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Part 1 Boards > Part 1: Microbiology > Flashcards

Part 1: Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of Eukaryote

A

True nucleus organelles like human cells, giardia and amoeba
(Worm or parasite)

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2
Q

Definition of Prokaryote

A

No true nucleus or organelles (bacteria)

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3
Q

Definition of Family & Genus

A

How organisms are classified/organized

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4
Q

Definition of Genus & Species

A

How organisms are named

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5
Q

Gram POSITIVE Genus in the shape of-> Cocci (6)

A

[all end with “coccus”]
1) Micro
2) Staphylo
3) Strepto
4) Entero
5) Aero
6) Peptostrepto

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6
Q

Gram POSITIVE bacteria in the shape of -> Bacilli (9)

A

1) Bacillus
2) Clostridium
3) Corynebacterium
4) Lactobacillus
5) Listeria
6) Actinomyces
7) Bifidobacterium
8) Nocordia
9) Mycobacteria

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7
Q

Gram NEGATIVE Bacteria in the shape of -> cocci (1)

A

1) Neisseria

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8
Q

What DNA virus family does Hepatitis B come from?

A

Hepadnaviridae

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9
Q

What diseases are included in the RNA Virus family Paramyxoviridae?

A

1) Measles
2) Mumps
3) RSV

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10
Q

What diseases are included in the RNA Virus family Orthomyxoviridae?

A

Influenza A, B & C

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11
Q

What diseases are included in the RNA Virus family Coronaviridae?

A

Corona virus

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12
Q

What diseases are included in the RNA Virus family Rhabdoviridae?

A

Rabies

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13
Q

What diseases are included in the RNA Virus family Filoviridae?

A

Ebola & Marburg virus

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14
Q

What diseases are included in the RNA Virus family Picornaviridae?

A

1) Rhinovirus
2) Poliovirus
3) ECHO Virus
4) Coxsackie

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15
Q

What diseases are included in the RNA Virus family Togaviridae?

A

1) Rubella
2) Westerne & Eastern Equine Encephalitis
3) Chikungunya

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16
Q

What diseases are included in the RNA Virus family Flaviviridae?

A

1) Dengue virus
2) Yellow fever
3) St. Louis Encephalitis

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17
Q

What virus causes gastroenteritis?

A

Norwalk virus

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18
Q

Its antibodies are found in…

A
  • Mucous membranes like saliva, tears & GI tract
  • breast milk
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19
Q

IgE Antibodies fight…

A

Parasitic infections & Allergic reactions

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20
Q

What antibodies increase in Hodgkin’s disease?

A

IgE & Reed Steinburg cells

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21
Q

What antibodies are the first to increase on second exposure?

A

IgG

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22
Q

What is the most numerous antibody?

A

IgG

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23
Q

What antibody can cross the placenta?

A

IgG

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24
Q

What antibody is the largest and heaviest?

A

IgM

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25
Q

What antibody is the first to increase during the first exposure?

A

IgM

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26
Q

What antibody has 10 binding sites?

A

IgM (its called a pentamer)

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27
Q

Interleukin I does what?

A

Lymphocyte activating factor for brain and nervous tissue

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28
Q

Interleukin I is made by

A

Macrophages

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29
Q

Interleukin II does what?

A

T-cell growth factor for direct response of immune system

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30
Q

Interleukin II is made by

A

CD4 cells

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31
Q

Interleukin III is made by

A

Big bone marrow

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32
Q

Where is Interleukin III located?

A

In blood and lymphatic system

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33
Q

Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) are involved with…

A

Tissue graft rejection

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34
Q

T Cells can recognize MHC ___ while B Cells can recognize MHC ___.

A

T Cells: MHC I
B Cells: MHC I & II

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35
Q

What are foam cells?

A

Macrophages with fat, LDL & cholesterol

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36
Q

Foam cells are present in: (4)

A

1) Atherosclerosis / plaque formation
2) Chlamydia
3) Toxoplasmosis
4) TB

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37
Q

What are the 6 Gram + Bacteria?

A

1)Bacillus
2) Listeria Monocytogenes
3) Clostridium
4) Corynebacterium Diphtheriae
5) Staph
6) Strep

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38
Q

5 diseases caused by Staph Aureus:

A

[STOIC]
1) Scalded skin syndrome
2) Toxic shock
3) Osteomyelitis
4) Impetigo
5) Carbuncles

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39
Q

What is Impetigo?

A

(1st cause = staph aureus & 2nd cause = strep pyogenes)
Honey crusted lesion around child’s mouth

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40
Q

What are Carbuncles?

A

Infected hair cells

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41
Q

What 6 diseases are caused by Strep Pyogenes?

