella (ie., they do not possess either the A or M antigens).

A

ovis and canis

92
Q

___________________________ is an infection caused by infection with Clostridium septicum.

A

malignant edema

93
Q

_________________________________ and _________________________________ are components of media required by Haemophilus species.

A

NAD and hemin

94
Q

is the disease caused by Pasteurella multocida subspecies septica (formerly types B and E).

A

hemorrhagic septicemia

95
Q

__________________ is the cause of fowl coryza.

A

Haemophilus paragallinarum

96
Q

__________is the cause of whooping cough in humans

A

Bordetella pertussis

97
Q

___________________________ is an organism that is widespread in South African sheep populations that localizes in the epididymis and testes leading to decreased fertility.

A

Actinobacillis seminis

98
Q

___________causes a localized infection of the reproductive tract of mares characterized by vaginitis, cervicitis and endometritis

A

Taylorella equigenitalis

99
Q

are two different genera covered in this section of material that are facultative intracellular parasites.

A

Brucella, Francisella, Legionella

100
Q

___________________ is the etiologic agent of fowl cholera.

A

Pasteurella multocida

101
Q

T or F Clostridium septicum almost always enters tissues via wounds rather than through the intestinal tract.

A

True

102
Q

T or F Brucella melitensis is frequently found in goats in the Southwestern U.S. as a result of illegal importation of goats from Mexico.

A

False

103
Q

T or F Brucella canis infections are most common in large kennels in the Southeastern U.S. and in feral dog populations in developing countries.

A

True

104
Q

T or F Campylobacter coli is commonly isolated from pig intestinal contents and feces but the major concern with this organism is the potential it has for serving as a source of antimicrobial resistance genes for C. jejuni.

A

True

105
Q

T or F Brucella suis produces a more generalized disease than the other species of Brucella and is more likely to cause sterility in swine.

A

True

106
Q

T or F When present in high titers, antibody against the fimbrial antigens of Dichelobacter nodosus can be moderately protective against contagious ovine footrot.

A

True

107
Q

_________________________________ and _________________________________ are components of media required by Haemophilus species.

A

NAD and hemin

108
Q

is the disease caused by Pasteurella multocida subspecies septica (formerly types B and E).

A

hemorrhagic septicemia

109
Q

__________________ is the cause of fowl coryza.

A

Haemophilus paragallinarum

110
Q

__________is the cause of whooping cough in humans

A

Bordetella pertussis

111
Q

___________________________ is an organism that is widespread in South African sheep populations that localizes in the epididymis and testes leading to decreased fertility.

A

Actinobacillis seminis

112
Q

___________causes a localized infection of the reproductive tract of mares characterized by vaginitis, cervicitis and endometritis

A

Taylorella equigenitalis

113
Q

are two different genera covered in this section of material that are facultative intracellular parasites.

A

Brucella, Francisella, Legionella

114
Q

___________________ is the etiologic agent of fowl cholera.

A

Pasteurella multocida

115
Q

T or F Clostridium septicum almost always enters tissues via wounds rather than through the intestinal tract.

A

True

116
Q

T or F Brucella melitensis is frequently found in goats in the Southwestern U.S. as a result of illegal importation of goats from Mexico.

A

False

117
Q

T or F Brucella canis infections are most common in large kennels in the Southeastern U.S. and in feral dog populations in developing countries.

A

True

118
Q

T or F Campylobacter coli is commonly isolated from pig intestinal contents and feces but the major concern with this organism is the potential it has for serving as a source of antimicrobial resistance genes for C. jejuni.

A

True

119
Q

T or F Brucella suis produces a more generalized disease than the other species of Brucella and is more likely to cause sterility in swine.

A

True

120
Q

T or F When present in high titers, antibody against the fimbrial antigens of Dichelobacter nodosus can be moderately protective against contagious ovine footrot.

