Part 1: Pathology (Lung, Renal, NS, Thyroid, GI, Cancer) Flashcards

1
Q

Example of Metastatic calcification

A

Hypervitaminosis D

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2
Q

What is Dystrophic calcification?

A

Calcification into already abnormal/damaged tissue (scar tissue)

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3
Q

Example of Caseous degeneration

A

Tuberculosis

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4
Q

What type of calcification is seen in TB?

A

egg shell calcificatino

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5
Q

Fatty degeneration of the liver is known as

A

nutmeg liver

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6
Q

fatty degeneration of the heart is known as

A

Tabby cat heart

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7
Q

What does liquefaction degeneration affect?

A

CNS or Skin

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8
Q

Wallerian degeneration affects

A

peripheral nerves
degenerates until the next node of ranvier

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9
Q

What is Karyorrhexis degeneration?

A

destructive fragmentation of the nucleus

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10
Q

what is karyolysis degeneration?

A

nuclear rupture

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11
Q

what is chromatolysis degeneration?

A

destruction of cell bodies

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12
Q

Definition of Atrophy

A

decrease in size (MC in muscle)

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13
Q

Definition of Hypertrophy

A

increase in size

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14
Q

Definition of Hyperplasia

A

increase in the number of cells

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15
Q

Definition of Metaplasia

A

changes from one cell type to another cell type

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16
Q

Example of metaplasia (2)

A

1) PCCE changing into stratified squamous in smoker lungs
2) barrett’s esophagus

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17
Q

Definition of Dysplasia

A

change in size, shape or function of a cell

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18
Q

Definition of Anaplasia

A

Complete disorganization of a cell (cancer)

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19
Q

What type of growth disturbance can be precancerous?

A

Dysplasia (change in cell shape, size or function)

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20
Q

What is the MC cause of lung cancer

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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21
Q

Definition of Agenesis

A

failure of an organ to develop due to absense of PRIMORDIAL tissue

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22
Q

Definition of Aplasia

A

defective development of an organ

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23
Q

Definition of Hypoplasia

A

underdevelopment or incomplete development of an organ
(organ smaller than normal)

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24
Q

What is composed of Type I Collagen?

A

bone, muscles, tendons, ligaments, fascia

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25
Q

What is composed of Type II Collagen?

A

Disc (nucleus pulposis)

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26
Q

What is composed of Type III Collagen?

A

“reticular” spleen & lymph nodes

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27
Q

Type III Collagen does what?

A

Early wound healing and speeds repair

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28
Q

What cell secretes Type III collagen?

A

Myofibroblast

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29
Q

What is composed of Type IV Collagen?

A

Basement Membrane

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30
Q

What causes Silicosis?

A

silica from sand, rock or glass

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31
Q

What type of calcification is present in Silicosis?

A

egg shell calcification

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32
Q

What disease is common amoung Sandblasters?

A

Rocky Quarry Disease

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33
Q

Asbestos leads to

A

Mesothelioma (malignant tumor of lung)

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34
Q

What causes Siderosis?

A

Iron dust in the lung

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35
Q

What causes Byssinosis?

A

cotton dust in the lung “brown lung”

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36
Q

What is known as black lung disease?

A

Anthracosis

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37
Q

Who is susceptible to Anthracosis? what syndrome can they get?

A

Coal miners; Caplan’s syndrome (anthracosis + RA)

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38
Q

What is Histomycosis/Histoplasmosis?

A

Endemin fungus around mississippi or Ohio valleys

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39
Q

What is Coccidiomycosis?

A

endemic fungus in deserts of southwest
“San Joaquin Valley Fever”

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40
Q

What is Blastomycosis?

A

endemic fungus on Eastern seaboard
(from Florida to Nova Scotia)

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41
Q

Asthma sputum analysis will show…

A

Curshmann’s Spirals or Charcot Leyden crystals

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42
Q

What disease affects chloride channels?

A

Cystic fibrosis

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43
Q

AKA for cystic fibrosis

A

Salty baby syndrome (mom 1st tastes salt)

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44
Q

What part of the body does cystic fibrosis affect?

A

GI & Respiratory mucus linings & exocrine secretions

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45
Q

People with Cystic Fibrosis are susceptible to

A

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

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46
Q

What is Hemosiderosis?

A

Iron in lungs due to bleeding

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47
Q

What type of lung is seen in pulmonary fibrosis?

A

honeycomb lung

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48
Q

What disease is considered “Causeous necrosis in lung”?

A

Tuberculosis

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49
Q

These 3 characteristics can be seen in tuberculosis

A

1) Ghon lesion
2) granuloma
3) epitheloid histiocytes

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50
Q

What causes Pott’s disease?

