Past Exam 2006-2007 Flashcards
1
Q
______________________________ is a halophilic organism common in shellfish that is a frequent cause of food poisoning in humans.
A
Vibrio parahemolyticus
2
Q
______________________________ is the cause of severe osmotic diarrhea in humans and is most commonly associated with fecal contamination of food and water.
A
Vibrio cholerae
3
Q
______________________________ is an organism frequently associated with esophageal lesions in feeder lambs that causes septicemia when it gains access to the blood.
A
Pasteurella trehalosi
4
Q
______________________________ is an organism that dogs and causes the development of a hacking, paroxysmal cough of several days to weeks duration.
A
Bordetella bronchiseptica
5
Q
______________________________ is an organism that can be detected in a dairy herd by testing a bulk tank sample of milk for antibody against the organism
A
______________________________ is an organism that can be detected in a dairy herd by testing a bulk tank sample of milk for antibody against the organism
6
Q
______________________________ is the cause of contagious equine metritis.
A
Taylorella equigenitalis
7
Q
______________________________ is an organism that produces a Afilamentous hemagglutinin@ and possibly pertactin and fimbriae that are thought to be involved in attachment to mammalian cells.
A
Bordetella bronchiseptica
8
Q
___________________________ is a bacterial toxin that blocks the release of the neurotransmitters glycine and gamma-aminobutyric acid at the level of the spinal cord and brainstem
A
tetanospasmin
9
Q
______________________________ is the organism most likely involved in the development of hemorrhagic bowel syndrome in cattle
A
Clostridium perfringens
10
Q
______________________________ causes extensive myonecrosis that usually affects cattle 6 months to 2 years of age
A
Clostridium chauvoei
11
Q
______________________________ causes mesocolonic edema in piglets 1-7 days of age and pseudomembraneous colitis in humans
A
Clostridium difficile
12
Q
______________________________ infects wounds and causes the development of extensive subcutaneous pitting edema
A
Clostridium septicum
13
Q
______________________________ is the bacterial organism considered to be the cause of foot-rot in cattle.
A
Fusobacterium necrophorum
14
Q
______________________________ is an organism that is frequently transmitted to humans through the consumption of unpasteurized goat milk
A
Brucella melitensis
15
Q
Briefly describe the mechanism of action of the leukotoxin of Mannheimia haemolytica
A
It is an RTX toxin (forms pores in the cell membranes of ruminant leukocytes and platelets
16
Q
What was done to Haemophilus influenzae type b vaccines that altered the immune response from a T-cell independent to a T-cell dependent response?
A
The type b capsular polysaccharide was conjugated with a protein such as tetanus toxoid or mutant diphtheria toxin
17
Q
What is the proposed mechanism by which infection with Enterococcus faecalis or Escherichia coli lead to increased susceptibility to systemic infection and severe purulent meningitis caused by Neisseria meningitidis?
A
Co-infection or prior infection with E. faecalis or E. coli stimulates the production of IgA antibody that cross-reacts with N. meningitidis antigens. Once N. meningitidis produces a systemic infection, this IgA binds to the organism and blocks IgM and IgG from binding. Since IgA is non-opsonic, the N. meningitidis is able to avoid phagocytosis and killing, resulting in a fulminating septicemia
18
Q
List the two major methods by which Francisella tularensis is transmitted to humans.
A
Transmitted by ticks or other arthropod vectors
Contact with infected rabbits (often gains entrance via the mucous membranes or by ingestion
19
Q
List two major obstacles that have made eradication of Brucella suis in the U.S. difficult
A
Feral swine and occasionally other wildlife such as reindeer can be infected and we are unable to eradicate these animals. Only way to get rid of the infection is to slaughter these animals.
The serologic test gave a lot of false positives
20
Q
The available immunizing products for use against foot-rot in sheep are considered to have marginal efficacy because:
a. The vaccines stimulate a T-cell independent response against fimbrial antigens.
b. The vaccines do not stimulate a CMI response.
c. IgG is required for protection and the vaccines only stimulate an IgA response.
d. All the above.
e. Only a and b above.
f. None of the above.
