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Part 1 Boards > Part 1: Spinal Anatomy (Brain, Tracts, CN’s & Eye) > Flashcards

Part 1: Spinal Anatomy (Brain, Tracts, CN’s & Eye) Flashcards

1
Q

Endoderm Derivatives

A
  • Organs
  • Gut
  • Respiratory tract
  • Tubular structures
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2
Q

Mesoderm Derivatives (paraxial)

A

Muscles, tendons & ligaments
Smooth muscle of organs

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3
Q

Mesoderm Derivatives (intermediate)

A

Urogenital & Kidneys

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4
Q

Mesoderm derivatives (head)

A

Skull muscles & dentine of teeth

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5
Q

Mesoderm derivatives (lateral plate)

A
  • Adrenal cortex
  • connective tissue
  • cardiovascular
  • lymph
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6
Q

Surface ectoderm derivatives

A
  • epidermis
  • ant. Pituitary
  • eye lens
  • skin
  • enamel, hair & nails
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7
Q

The neural tube and crest form from the

A

Ectoderm

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8
Q

Neural tube derivatives

A
  • post. Pituitary
  • eye retina
  • CNS
  • oligodendrocytes
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9
Q

The neural crest forms: (6)

A

1) Sympathetic chain ganglion
2) DRG
3) ANS & PNS
4) Schwann cells
5) Parafollicular cells of thyroid
6) Adrenal medulla

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10
Q

Embyological order:

A

Notochord -> Neural plate -> Neural groove -> neural tube -> neural crest cells

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11
Q

Vitamins that prevent Spina Bifida

A
  • B9 / Floic acid
  • methyl folate / tetrahydrofolate
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12
Q

Stages of spinal Bifida & what they mean:

A

Meningocele: meninges protrude
Myelocele: spina cord protrudes
Meningomyelocele: spinal cord & meninges protrude

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13
Q

Arnold Chiari syndrome Type II is…

A

Type 1 + meningomyelocele in lumbar spine

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14
Q

What bones fail to fuse in a cleft palate?

A

MAXILLARY & PALANTINE

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15
Q

The notochord persists as the

A

Nucleus pulposus

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16
Q

The scleretome of the mesoderm +

A

Membranous skeletal column

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17
Q

Splanchinic Myotome of the mesoderm +

A

Visceral smooth muscle

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18
Q

The epimere of the mesoderm +

A

Dorsal / posterior / extensor muscles

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19
Q

The hypomere of the mesoderm =

A

Ventral / anterior / flexor muscles

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20
Q

The gubernaculum in males becomes

A

Scrotal ligament

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21
Q

The gubernaculum in females becomes

A
  • Suspensory ligament of ovary
  • ovarian ligament
  • round ligament
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22
Q

The procephalon splits into

A

Telencephalon & Diencephalon

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23
Q

The rhombencephalon splits into

A

Metencephalon & Myelencephalon

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24
Q

The Telencephalon derivatives

A

Cortices & basal ganglia

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25
Q

CN # for Telencephalon

A

1

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26
Q

Ventricle for Telencephalon

A

Lateral ventricle

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27
Q

Diencephalon derivatives

A

Thalamus & Pineal gland

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28
Q

CN # for Diencephalon

A

2

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29
Q

Ventricle for Diencephalon

A

3rd ventricle

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30
Q

Derivatives of Mesencephalon

A

Midbrain

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31
Q

CN # of Mesencephalon

A

3 & 4

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32
Q

Ventricle for Mesencephalon

A

Aqueduct of Sylvius

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33
Q

Derivative of Metencephalon

A

Pons & Cerebellum

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34
Q

CN # for Metencephalon

A

5-8

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35
Q

Ventricle for Metencephalon

A

4th ventricle

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36
Q

Derivatives of the Myelencephalon

A

Medulla oblongata

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37
Q

CN # for Myelencephalon

A

9-12

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38
Q

Ventricle for Myelencephalon

A

4th ventricle

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39
Q

________ is the only sensation that bypasses the thalamus

A

Smell

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40
Q

Muscle vs. Neuron resting membrane potential:

A

Muscle: -85 through -90mV
Nerve: -65 through -70mV

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41
Q

At resting membrane potential the cell is more ___________ inside the cell and more ________ outside the cell

A

Negative; positive

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42
Q

Pacinion corpuscles detect

A

Vibration

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43
Q

Ruffini receptors detect

A

Joint position sense

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44
Q

Meissners/Merkels receptors detect

A

Accurate touch

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45
Q

Spinothalamic tracts free naked endings detect

A

Pain, temperature and crude touch

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46
Q

When does the Absolute Refractory Period occur during an action potential?