A

True

121
Q

T or F The reason the available bacterins are not protective against contagious ovine footrot is that they only stimulate a CMI response

A

False

122
Q

T or F Clostridium difficile is almost never isolated from normal foals less than 2 weeks of age and when it is isolated from this age of a foal it is usually associated with disease

A

False

123
Q

T or F The most common form of tularemia is the typhoidal form that is contracted by ingesting the organism in rabbit tissues

A

False

124
Q

T or F Diagnosis of tularemia in humans usually relies upon an agglutination test on patient serum

A

True

125
Q

T or F Biochemical identification of Francisella tularensis is difficult and somewhat dangerous and is usually replaced by a fluorescent antibody test to determine the identity of the organism

A

True

126
Q

T or F Alcaligenes faecalis is one of the most commonly isolated causes of urinary tract infections in dogs

A

False

127
Q

T or F Some hatcheries routinely treat all newly hatched turkey poults with an antibiotic to help prevent bordetellosis

A

True

128
Q

T or F Covalently linking a protein to the type b capsular polysaccharide of Haemophilus influenzae resulted in converting the immune response to the capsule to a CMI response

A

False

129
Q

T or F Successful immunizing products against Mannheimia haemolytica need to stimulate a strong antibody response against the leukotoxin in order to provide protective immunity

A

False (FYI: some of the best vaccines contain no leukotoxoid and stimulate no antibody against the leukotoxin.)

130
Q

Briefly discuss the cause of the false positive reactions occasionally observed with serologic tests for Brucella abortus and describe how these false positive reactions are eliminated

A

IgM antibodies formed against the polysaccharide antigens of other bacteria can agglutinate the Brucella antigens and cause false positive reactions. To eliminate these, one needs to treat the serum of the suspect animal with a reducing agent such as dithiothreitol or 2-mercapto-ethanol to break up the IgM into monomeric units (rather than the pentomer). FYI: If any cattle are still surviving that were vaccinated with the old Strain 19 vaccine, they are not false positives. They usually have a titer, but it is a low titer and are not considered false positives. If they have a high titer, they would be considered positive

131
Q

List three main diseases associated with Fusobacterium necrophorum infection in cattle

A

a. Foot rot
b. post-partum metritis
c. calf diphtheria, or liver abscesses

132
Q

Describe the etiology and pathogenesis of campylobacterial reproductive infections in cattle

A

Etiology is Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis. Transmitted by breeding, resides in the cervix and vagina until the progestational phase then moves into the uterus and causes a moderate endometritis and salpingitis leading to failure of implantation of the developing embryo. It takes 4 to 5 months or so before an IgG response is able to clear the organism from the uterus

133
Q

List two important mechanisms of action of the cytotoxin of Moraxella bovis.

A

a. Damages corneal epithelial cells

b. Lyses neutrophils which release their hydrolytic enzymes onto the surface of the cornea

134
Q

List three diseases caused by Mannheimia haemolytica in sheep.

A

Respiratory disease
Mastitis in ewes
Septicemia in newborn lambs (respiratory transmission)

135
Q

Briefly describe how Tyzzer=s disease is transmitted.

A

The organism is excreted in the feces and contaminates bedding and plant material. From there it is ingested

136
Q

Briefly describe the two theories as to how blackleg is initiated in cattle

A

a. It might get into the tissues in spore form and be present in the muscle tissue of cattle. The tissues may then be damaged, setting up anaerobic conditions conducive to the growth of the organism.
b. Another theory is that it gains access to tissues via the dental alveoli when the deciduous teeth are lost starting at about 6 months of age.

137
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of toxico-infectious botulism

A

Clostridium botulinum is ingested and establishes an infection in the intestinal tract of a neonate (normal flora has not been established). The organism elaborates botulinum toxin which is absorbed and causes paresis or paralysis, vision disturbances, inappetence or inability to eat, etc

138
Q

Since Clostridium tetani is relatively common in intestinal tracts and as spores in the soil, why do animals require repeated vaccination for protection rather than relying on vaccination followed by natural exposure?

A

On natural exposure, not enough of the toxin is produced to stimulate an immune response

139
Q

What is the major route of transmission of Bordetella avium among turkeys and what is one common method utilized for helping prevent transmission?

A

Route of transmission: _ingestion via water and subsequent bathing of the oropharynx.

Method for prevention: _chlorination of water and making sure they have clean water

140
Q

List three different diseases in three different animal species caused by Bordetella bronchiseptica. List the species of animal affected by each.

A

Animal Disease

a. _Dogs kennel cough
b. _Cats upper respiratory tract infection (sinusitis, etc.)

c. _Pigs______________________ __non-progressive atrophic rhinitis______
rabbits (snuffles-like disease)

141
Q

List two major toxins or virulence factors of Histophilus somni and describe the function of each.

A

LPS or endotoxin causes apoptosis of vascular endothelial cells

Fc-receptor proteins attach antibody to the organism via the Fc receptor, thus coating the organism with host proteins.

Adenine, Guanine, GMP may trick phagocytic cells into sensing that the organism is already dead.

Micro Exam 3 (17 decks)

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