A
NONE of the above
21
Q
Which of the following organisms is least likely to require some type of inducing agent or co-infection in order to produce disease?
a. Actinobacillus equuli
b. Pasteurella multocida
c. Mannheimia haemolytica
d. Moraxella bovis
e. Dichelobacter nodosus
A
Actinobacillus equuli
22
Q
Which of the following seems to be less of a problem in so called a high health status swine herds?
a. Contagious pleuropneumonia (APP)
b. Polyserositis (Haemophilus parasuis infection)
c. Atrophic rhinitis
d. All the above
e. Only a and b above.
A
Atrophic rhinitis
23
Q
Tyzzer=s disease:
a. Most commonly affects lab rodents, wild rabbits and muskrats.
b. Causes a severe meningitis.
c. Causes a severe nephritis.
d. All the above.
e. Only a and c above.
A
Most commonly affects lab rodents, wild rabbits and muskrats.
24
Q
Which of the following causes a disease in swine that is most similar to contagious pleuropneumonia?
a. Haemophilus parasuis
b. Mannheimia haemolytica
c. Actinobacillus suis
d. Pasteurella trehalosi
e. Bordetella bronchiseptica
A
Actinobacillus suis
25
The major economic loss associated with Haemophilus paragallinarum infection is:
a. Mortality due to respiratory disease.
b. Decrease in growth rate and lack of feed efficiency in broiler chickens.
c. Chronic lameness.
d. Immunosuppression that leads to serious problems with a variety of secondary invaders.
e. Loss of egg production in layer hens.
Loss of egg production in layer hens
26
Histophilus somni:
a. Is the most common cause of bacterial respiratory disease in sheep.
b. Produces a lipo-oligosaccharide that may play a role in apoptosis of endothelial cells.
c. Causes respiratory infection most commonly in late winter and early spring months.
d. Rarely produces systemic disease.
e. Requires a source of adenine, guanine and GMP or it will not grow
Produces a lipo-oligosaccharide that may play a role in apoptosis of endothelial cells.
27
Which of the following organisms has recently been incriminated as a cause of peritonitis in chickens and is thought by some to work in combination with Escherichia coli?
a. Bordetella avium
b. Actinobacillus seminis
c. Haemophilus paragallinarum
d. Gallibacterium anatis
e. Clostridium colinum
Gallibacterium anatis
28
Some members of the genus Bordetella:
a. Produce severe systemic infections after gaining access to the blood through the respiratory tract.
b. Destroy ciliated tracheal epithelium leading to secondary bacterial infection.
c. Are usually restricted to growth in the respiratory tract and do not invade other tissues.
d. Cause severe systemic disease by the elaboration of toxins.
e. Only a, b and d above.
f. Only b, c and d above.
Only b, c and d above
b. Destroy ciliated tracheal epithelium leading to secondary bacterial infection.
c. Are usually restricted to growth in the respiratory tract and do not invade other tissues.
d. Cause severe systemic disease by the elaboration of toxins.
29
Immunization against Moraxella bovis:
a. Has been difficult because there are several fimbrial types that must be protected against.
b. Killed bacterins have not been effective in stimulating an IgA response in the tears that is necessary for good protection.
c. The dominant cell antigens have stimulated only a weak T-cell independent response.
d. The killed bacterins have not stimulated a good CMI response that is necessary for preventing infection.
e. All the above.
f. Only a and b above
g. Only c and d above.
Only a and b above
a. Has been difficult because there are several fimbrial types that must be protected against.
b. Killed bacterins have not been effective in stimulating an IgA response in the tears that is necessary for good protection.
30
Therapy against botulism poisoning:
a. Requires aggressive antimicrobial therapy.
b. Requires timely treatment with polyvalent antitoxin.
c. Usually produces rapid improvement.
d. All the above.
Requires timely treatment with polyvalent antitoxin.