A

When potassium leaks out of cell during repolarization when signal is back to resting membrane potential

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47
Q

When is the relative refractory period during an action potential?

A

During repolarization when sodium leaks out and the membrane voltage is more negative than the resting membrane potential

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48
Q

How many sodium flow out and how many potassium flow in?

A

3 Sodium out / 2 Potassium in

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49
Q

What part of the brain controls respiratory and cardiac centers, CN 5-12 & reticular formation?

A

Medulla & pons

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50
Q

What part of the brain controls reflexes to light and sound, proximal flexor relay & CN 3-4?

A

Midbrain

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51
Q

What part of the brain controls relay station & sensory fibers?

A

Thalamus

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52
Q

The ventral posteromedial thalamus controls sensory information from the

A

Face

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53
Q

The ventral posteromedial thalamus controls sensory information from the

A

Arms & legs

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54
Q

The lateral geniculate thalamus controls sensory information from the

A

Eyes

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55
Q

The medial geniculate thalamus controls sensory information from the

A

Ears

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56
Q

Role of the Parietal lobe:

A

Localization, Brodman 1,2,3 & problem solving

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57
Q

Role of the Occipital lobe:

A

Vision, Brodman area 17

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58
Q

Role of the superior temporal lobe:

A

Hearing

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59
Q

Role of the inferior temporal lobe:

A

Long term memory, smell

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60
Q

Damage to the hippocampus leads to

A

Anterograde amnesia

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61
Q

Memory is associated with what cells

A

Hippocampus cells

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62
Q

Smell is associated with what cells

A

Parahioopcampal cells in the Uncal area

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63
Q

Where is Wernicke’s area?

A

Junction of parietal, occipital & temporal lobes

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64
Q

Role of Wernicke’s area:

A

Sensory matching
Can read & see but can’t understand

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65
Q

Damage to Wernicke’s area is caused by

A

B1/Thiamine deficiency d/t alcoholism (Wernicke’s Korsakoff syndrome)

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66
Q

Contents & role of the frontal lobe:

A

Voluntary motor, precentral gyrus, Brodman 4,4S,6, corticospinal tracts

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67
Q

Pyramidal tracts start as

A

Giant cells of Betz

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68
Q

Where is Broca’s speech area located?

A

Interior frontal lobe on the left

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69
Q

What artery supplies Broca’s area?

A

Middle cerebral artery

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70
Q

What structure inhibits the thalamus?

A

Basal ganglia (stops motor response)

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71
Q

Dysfunction of the basal ganglia is associated with

A

Parkinson’s

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72
Q

AKA for Parkinson’s

A

Paralysis agitans

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73
Q

What cells are found in Parkinson’s disease?

A

Inclusion / Lewy Bodies from decreases dopamine in the substantial nigra

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74
Q

The Caudate Basal ganglia secretes

A

GABA

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75
Q

What is the genetic defect in the caudate basal ganglia called?

A

Huntingtons Chorhea

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76
Q

Basal ganglia Striatum consists of:

A

Putamen & caudate

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77
Q

Basal Ganglia Lentiform consists of:

A

Globes Pallidus & Putamen

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78
Q

Hypothalamus is responsible for:

A
  • hunger & thirst
  • temp regulation
  • sex
  • rage & fear
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79
Q

Role of the cerebellum:

A
  • balance/equillibrium
  • involuntary coordination
  • unconscious propriception
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80
Q

What forms the blood brain barrier

A

Astrocytes & tight capillary beds

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81
Q

What structure stores glucose in the brain

A

Blood brain barrier

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82
Q

What are microglia?