A

when TB spreads to the spine

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51
Q

If a vertebrae collapses from TB it is called

A

Gibbus Deformity

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52
Q

What is Wegener’s granulomatosis?

A

vasculitis of the lung & kidney

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53
Q

Barrel chest is seen in

A

emphysema

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54
Q

Emphysema pt’s have a deficiency of

A

Alpha-1-antitrypsin

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55
Q

Characteristics of Emphysema

A
  • loss of elasticity
  • decreased forced expiratory volume
  • decrease transpulmonary recoil
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56
Q

What is Azotemia?

A

Decreased tubular excretion of nitrogen
(increased nitrogen in blood)

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57
Q

aka for kideny stones

A

Nephrolithiasis

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58
Q

MC stone in kidney stones

A

calcium oxalate

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59
Q

What is seen in the urine with nephritic syndrome?

A

RBCs & small amounts of protein

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60
Q

Example of a disease that causes Nephritic syndrome

A

Acute glomerulonephritis

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61
Q

What is found in the urine with Nephrotic syndrome?

A

massive amounts of protein

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62
Q

Disease example of Nephrotic syndrome

A

Pre-Eclampsia

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63
Q

Triad of symptoms seen in pre eclampsia

A

Hypertension
Edema
Proteinuria

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64
Q

Symptoms of Eclampsia

A

Same as Pre Eclampsia + Coma & Convulsions

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65
Q

What is a Pheochromocytoma

A

Neuroblastoma of adrenal medulla (benign)

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66
Q

What benign tumor of the adrenal medulla can ccause episodic hypertension?

A

Pheochromocytoma or neuroblastoma

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67
Q

polycystic kidney has what type of appearance?

A

moth eaten

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68
Q

aka for Wilm’s tumor

A

Nephroblastoma

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69
Q

what is a Wilm’s tumor?

A

Malignant mixed kidney tumor MC in children

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70
Q

aka for Addisons disease

A

hypocortisolism
hypoadrenalism

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71
Q

clinical signs of Addisons disease

A

bronze discoloration and hyperpigmentation of the face & lips

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72
Q

Addisons results in _________ and the MC cause is a ___________.

A

decrease ACTH; pituitary tumor

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73
Q

What is Conn’s disease?

A

excess aldosetrone from benign adrenal tumor

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74
Q

What is cushings doesase?

A

hypercortisolism or hyperadrenalism

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75
Q

MC cause of cushings disease

A

glucocorticoids

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76
Q

clinical signs of cuchings disease

A

moon face
buffalo hump
purple straie
central obesity

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77
Q

What causes a goiter?

A

hyperplasia of thyroid cells due to lack of iodine

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78
Q

What is graves disease

A

Hyperthyroidism

79
Q

Clinical signs of graves disease?

A

exophthalmoses (bulging eyes
heat intolerance
weight loss
rapid heart rate
hair loss

80
Q

What is Hashimotos?

A

autoimmune cause of hypothyroidism

81
Q

Hypothyroidism is the MC cause of

A

Chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis

82
Q

Myxedema is a form of and is caused by _________

A

hypothyroidism form decreased T4

83
Q

Myexdema is known as what in infants?

A

Cretinism

84
Q

clinical sign of Myexdema

A

cold intolerance
weight gain
loss of lateral eyebrow

85
Q

What virus is implicated in cervical cancer?

A

HPV 16 or 18

86
Q

What causes cryptochidism?

A

failure of testis to descend

87
Q

MC site of endometriosis

A

ovary

88
Q

Epispadias vs. Hypospadias

A

Epi: urethra opens on dorsal surface of penis
Hypo: urethra opens on ventral surface of penis

89
Q

What is a Leiomyoma?

A

benigh tumor of smooth muscle

90
Q

aka for leiomyoma

A

uterine fibroids

91
Q

What is the MC cause of infertility?

A

PCOS

92
Q

What is the MC cause of testicular cancer in ages 20-35?

A

seminoma

93
Q

What type of cells are seen with a Seminoma?

A

Mesenchymal cells

94
Q

5 signs of congenital syphilis:

A

1) Hutchinson’s teeth (notched upper incisors)
2) Rhagades (cracks @ edge of mouth)
3) Saddle nose deformity (flat nose bridge)
4) Sabre Blade Tibia
5) Interstitial Keratitis (vision changes)

95
Q

What is an Adie’s pupil?

A

tonic pupil dilation due to CN3 injury of Edinger Westphal Nucleus

96
Q

What is Miosis?

A

Tonic pupil constriction due to sympathetic cervial ganglia

97
Q

What is a. Chancroid?

A

soft painful chancroid aused by “Haemophilus Ducreyi”

98
Q

Gonorrhea produces arthirtis MC in the

A

Knee

99
Q

Lymphogranuloma venereum is cause by

A

Clamydia

100
Q

How do you diagnose Lymphogranuloma Venereum?