31
T or F A successful immune response in tularemia is primarily humoral
False
32
T or F The typhoidal form of tularemia is the most common in humans
False
33
T or F The toxins of Clostridium botulinum are readily destroyed by boiling for 3 minutes
True
34
T or F Clostridium difficile is considered to be normal flora in the intestinal tract of adult horses
False
35
T or F When sheep with foot-rot are removed from a pasture, that pasture is safe for other sheep in about 2 weeks
True
36
T or F Dichelobacter nodosus is frequently involved in post-partum metritis in dairy cattle
False
37
T or F Brucella abortus only causes abortions in cattle
False
38
T or F Vaccination against Brucella abortus is limited to female calves approximately 3 to 8 months of age.
True
39
T or F IgA immobilizes Campylobacter fetus subspecies venerealis in the vagina and prevents higher penetration of the reproductive tract
True
40
_____________________ causes contagious pleuropneumonia in swine
Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
41
___________________ causes acute enteritis and septicemia in newborn foals and can infect verminous aneurysms in adult horses.
Actinobacillus equuli
42
_____________________ is the proposed species name of a Brucella sp. that apparently causes disease in marine mammals.
maris
43
_________________________________ is the cause of mesocolonic edema and mild enteritis in 1- to 7-day-old pigs
Clostridium difficile
44
_________________________________ is the cause of proliferative enteritis in foals
Lawsonia intracellularis
45
_________________________________ is the cause of proliferative enteritis in swine.
Lawsonia intracellularis
46
_________________________________ is an organism that causes extensive muscle necrosis in ruminants, especially cattle between 6 months and 2 years of age.
Clostridium chauvoei
47
____________________ is a halophilic organism that is a frequent cause of food poisoning associated with raw or undercooked shellfish
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
48
_________________________________ is the cause of contagious epididymitis and occasional abortion in sheep
Brucella ovis
49
__________________is the cause of Glasser=s disease
Haemophilus parasuis
50
_________ infects the soft tissues of the lower jaw, neck and tongue resulting in the formation of granulomatous abscesses.
Actinobacillus lignieresii
51
_________________________________ is the organism associated with acute gastritis and gastric and duodenal ulcers in humans.
Helicobacter pylori
52
The available immunizing products for use against foot-rot in sheep are considered to have marginal efficacy because:
a. The vaccines stimulate a T-cell independent response against fimbrial antigens.
b. The vaccines do not stimulate a CMI response.
c. IgG is required for protection and the vaccines only stimulate an IgA response.
d. All the above.
e. Only a and b above.
f. None of the above.
NONE of the above
53
Which of the following organisms is least likely to require some type of inducing agent or co-infection in order to produce disease?
a. Actinobacillus equuli
b. Pasteurella multocida
c. Mannheimia haemolytica
d. Moraxella bovis
e. Dichelobacter nodosus
Actinobacillus equuli
54
_________________________________ has been recognized relatively recently as a major cause of enteric disease in pigs that to some extent mimics E. coli infection
Clostridium perfringens type A
55
_________________________________ and _________________________________ are the two major causes of bacterial meningitis in humans.
Neisseria meningitidis
Haemophilus influenzae
56
Which of the following causes a disease in swine that is most similar to contagious pleuropneumonia?
a. Haemophilus parasuis
b. Mannheimia haemolytica
c. Actinobacillus suis
d. Pasteurella trehalosi
e. Bordetella bronchiseptica
Actinobacillus suis
57
The major economic loss associated with Haemophilus paragallinarum infection is:
a. Mortality due to respiratory disease.
b. Decrease in growth rate and lack of feed efficiency in broiler chickens.
c. Chronic lameness.
d. Immunosuppression that leads to serious problems with a variety of secondary invaders.
e. Loss of egg production in layer hens.
Loss of egg production in layer hens
58
Histophilus somni:
a. Is the most common cause of bacterial respiratory disease in sheep.
b. Produces a lipo-oligosaccharide that may play a role in apoptosis of endothelial cells.
c. Causes respiratory infection most commonly in late winter and early spring months.
d. Rarely produces systemic disease.
e. Requires a source of adenine, guanine and GMP or it will not grow
Produces a lipo-oligosaccharide that may play a role in apoptosis of endothelial cells.