A

Macrophages of CNS

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83
Q

What are ependymal cells

A

Line ventricles and CSF

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84
Q

CSF is made in the

A

Choroid plexus of the lateral ventricles

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85
Q

CSF is reabsorbed by

A

Arachnoid granulations of the superior Sagittal sinus

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86
Q

What are Oligodendrocytes?

A

Myelin of the CNS

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87
Q

Demyelination of the CNS is called

A

MS

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88
Q

What are Schwann cells?

A

Myelin of the PNS (from neural crest)

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89
Q

What causes demyelination of the PNS?

A

Guillian-Barre Syndrome (ascending paralysis)

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90
Q

When does Guillian Barre syndrome occur?

A

Post infection or post vaccination

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91
Q

What causes Hirschprung’s disease?

A

Absense of meissner’s & auerbachs plexuses

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92
Q

What is Hirschprung’s disease?

A

No peristalsis -> congenital megacolon

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93
Q

What cells inhibit the alpha motor neuron?

A

Renshaw cells (negative feedback)

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94
Q

Brain Waves (what they are): Alpha

A

Quiet, meditative

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95
Q

Brain Waves (what they are): Beta

A

Intense mental activity

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96
Q

Brain Waves (what they are): Delta

A

Deep sleep or coma

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97
Q

Brain Waves (what they are): Theta

A

Normal in children, stress/suicidal in adults

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98
Q

What do the association fibers of the cerebrum do:

A

Connect same hemisphere from frontal to temporal

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99
Q

What do commissural fibers of the cerebrum do?

A

Connect L & R brain

100
Q

What do projection fibers of the cerebrum do?

A

Connect up & down in both directions passing through the internal capsule

101
Q

Central chemo receptors are found in

A

Carotid and aortic bodies of the Brain stem

102
Q

Central chemo receptors are most sensitive to:

A

Increased pCO2 THEN Decreased O2

103
Q

Peripheral chemo receptors are most sensitive to

A

Decreased O2 THEN Increased pCO2

104
Q

If increased pCO2 or decreased O2 is detected by central chemo receptors…

A

Cerebral blood vessels dilate

105
Q

Vertebral arteries feed into

A

The circle of Willis

106
Q

Where do vertebral arteries enter the spine?

A

C6 transverse foramen

107
Q

Where do vertebral arteries enter the skull?

A

Foramen magnum

108
Q

Damage to PICA =

A

Wallenberg Syndrome

109
Q

What is Wallenberg syndrome?

A

Ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature to face, Contralateral to body

110
Q

STUDY CIRCLE OF WILLIS DIAGRAM PAGE 4 SPINAL ANATOMY

A
111
Q

What is the 1st branch of the internal carotid artery?

A

Ophthalmic artery to the eye

112
Q

What is the MC artery involved in stroke?

A

Middle cerebral

113
Q

The straight sinus is located in what structure

A

Tentorium Cerebelli

114
Q

The great cerebral vein drains into

A

Straight sinus

115
Q

Superior cerebral vein drains into

A

Superior agitate sinus

116
Q

In what structure is the superior Sagittal sinus located in?

A

Flax cerebra

117
Q

What does the superior Sagittal sinus contain?

A

Arachnoid granulations for reabsorbing CSF

118
Q

What are the anterior and posterior attachments of the falx cerebri?

A

Anterior: Christ galli of ethmoid
Posterior: Tentorium cerebelli

119
Q

Where is the confluence of sinuses and what is it called?

A

Torculus Herophilus; inner portion of occipital bone

120
Q

Damage to the brain sinuses =

A

Subdural hematoma

121
Q

Flow of CSF (6 steps)

A

Monroe Foramen -> 3rd Ventricle -> Aqueduct of Sylvius -> 4th Ventricle -> Magendie Foramen (midline) & Lushka Foramen (lateral), central canal & subarachnoid space -> reabsorbed in superior saggital sinus

122
Q

Damage to middle meningeal artery =

A

Epidural hemorrhage

123
Q

Damage to brain venous system =

A

Subdural hemorrhage

124
Q

Damage to circle of Willis =

A

“Geri Aneurysm” AKA Subarachnoid hemorrhage

125
Q

What are the motor (descending) tracts? (5)

A

1) Rubrospinal
2) Reticulospinal
3) Tectospinal
4) Vestibulospinal
5) corticospinal/pyramidal (lateral & ventral)

126
Q

What is the role of the Rubrospinal tract?