A

[SERGIS]
1) Strep throat
2) Erysipelas
3) Rheumatic Fever
4) Glomerulonephritis
5) Impetigo
6) Scarlet Fever

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42
Q

AKA for Erysipelas

A

Saint Anthony’s fire

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43
Q

What disease is a superficial form of cellulitis?

A

Erysipelas

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44
Q

What are Jones major criteria for rheumatic fever?

A

1) Carditis (Macallum patch in L. Atrium)
2) Syndenham’s Chorea
3) Subcutaneous nodule
4) Erthyma Marginatum
5) Migratory Polyarthritis

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45
Q

Sign of scarlet fever

A

Strawberry tongue

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46
Q

What proteins are the membrane attack complex?

A

C5b & C9

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47
Q

Aschoff bodies are found in patients with:

A

Rheumatic fever

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48
Q

Babes Ernst granule bodies are found in patients with:

A

Diphtheria

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49
Q

Councilman cell bodies are found in patients with:

A

Viral hepatitis

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50
Q

Downey cell. bodies are found in patients with:

A

Mononucleosis

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51
Q

Epithelioid Hystiocyte’s & Gohn complex bodies are found in patients with:

A

TB

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52
Q

Guarneri bodies are found in patients with:

A

Small pox (Variola)

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53
Q

Gemma’s bodies are found in patients with:

A

Tertiary syphillis

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54
Q

Koplik spots are found in patients with:

A

Measles

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55
Q

What do Koplik spots in measles look like?

A

White/bluish spots in the mouth

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56
Q

Levy bodies are found in patients with:

A

Parkinson’s

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57
Q

Mallory bodies are found in patients with:

A

Hepatitis from alcoholism

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58
Q

Negri bodies are found in patients with:

A

Rabies

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59
Q

Russel bodies are found in patients with:

A

Multiple Myeloma or chronic inflammation/malignant disorders

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60
Q

What antibodies are passively given to baby in utero? Breastfeeding?

A

Utero: IgG
Breast feeding: IgA

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61
Q

Example of artificial active immunity

A

Vaccines

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62
Q

Sample of artificial passive immunity

A

Anti venom

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63
Q

What antigen does not stimulate an immune response?

A

Hapten

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64
Q

Definition of Endotoxin

A

from lipopolysaccharide layer of cell
(Gram - have these)

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65
Q

Definition of Enterotoxin

A

toxin that affects the intestines

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66
Q

Definition of Fomite

A

inanimate abject is vector

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67
Q

Examples of neutotoxins

A

Botulism & tetanus

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68
Q

Function of Opsonin

A

enhance phagocytosis (marks target for strike)

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69
Q

Definition of Prion

A

acellular protein that denatures othe rproteins

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70
Q

Definition of Toxoid

A

Inactivated toxin (active artificial immunity)

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71
Q

Names of the 4 Types of Hypersensitivity reactions:

A

I: Anaphylactic
II: Cytotoxic
III: Immune-Complex Mediated
IV: Delayed Hyper Sensitivity

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72
Q

Time frame in which the 4 types of hypersensitivity reactions occur:

A

Type I: 15-30 min
Type II: minutes to hours
Type III: 3-10 hours
Type IV: 48 hours

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73
Q

Examples of the hypersensitivity reaction Anaphylactic

A

Bee sting
Hay fever
Bronchial asthma

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74
Q

Examples of the hypersensitivity reaction Cytotoxic

A

Good pasteur’s
Erythroblastosis fetalis (coombs anemia
Blood transfusions
Myasthenia gravis
Grave’s disease

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75
Q

Examples of the hypersensitivity reaction Immune Complex mediated

A

Glomerulonephritis
Lupus / RA
Arthus reaction (local necrosis)
Serum sickness (systemic)

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76
Q

Examples of the hypersensitivity reaction Delayed hyper sensitivity

A

TB
contact dermatitis (poison ivy/oak etc.)
Transplant rejection via MHC

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77
Q

What cells are involved in the following type of hypersensitivity reaction Anaphylactic

A

IgE, Mast & Basophils

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78
Q

What cells are involved in the following type of hypersensitivity reaction Cytotoxic

A

IgG & Target cell
Type 2 = 2 things -> (Antigen + Antibody)

79
Q

What cells are involved in the following type of hypersensitivity reaction Immune complex mediated

A

IgG & Complement
Type 3 = 3 things -> (Antigen + Antibody + Complement)

80
Q

What cells are involved in the following type of hypersensitivity reaction Delayed hypersensitivity

A

T Cell & Lymphocytes

81
Q

An Autograph eats…

A

inorganic material

82
Q

A Heterograph eats…

A

organic material

83
Q

A Saphrophyte eats…

A

Dead/decaying material like muchrooms

84
Q

A Parasite eats…

A

off living organisma

85
Q

Facultative Aerobe vs. Facultative Anaerobe. Which prefers O2?