A

Frei Test

101
Q

What is Trichimonas?

A

purulent green, frothy, fishy vaginal discharge (viral)

102
Q

what is achalasia

A

sphincters remain closed due to absense of myenteric plexus causing megaesophagus

103
Q

What is Barretts esophagus

A

metaplasia of esophageal cells into stomach cells causing GERD

104
Q

What is Budd Chiari?

A

occusion of hepatic veins

105
Q

What is the symptom triad of Budd Chiari?

A

Abdominal pain, ascites, hepatomegaly

106
Q

1 cause of gallstones

A

cholecystitis (inflammation of gallbladder

107
Q

Signs of Crohns disease

A
  • R. sided problem
  • skip lesions
  • NO BLOODY diarrhea
108
Q

aka for Crohns disease

A

distal/terminal/regional enteritis

109
Q

MC cause of death in children world wide

A

Enteritis

110
Q

MC cause of flank red blood in stool

A

hemorroids

111
Q

What is Hirchsprung’s?

A

Congenital megacolon & absense of myenteric plexus

112
Q

What is Intussusception?

A

Telescoping of intestine onto itself

113
Q

What can cause Intussusception?

A

rotovirus vaccine

114
Q

What are the characteristics of Mallory Weiss syndrome?

A

laceration of esophagus & proximal stomach

115
Q

What is Mallory Weiss syndrome?

A

Hematomesis due to alcoholism

116
Q

What is plummer vinson syndrome?

A

iron deficiency anemia & esophageal webbing

117
Q

What is a sliding hiatal hernia caused by

A

anatomically short esophagus

118
Q

What is Steatosis?

A

fat in stool (Gallbladder problem)

119
Q

aka for Ulcerative colitis

A

toxic megacolon

120
Q

clinical signs of ulcerative colitis

A
  • Ulcers
  • bloody diarrhea
  • left side of abdomen
  • lead pipe rigidity
121
Q

what is Volvulus?

A

twisting of an organ around its long axis

122
Q

What is Zenker’s diverticulum

A

outpouching of the pharynx

123
Q

Diabetes Insipidous has decreased __________ due to _____________.

A

ADH; posterior pituitary problem

124
Q

What is Hemochromatosis?

A

“bronze diabetes” increased iron in the organs & skin

125
Q

What is Kwashiorkor?

A

Protein malnutirtion (enough to eat but not the right things)

126
Q

What is Marasmus?

A

Calorie malnutrition (not enough to eat)

127
Q

What is Wilson’s metabolic disorder?

A

inborn error of copper metabolism

128
Q

Clinical signs of Wilson’s metabolic disorder:

A

Kayser Fleisher rings (copper deposits in eyes)

129
Q

What causes ALS? (Lou Gehrigs)

A

damage to anterior horn & corticospinal tracts with NO SENSORY LOSS
LMN in upper extremity & UMN in lower extermity

130
Q

What is Alzheimer’s disease

A

progressive atrophy of cerebral cortex
#1 cause of dementia

131
Q

In Alzheimers there is a decrease of

A

Acetylcholine

132
Q

The MC metastasis from the lungs is to the

A

brain

133
Q

What is the MC brain tumor

A

Astrocytoma

134
Q

What brain tumor has the worst diagnosis

A

Glioblastoma Multiform

135
Q

Medulloblastoma’s are MCly seen in _______________ and are the MC _____________ tumor.

A

children; cerebellum

136
Q

What is the slowest growing brain tumor?

A

Oligodendroglioma

137
Q

What is the MC cause of unilateral sensorineural hearing loss?

A

Schwannoma

138
Q

AKAs for Schwanoma

A

acoustic neuroma
onion bulb tumor

139
Q

A schwannoma affects what CN?

A

7

140
Q

What is Friedrich’s ataxia?

A

lesion of sclerosis of spinocerebellar tract (Chromosome 9)

141
Q

What is Horner’s syndrome?

A

Interruption of cervical sympathetics from trauma or pancoast tumor

142
Q

Signs & Symptoms of Horners Syndrome

A

Ptosis, Miosis, Anhydrosis, Enophthalmosis

143
Q

What is leprosy?

A

Skin damage & destruction of sensory nerves

144
Q

akas for leprosy

A

Hansen’s disease
liquefactive necrosis

145
Q

What triad of symptoms is seen with Multiple sclerosis?

A

Charcot’s:
- Scanning speech
- intention tremor
- nystagmus

146
Q

What is multiple sclerosis?

A

central demyelination and plaquing o fthe spinal cord or brain

147
Q

What is Myasthenia gravis?