A

Proximal muscle flexors or upper & lower extremity

127
Q

What is the role of the reticulospinal tract?

A

Extensor muscles of back and arms

128
Q

What is the role of the tectospinal tract?

A

Neck muscles

129
Q

What structure controls reflex to light?

A

Superior colliculus

130
Q

What structure controls reflex to sound?

A

Inferior colliculus

131
Q

What is the role of the Vestibulospinal tract?

A

Extensor muscle of back & legs

132
Q

What is the Vestibulospinal tract to the eyes called

A

Medial longitudinal Fasciculus

133
Q

What is the role of the lateral corticospinal tract?

A

Flexors of distal extremities

134
Q

What is the role of the ventral corticospinal tract?

A

Flexors of the trunk

135
Q

Where does the corticospinal tract start?

A

Precentral gyrus of frontal lobe (Giant Cells of Betz)

136
Q

Where does the lateral corticospinal tract decussate?

A

Medulla at medullary pyramids

137
Q

Where does the ventral corticospinal tract decussate?

A

At the spinal level

138
Q

What is the role of the Substantia Gelatinosa?

A

Blocks pain through tract of Lissauer & spinothalamic tract

139
Q

What are the Reced Lamina of the spinal cord? (II, VII, IX, X)

A

II: Substantial Gelatinosa
VII: Nucleus Dorsalis of Clarke
IX: Anterior horn / alpha motor
X: Gray Commissure / Central canal

140
Q

Where does the spinothalamic tract cross?

A

At spinal level

141
Q

What is the role of the Lateral spinothalamic tract?

A

Pain & temperature

142
Q

What is the role of the Ventral spinothalamic tract?

A

Crude touch & pressure

143
Q

What are the receptors of the spinothalamic tract and what fiber type are they?

A

Free naked nerve endings; unmyelinated C fibers

144
Q

Damage to the lateral spinothalamic tract =

A

Syringomyelia (dilation of central canal)

145
Q

What is the role of the Dorsal Columns medial Lemniscus?

A

Conscious proprioception, vibration, position sense, 2 point discrimination

146
Q

2 point discrimination come from _________ in the legs and _______ in the arms

A

Gracilis; Cuneatus

147
Q

What is the role of the flocculonodular lobe of the cerebellum?

A

Balance of spine

148
Q

What is the role of the anterior lobe of the cerebellum?

A

Balance from arms & Legs

149
Q

What is the role of the posterior lobe of the cerebellum?

A

How the cerebellum talks to the cortex

150
Q

The Fastigial cerebellar nuclei is responsible for:

A

Spine

151
Q

The globus cerebellar nuclei is responsible for:

A

Proximal joints (GH & Hip)

152
Q

The Emboliform cerebellar nuclei is responsible for:

A

Middle joint (elbow)

153
Q

Globus + Emboliform cerebellar nuclei =

A

Interpose nuclei

154
Q

The dentate cerebellar nuclei is responsible for:

A

Distal joints (digits)

155
Q

What connects the midbrain to the cerebellum?

A

Superior cerebellar peduncle

156
Q

What connects the pons to the cerebellum?

A

Middle cerebellar peduncle

157
Q

What connects the medulla to the cerebellum?

A

Inferior cerebellar peduncle

158
Q

Information traveling from the cerebellum to the cortex travels via the

A

Superior cerebellar peduncle

159
Q

Information from the cortex to the cerebellum travels via the

A

Middle cerebellar peduncle

160
Q

Information from the Body travels to the cerebellum via the

A

Inferior cerebellar peduncle

161
Q

The posterior portion of the rectus contains the

A

Superior and inferior colliculi (corpora quadrigemina = the 4 colliculi)

162
Q

The tegmentum portion of the midbrain houses:

A

CN 3&4 and cerebral aqueduct

163
Q

The cerebral peduncle portion of the midbrain houses:

A
  • Corticospinal tracts
  • red nucleas
  • substantial nigra
164
Q

What CN’s originate from the frontal lobe?