59
Which of the following organisms has recently been incriminated as a cause of peritonitis in chickens and is thought by some to work in combination with Escherichia coli?
a. Bordetella avium
b. Actinobacillus seminis
c. Haemophilus paragallinarum
d. Gallibacterium anatis
e. Clostridium colinum
Gallibacterium anatis
60
_________________________________ and _________________________________ are the two rough species of Brucella (ie., they do not possess either the A or M antigens).
ovis and canis
61
___________________________ is an infection caused by infection with Clostridium septicum.
malignant edema
62
Therapy against botulism poisoning:
a. Requires aggressive antimicrobial therapy.
b. Requires timely treatment with polyvalent antitoxin.
c. Usually produces rapid improvement.
d. All the above.
Requires timely treatment with polyvalent antitoxin.
63
T or F A successful immune response in tularemia is primarily humoral
False
64
T or F The typhoidal form of tularemia is the most common in humans
False
65
T or F The toxins of Clostridium botulinum are readily destroyed by boiling for 3 minutes
True
66
T or F Clostridium difficile is considered to be normal flora in the intestinal tract of adult horses
False
67
T or F When sheep with foot-rot are removed from a pasture, that pasture is safe for other sheep in about 2 weeks
True
68
T or F Dichelobacter nodosus is frequently involved in post-partum metritis in dairy cattle
False
69
T or F Brucella abortus only causes abortions in cattle
False
70
T or F Vaccination against Brucella abortus is limited to female calves approximately 3 to 8 months of age.
True
71
T or F IgA immobilizes Campylobacter fetus subspecies venerealis in the vagina and prevents higher penetration of the reproductive tract
True
72
_____________________ causes contagious pleuropneumonia in swine
Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
73
___________________ causes acute enteritis and septicemia in newborn foals and can infect verminous aneurysms in adult horses.
Actinobacillus equuli
74
_____________________ is the proposed species name of a Brucella sp. that apparently causes disease in marine mammals.
maris
75
_________________________________ is the cause of mesocolonic edema and mild enteritis in 1- to 7-day-old pigs
Clostridium difficile
76
_________________________________ is the cause of proliferative enteritis in foals
Lawsonia intracellularis
77
_________________________________ is the cause of proliferative enteritis in swine.
Lawsonia intracellularis
78
_________________________________ is an organism that causes extensive muscle necrosis in ruminants, especially cattle between 6 months and 2 years of age.
Clostridium chauvoei
79
____________________ is a halophilic organism that is a frequent cause of food poisoning associated with raw or undercooked shellfish
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
80
_________________________________ is the cause of contagious epididymitis and occasional abortion in sheep
Brucella ovis
81
__________________is the cause of Glasser=s disease
Haemophilus parasuis
82
_________ infects the soft tissues of the lower jaw, neck and tongue resulting in the formation of granulomatous abscesses.
Actinobacillus lignieresii
83
_________________________________ is the organism associated with acute gastritis and gastric and duodenal ulcers in humans.
Helicobacter pylori
84
_________________________________ is the cause of infectious necrotic hepatitis and the production of extensive blood-stained subcutaneous edema primarily in sheep
Clostridium novyi type B
85
_________________________________ is associated with hemorrhagic bowel syndrome in adult dairy cattle.
Clostridium perfringens type A
86
_________________________________ has been recognized relatively recently as a major cause of enteric disease in pigs that to some extent mimics E. coli infection
Clostridium perfringens type A
87
_________________________________ is assumed to be the cause of acute death in feeder lambs until proven otherwise.
Clostridium perfringens type D
88
_________________________ is a diarrheal disease of hamsters that is caused by Lawsonia intracellularis, E. coli, Campylobacter jejuni and other bacterial organisms
wet tail
89
_________________________________ is an organism that produces a potent toxin that results in lysis of up to 50 to 60% of the RBC=s of infected cattle, deer or elk.
Clostridium haemolyticum
90
_________________________________ and _________________________________ are the two screening tests used to detect animals or herds infected with Brucella abortus.
Card Test
Milk Ring Test
91
_________________________________ and _________________________________ are the two rough species of Brucella (ie., they do not possess either the A or M antigens).
ovis and canis
92
___________________________ is an infection caused by infection with Clostridium septicum.
malignant edema
93
_________________________________ and _________________________________ are components of media required by Haemophilus species.