A

Facultative Aerobe

86
Q

Obligate Aerobe lives in an environment…

A

with Oxygen

87
Q

Obligate Anaerobe lives in an envorionment…

A

without O2

88
Q

What is a Microaerophilic organism?

A

organisma living with limited O2 (high altitude plants)

89
Q

Microaerophilic organisms are grown in…

A

Candle jar culture

90
Q

All of the following mean “2 populations living together”, but how are they diffrent?
Symbiosis
Mutualism
Synergism
Commensalism

A

Symbiosis: one or both benefit
Mutualism: both benefit
Synergism: can accomplish more together
Commensalism: one benefits, other is unaffected

91
Q

What does Zoonosis mean?

A

transfer of disease from animal to human

92
Q

What does the following lab test mean: Catalase

A

Staph = + test
Strep = - test

93
Q

What does the following lab test mean/do: Chocolate agar

94
Q

AKA’s for chocolate agar:

A

1) Thayer martin Agar
2) Heated blood Agar

95
Q

What does the following lab test mean/do: Coagulase

A

Staph aureus = + coagulase
Other Staph = - coagulase

96
Q

What does the following lab test mean/do: Colliform

A

checks E. Coli in water urification

97
Q

What does the following lab test mean/do: Coombs

A

tests RBC antigens like hemolytic anemis, erythroblastosis fetalis, Rh Factor

98
Q

What does the following lab test mean/do: Dick test

A

Scarlet fever

99
Q

What does the following lab test mean/do: Giemsa Stain

100
Q

What does the following lab test mean/do: HLA B27

A

[PEAR]
Psoriatic
Enteropathy arthropathy
AS
Reiters

101
Q

What does the following lab test mean/do: HLA DR5/CD4

A

AIDS
ELISA checks DNA, Western Blot check protein
(If ELISA is +, do Western blot) -> both + = AIDS

102
Q

What does the following lab test mean/do: Mannitol Salt

103
Q

What does the following lab test mean/do: Paul Bunnel

A

Heterophile Agglutination test for MONO

104
Q

What does the following lab test mean/do: Sabouraud Agar

105
Q

What does the following lab test mean/do: Tissue culture

A

Virus culture

106
Q

What does the following lab test mean/do: Weil Felix

A

+ for all Rickettsia except for Coxiella Burnetti

107
Q

What does the following lab test mean/do: Widal

A

Typhoid fever

108
Q

What does the following lab test mean/do: Tzank test

A

Looking for altered epitheloid cells found in
- Herpes Zoster & Simplex
- Varicella

109
Q

What does the following lab test mean/do: Hektoen Agar

A

Differentiates between shigella & Salmonella

110
Q

Tests for Syphilis:

A
  • Darkfield
  • Kline
  • Kahn
    Wasserman
111
Q

Tests for TB:

A

Acid fast test

112
Q

All mycobacterium are ______ _____.

113
Q

What disease shows a Ghon complex in lung?

114
Q

What vaccine is used for TB and what bacteria does it use?

A

Bacillus Calmette Guerin
uses Mycobacterium Bovis

115
Q

Tests for Mononucleosis:

A

1) Heterophile antibody seen in microscope
2) Paul Bunnel
3) Downey cell in blood smear
4) Monospot

116
Q

How long does the following pasteurization method take? Holding/batch method

117
Q

How long does the following pasteurization method take? Flash/continuous

A

15 seconds

118
Q

How long does the following pasteurization method take? Ultra high

A

2-5 seconds

119
Q

How long does the following pasteurization method take? Sterilization/autoclave

A

15 minutes

120
Q

What does the Sterilization/Autoclave pasteurization method do?

A

steam heat under pressure with denatures membranes

121
Q

The Sterilization/Autoclave pasteurization method is ineffective against

122
Q

Inactivated vaccines are used for what diseases?

A

Salk, Rabies

123
Q

Toxoid vaccines are used for what diseases?

A

Tetanus, botulism, DTP

124
Q

Live Attenuated vaccines are used for what diseases?

A

Measles, Mumps, Rubella, Sabin, BCG (for TB)

125
Q

The Measles/Mumps vaccine is made from

A

chick embryo

126
Q

The Rubella, rabies & Hep A vaccines are made from

A

Human diploid cells

127
Q

The polio vaccin eis made from

A

monkey kidney tissue

128
Q

What is a common side affect of vaccination?

A

Guillian-Barre “post infectious polyradiculopathy”
Ascending demyelination of PNS

129
Q

What does Blue/green pus mean?

A

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa (open burn infection)

130
Q

What does yello/green pus mean?