A

I (Olfactory)

165
Q

What CN’s originate from the Thalamus?

A

II (Optic)

166
Q

What CN’s originate from the Midbrain?

A

III: Oculomotor
IV: Trochlear

167
Q

What CN’s originate from the Pons?

A

5-8

168
Q

What CN’s originate from the Medulla?

A

9-12

169
Q

What structure does the Olfactory nerve travel through?

A

Cribiform plate

170
Q

What foramen does the Optic nerve travel through?

A

Optic foramen of the sphenoid

171
Q

What CN’s travel through the superior orbital fissure of the sphenoid bone?

A

IV, V(1), VI

172
Q

What CN travels through the foramen rotundum of the sphenoid?

A

V(2)

173
Q

What CN travels through the foramen ovale of the sphenoid?

A

V(3)

174
Q

What CN’s travels through the Internal auditory meatus of the temporal bone?

A

VII & VIII

175
Q

What CN pierces the parotid gland?

A

Facial

176
Q

What CN’s travel through the Jugular foramen of the Temporal/occipital bones?

A

IX, X, XI

177
Q

What CN’s travel through the Hypoglossal foramen of the occipital bone?

A

XII

178
Q

Actions of the Optic CN

A

Vision & Pupillary Light reflex

179
Q

Actions of the Oculomotor CN (3)

A

1) All eye muscles (except SO & RL)
2) Pupillary constriction
3) Efferent Pupillary Light Reflex

180
Q

Actions of the Trochlear CN

A

Superior Oblique Muscle

181
Q

What cranial nerve innervates sensory to the tongue?

A

Mandibular branch of Trigeminal

182
Q

What CN innervates the muscles of mastication and the Tensor Tympani?

A

CN 5 (Trigeminal)

183
Q

Actions of the Abducens CN

A

Lateral Rectus

184
Q

What CN is called the CHordae Tympani in the middle ear?

A

7 (Facial)

185
Q

What CN Innervates the stapedius?

A

7 (Facial)

186
Q

What CN is responsible for Lacrimation & Salivation?

A

7 (Facial)

187
Q

What CN innervates the palate, pharynx & larynx?

A

10 (Vagus)

188
Q

What CN Innervates the intrinsic muscles of the tongue?

A

12 (Hypoglossal)

189
Q

Trigeminal CN AKA:

A

Gasserian Ganglion

190
Q

What muscles close the jaw? (3)

A

Temporal is, Masseter & Internal/Medial Pterygoid

191
Q

Origin & Insertion of the ____________ muscle: Temporalis

A

O: Temporal fossa
I: Coronoid of Mandible

192
Q

Origin & Insertion of the ____________ muscle: Masseter

A

O: Zygomatic process
I: External angle of jaw

193
Q

Origin & Insertion of the ____________ muscle: Internal/Medial Pterygoid

A

O: Medial Pterygoid process
I: Internal angle of jaw

194
Q

Origin & Insertion of the ____________ muscle: External/Lateral Pterygoid

A

O: Lateral Pterygoid process
I: Disc of TMJ & Condyle of mandible

195
Q

What are the parasympathetic CN’s + Sacral levels?

A

CN 3, 7, 9, 10
S2-4

196
Q

CN3 turns into the _________ nerve

A

Edinger-Westphal

197
Q

CN7 turns into the _________ nerve

A

Superior Salvitory

198
Q

CN9 turns into the _________

A

Inf. Salivatory nucleus -> otic ganglion -> parotid

199
Q

CN10 turns into the _________ nerve

A

Vagal

200
Q

Function of S2-4 parasympathetic nerves

A

[pelvic splanchnic]
Erection, bladder control, bowel control (distal 1/3 colon)

201
Q

CN3 turns into the ____________ ganglion:

A

Ciliary

202
Q

CN7 turns into the ____________ ganglion:

A

Sphenopalatine & sphenomandibular

203
Q

CN9 turns into the ____________ ganglion:

A

Otic

204
Q

Function of the ciliary ganglion

A

Pupillary constriction

205
Q

Function of the Sphenopalatine ganglion

A

Crying/lacrimation

206
Q

Function of the Sphenomandibular ganglion

A

Salivation

207
Q

Function of the otic ganglion

A

Parotid glands

208
Q

What receptors stimulate the breakdown of glycogen into glucose?