A

Autoimmune disease where formation of antibodies that block AcH receptors at the myoneural junction

148
Q

Myasthenia Gravis produces what symptoms?

A

1) progressive weakness/fatigue
2) worse @ end of day
3) Tight & Sore jaw
4)Starts in the ocular muscles

149
Q

aka for Neurofibromatosis

A

Von Recklinhausen’s disease

150
Q

What sign is associated with neurofibromatosis?

A

Cafe au Lait spots

151
Q

What is Parkinsons disease?

A

Issue with Dopamine in the basal ganglia

152
Q

aka for Posterolateral sclerosis

A

combined systems disease

153
Q

PLS results from

A

prolonged pernicious anemia

154
Q

What nervous system structures area affected in PLS?

A

Dorsal columns and corticospinal tracts

155
Q

A syringomyelia at C6 would cause

A

loss of pain and temp at the C6 level

156
Q

What is Wernicke Koracoff syndrome?

A

alcoholic psycosis with dementia

157
Q

What causes Wernicke Korsokoss syndrome?

A

depletion of thiamine (B1) from alcoholism

158
Q

Definition of Adenoma

A

Tumor of glandular tissue

159
Q

Defintion of Argentaffinoma

A

Carcinoid tumor of the neuroendocrine system (specifically intestines)

160
Q

Characteristics of benign tumors (3)

A

1) Encapulated (geographic)
2) Short zone of transition
3) usually asymptomatic

161
Q

What is a Brown’s tumor?

A

radiolucency due to loss of calcium density from hyperparathyroidism

162
Q

aka for Burkett’s lymphoma

A

Epstein Barr Virus

163
Q

Characteristics of Burrkets lymphoma

A
  • Starry sky appearance
  • jaw mass
  • central african children
164
Q

What does Carcinoma in situ mean?

A

cancer that hasnt spread to the basement membrane

165
Q

MC form of colon cancer in the US

A

Adenocarcinoma

166
Q

MC breast tumor

A

Fibroadenoma

167
Q

aka’s for Histiocytosis X

A

Hans-Schuller-Christian disease
Histolytic granuloma
Eosinophilic granuloma

168
Q

What happens with a Histiocytosis X?

A

lipid accumulates -> vertebrae plana
increased IgE reaction -> langerhans cells

169
Q

Characteristics of Hodgkins Lymphoma

A

1) Reed Sternberg cells
2) hepatosplenomegaly
3) enlarged lymph nodes
4) Increased IgE

170
Q

What is Krukenberg’s cancer?

A

cancer of stomach that metastasizes to ovaries

171
Q

What is Leukoplakia?

A

white patch in mouth from tobacco (cant be scrapped off)

172
Q

MC lung cancer is from

A

metastasis

173
Q

MC lung cancer for non smokers

A

Adenocarcinoma

174
Q

What lung cancer has the worst prognosis?

A

Oat cel, small cell

175
Q

MC lung cancer in smokers

A

Squamous cell cancer

176
Q

Where is a Mortons neuroma located

A

between 3rd & 4th metatarsals

177
Q

MC benign cardiac tumor

A

Myxoma

178
Q

What cancer has the worst prognosis?

A

pancreatic

179
Q

Papilloma’s are associated with

A

warts

180
Q

What is Rhabdomyoma?

A

tumor of striated muscle or heart muscles

181
Q

What does Sarcoma mean?

A

cancer of connective tissue,, spread through blood

182
Q

What is a Teratoma?

A

tumor of all 3 germinal layers

183
Q

What are Virchow’s nodes?

A

enlarged supraclavicular lymph nodes
(MC on left side)

184
Q

What usually causes Virchows nodes?

A

Mets from GI tract

185
Q

Anoxia vs. Hypoxia what do they mean?

A

Anoxia: absense of O2
Hypoxia: O2 deficiency

186
Q

What is Septicemia (Bacterimia)?

A

pathogens or toxins in the blood

187
Q

What is Chemotaxis?

A

movement of WBCs along concentration gradient

188
Q

What is Diapedesis (Leukocyte extravasation)?

A

neutrophils & monocytes squeezing through blood vessel walls toward damaged tissue

189
Q

What is Pavemanting/Margination?

A

Adhesion of Leukocytes to endothelium of blood vessels

190
Q

What causes a clot?

A

Fibrinogen -> fibrin via thromboplastin
which requires vit K & Calcium

191
Q

What is an Embolus?

A

Fatty emboli from a fracture in long bones

192
Q

What does Exudate mean?

A

Fluid and high protein in a damaged capillary wall

193
Q

What are the 5 stages of inflammation?

A

1) Injury
2) Vasoconstriction
3) Vasodilation
4) Swelling/Edema
5) Healing by mast cells making heparin & serotonin

194
Q

What is responsible for forming a scar?

A

Fibrin