NAD and hemin
94
is the disease caused by Pasteurella multocida subspecies septica (formerly types B and E).
hemorrhagic septicemia
95
__________________ is the cause of fowl coryza.
Haemophilus paragallinarum
96
__________is the cause of whooping cough in humans
Bordetella pertussis
97
___________________________ is an organism that is widespread in South African sheep populations that localizes in the epididymis and testes leading to decreased fertility.
Actinobacillis seminis
98
___________causes a localized infection of the reproductive tract of mares characterized by vaginitis, cervicitis and endometritis
Taylorella equigenitalis
99
are two different genera covered in this section of material that are facultative intracellular parasites.
Brucella, Francisella, Legionella
100
___________________ is the etiologic agent of fowl cholera.
Pasteurella multocida
101
T or F Clostridium septicum almost always enters tissues via wounds rather than through the intestinal tract.
True
102
T or F Brucella melitensis is frequently found in goats in the Southwestern U.S. as a result of illegal importation of goats from Mexico.
False
103
T or F Brucella canis infections are most common in large kennels in the Southeastern U.S. and in feral dog populations in developing countries.
True
104
T or F Campylobacter coli is commonly isolated from pig intestinal contents and feces but the major concern with this organism is the potential it has for serving as a source of antimicrobial resistance genes for C. jejuni.
True
105
T or F Brucella suis produces a more generalized disease than the other species of Brucella and is more likely to cause sterility in swine.
True
106
T or F When present in high titers, antibody against the fimbrial antigens of Dichelobacter nodosus can be moderately protective against contagious ovine footrot.
True
107
_________________________________ and _________________________________ are components of media required by Haemophilus species.
NAD and hemin
108
is the disease caused by Pasteurella multocida subspecies septica (formerly types B and E).
hemorrhagic septicemia
109
__________________ is the cause of fowl coryza.
Haemophilus paragallinarum
110
__________is the cause of whooping cough in humans
Bordetella pertussis
111
___________________________ is an organism that is widespread in South African sheep populations that localizes in the epididymis and testes leading to decreased fertility.
Actinobacillis seminis
112
___________causes a localized infection of the reproductive tract of mares characterized by vaginitis, cervicitis and endometritis
Taylorella equigenitalis
113
are two different genera covered in this section of material that are facultative intracellular parasites.
Brucella, Francisella, Legionella
114
___________________ is the etiologic agent of fowl cholera.
Pasteurella multocida
115
T or F Clostridium septicum almost always enters tissues via wounds rather than through the intestinal tract.
True
116
T or F Brucella melitensis is frequently found in goats in the Southwestern U.S. as a result of illegal importation of goats from Mexico.
False
117
T or F Brucella canis infections are most common in large kennels in the Southeastern U.S. and in feral dog populations in developing countries.
True
118
T or F Campylobacter coli is commonly isolated from pig intestinal contents and feces but the major concern with this organism is the potential it has for serving as a source of antimicrobial resistance genes for C. jejuni.
True
119
T or F Brucella suis produces a more generalized disease than the other species of Brucella and is more likely to cause sterility in swine.
True
120
T or F When present in high titers, antibody against the fimbrial antigens of Dichelobacter nodosus can be moderately protective against contagious ovine footrot.
True
121
T or F The reason the available bacterins are not protective against contagious ovine footrot is that they only stimulate a CMI response
False
122
T or F Clostridium difficile is almost never isolated from normal foals less than 2 weeks of age and when it is isolated from this age of a foal it is usually associated with disease
False
123
T or F The most common form of tularemia is the typhoidal form that is contracted by ingesting the organism in rabbit tissues
False
124
T or F Diagnosis of tularemia in humans usually relies upon an agglutination test on patient serum
True
125
T or F Biochemical identification of Francisella tularensis is difficult and somewhat dangerous and is usually replaced by a fluorescent antibody test to determine the identity of the organism
True
126
T or F Alcaligenes faecalis is one of the most commonly isolated causes of urinary tract infections in dogs
False
127
T or F Some hatcheries routinely treat all newly hatched turkey poults with an antibiotic to help prevent bordetellosis
True
128
T or F Covalently linking a protein to the type b capsular polysaccharide of Haemophilus influenzae resulted in converting the immune response to the capsule to a CMI response
False
129
T or F Successful immunizing products against Mannheimia haemolytica need to stimulate a strong antibody response against the leukotoxin in order to provide protective immunity
False (FYI: some of the best vaccines contain no leukotoxoid and stimulate no antibody against the leukotoxin.)