A

Adrenergic (Norepinephrine & Epi)

209
Q

Alpha receptors are more sensitive to:

A

Norepinephrine

210
Q

Beta receptors are more sensitive to:

A

Epinephrine

211
Q

Function of Alpha 1 receptors: (2)

A

1) Vasoconstriction of central arteries
2) dilation of pupils

212
Q

Function of Alpha 2 receptors:

A

Autoinhibitory to Alpha 1

213
Q

Function of Beta 1 receptos: (2)

A

1) Increase heart rate
2) Increase contractibility

214
Q

Function of Beta 2 receptors: (2)

A

1) shut down digestion
2) bronchodilation

215
Q

ALL Parasympathetic receptors are

A

ACh receptors

216
Q

What vertebral segments are included in the Superior sympathetic chain ganglion?

A

Above C4

217
Q

What vertebral segments are included in the Middle sympathetic chain ganglion?

A

C4-C5

218
Q

What vertebral segments are included in the Inferior sympathetic chain ganglion?

A

C6-C8

219
Q

What vertebral segments are included in the Stellate ganglion?

A

C8-T1

220
Q

What ganglion is the merger between the Inferior sympathetic chain ganglion and the T/S ganglion?

A

Stellate Ganglion

221
Q

What disease results from disruption of the cervical chain ganglion?

A

Horner’s syndrome

222
Q

3 clinical features of Horner’s syndrome:

A

1) Ptosis
2) Miosis
3) Anhydrosis

223
Q

Steps of the Catecholamine pathway: (6)

A

Phenylalanine -> Tyrosine -> L-Dopa -> Dopamine -> Norepinephrine -> Epinephrine

224
Q

The anterior chamber of the eye consists of the __________ to the __________

A

Cornea to Iris

225
Q

The postrior chamber of the eye consists of the __________ to the __________

A

Iris to Lens

226
Q

The anterior and posterior chambers of the eye are filled with

A

Aqueous Humor

227
Q

Where is Aqueous humor of the eye made?

A

Made by ciliary epithelium in ciliary bodies

228
Q

Excess aqueous humor in the eye =

A

Glaucoma

229
Q

Features of Glaucoma: (2)

A

1) increased intraocular pressure
2) cupping of disc

230
Q

The Posterior CAVITY consists of the ________ to the _________

A

Lens to Retina

231
Q

The posterior cavity of the eye is filled with:

A

Vitreous Humor (jelly-like, maintains its shape)

232
Q

Embryology of the Retina & Iris:

A

Optic Stalk gives rise to the Optic Cup

233
Q

Function of the Fovea Centralis:

A

Most acute vision / Bright Lights & Colors d/t CONES

234
Q

Function of the Rods in the eye

A

Peripheral vision, dim light, night vision

235
Q

Function of the Rhodopsin in the eye

A

Purple pigment

236
Q

MC cause of blindness in elderly is:

A

Macular degeneration

237
Q

Macular degeneration means:

A

Can’t see in the light

238
Q

Glaucoma effects the ______ first

A

Rods

239
Q

What is the 1st signs/symptoms of Glaucoma?

A

Rings around lights

240
Q

What is the vitamin for rods in the eye, and if it’s deficient what does it produce?

A

Vitamin A; Nyctalopia (night blindness)

241
Q

What is Keratomalacia?

A

Softening of cornea

242
Q

The Optic nerve decussates at the

A

Optic chasm

243
Q

The nasal tracts decussate at the

A

Optic chasm

244
Q

AKA for tunnel vision

A

Bilateral Hemianopsia

245
Q

What lobe of the brain and area of the brain are responsible for vision?

A

Occipital and Brodman area 17

246
Q

What is responsible for the reflex of eyes with neck movement?

A

Sup. Colliculi -> Lateral Geniculate/Thalamus

247
Q

What is responsible for the reflex of ears with neck movement?

A

Inf. Colliculi -> Medial Geniculate/Thalamus

Part 1 Boards (12 decks)

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