130
Briefly discuss the cause of the false positive reactions occasionally observed with serologic tests for Brucella abortus and describe how these false positive reactions are eliminated
IgM antibodies formed against the polysaccharide antigens of other bacteria can agglutinate the Brucella antigens and cause false positive reactions. To eliminate these, one needs to treat the serum of the suspect animal with a reducing agent such as dithiothreitol or 2-mercapto-ethanol to break up the IgM into monomeric units (rather than the pentomer). FYI: If any cattle are still surviving that were vaccinated with the old Strain 19 vaccine, they are not false positives. They usually have a titer, but it is a low titer and are not considered false positives. If they have a high titer, they would be considered positive
131
List three main diseases associated with Fusobacterium necrophorum infection in cattle
a. Foot rot
b. post-partum metritis
c. calf diphtheria, or liver abscesses
132
Describe the etiology and pathogenesis of campylobacterial reproductive infections in cattle
Etiology is Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis. Transmitted by breeding, resides in the cervix and vagina until the progestational phase then moves into the uterus and causes a moderate endometritis and salpingitis leading to failure of implantation of the developing embryo. It takes 4 to 5 months or so before an IgG response is able to clear the organism from the uterus
133
List two important mechanisms of action of the cytotoxin of Moraxella bovis.
a. Damages corneal epithelial cells
| b. Lyses neutrophils which release their hydrolytic enzymes onto the surface of the cornea
134
List three diseases caused by Mannheimia haemolytica in sheep.
Respiratory disease
Mastitis in ewes
Septicemia in newborn lambs (respiratory transmission)
135
Briefly describe how Tyzzer=s disease is transmitted.
The organism is excreted in the feces and contaminates bedding and plant material. From there it is ingested
136
Briefly describe the two theories as to how blackleg is initiated in cattle
a. It might get into the tissues in spore form and be present in the muscle tissue of cattle. The tissues may then be damaged, setting up anaerobic conditions conducive to the growth of the organism.
b. Another theory is that it gains access to tissues via the dental alveoli when the deciduous teeth are lost starting at about 6 months of age.
137
Describe the pathogenesis of toxico-infectious botulism
Clostridium botulinum is ingested and establishes an infection in the intestinal tract of a neonate (normal flora has not been established). The organism elaborates botulinum toxin which is absorbed and causes paresis or paralysis, vision disturbances, inappetence or inability to eat, etc
138
Since Clostridium tetani is relatively common in intestinal tracts and as spores in the soil, why do animals require repeated vaccination for protection rather than relying on vaccination followed by natural exposure?
On natural exposure, not enough of the toxin is produced to stimulate an immune response
139
What is the major route of transmission of Bordetella avium among turkeys and what is one common method utilized for helping prevent transmission?
Route of transmission: _ingestion via water and subsequent bathing of the oropharynx.
Method for prevention: _chlorination of water and making sure they have clean water
140
List three different diseases in three different animal species caused by Bordetella bronchiseptica. List the species of animal affected by each.
Animal Disease
a. _Dogs kennel cough
b. _Cats upper respiratory tract infection (sinusitis, etc.)
c. _Pigs______________________ __non-progressive atrophic rhinitis______
rabbits (snuffles-like disease)
141
List two major toxins or virulence factors of Histophilus somni and describe the function of each.
LPS or endotoxin causes apoptosis of vascular endothelial cells
Fc-receptor proteins attach antibody to the organism via the Fc receptor, thus coating the organism with host proteins.
Adenine, Guanine, GMP may trick phagocytic cells into sensing that the organism is already dead.