131
Q

What does red pus mean?

A

serratia marcenscens

132
Q

what does white pus mean?

133
Q

what does yellow pus mean?

A

staph aureus

134
Q

Penicillin function

A

for gram +, inhibits cell wall synthesis

135
Q

Streptomycin Function:

A

for gram -, inhibits protein synthesis

136
Q

Sulfa (drug) function:

A

for gram -, competes with PABA

137
Q

What drug prevents opthalmia neonatorum?

A

Silver nitrate

138
Q

Acid fast stain is used for

A

Mycobacterium

139
Q

What does the Blood Agar test do?

A

categorizes Streptococcus

140
Q

In a gram stain procedure, what is the primary stain?

A

crystal violet or methylene blue

141
Q

In a gram stain procedure, what is the fixer agent?

142
Q

In a gram stain procedure, what is the counterstain?

A

Saffarin (red/pink color goes into Gram - organisms)

143
Q

What does Conjugation mean?

A

plasmid DNA transfer via sex pilus

144
Q

What does Transduction mean?

A

Bacteriophage (alterec virus) transfers genetic material between bacteria

145
Q

What does Transformation mean?

A

direct uptake of free DNA

146
Q

What does the CDC do? ***

A
  • Compiles statistics NOT research.
  • Compiles morbidity & epidemiological statistics
147
Q

What does the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) do? ***

A
  • Monitors soil, air & water quality
148
Q

What does the FDA do? ***

A

Regulates health products released to the publin

149
Q

What does the NIH do?

A

Research NOT statistics

150
Q

What does OSHA do? ***

A

Workplace safety

151
Q

What does the US Department of Agriculture (USDA) do? ***

A

Responsible for milk products & Beef

152
Q

Definition of Emerging disease

A

new or rapid increase in a geographical range

153
Q

Definition of Endemic

A

Small # of cases in specific location

154
Q

Definition of Epidemic

A

Rapidly affects many persons within a few days or weeks

155
Q

Definition of Etiology

A

Study of the cause of disease

156
Q

Definition of Incidence

A

of new cases in a given time period

(how many new cases last year)

157
Q

Definition of Pandemic

A

more than expected # of cases worldwide

158
Q

Definition of Prevalence

A

Total # of cases at a particular time
(total cases right now)

159
Q

What are the top 2 leading causes of death in infants?

A

1) Congenital malformations
2) Prematurity

160
Q

What are the top 5 leading causes of death in adults in the US?

A

1) Heart disease
2) Cancer
3) Stroke
4) Respiratory infection
5) Accidents

161
Q

What are the top 2 leading causes of death in the world?

A

1) Tuberculosis
2) Malaria

162
Q

What are the 8 steps of water purification?

A

1) Filtration
2) Flocculation
3) Sedimentation
4) Sludge digestion
5) Sand filtration
6) Aeration
7) Chlorination
8) Possible fluoridation

163
Q

What step of water purification adds Aluminum trichloride?

A

Flocculation

164
Q

What step of water purification adds anaerobic bacteris?

A

Sludge digestion

165
Q

What step of water purification removes aneorobic bacteria?

A

Sand filtration

166
Q

What step of water purification adds oxygen to the wter?

167
Q

Adding Oxygen to water does what? (2)

A

1) Kills remaining anaerobic bacteria
2) Decreases biological oxygen demand

168
Q

What steps of the water purification process are included in the primary sewage treatment protocol?

A

Steps 1-4
Filtration, Flocculation, Sedimentation & Sludge Digestion

169
Q

What type of tapeworm is found in Uncooked beef?

A

Taenia Saginata

170
Q

What type of tapeworm is found in Uncooked pork?

A

Taenia Solium

171
Q

What type of tapeworm is found in Fish/Contaminated Sushi?

A

Diphyllobothrium Latum

172
Q

What type of tapeworm is found in canine (dog) feces?

A

Echinococcus granulosus

173
Q

Echinococcus Granulosus (tapeworm from dog feces) can cause:

A

Hydatid cysts in liver & lung

174
Q

Diphyllobothrium Latum (tapeworm found in fish/sushi) can cause:

A

Pernicious anemia
MC = Yellow fin Tuna & Salmon

175
Q

Taenia Solium (tapeworm found in uncooked pork) can cause:

A

Cysticercosis
(larvae containing cysts in the liver, eye & brain)

176
Q

Tapeworms are commonly known as ___________ and have what body shape?

A

Cestodes; long-ribbon like body

177
Q

Flukes are commonly known as ___________ and have what body shape?

A

Trematodes; flat ovoid body

178
Q

Roundworms are commonly known as ___________ and have what body shape?

A

Nematodes; cylindrical & Unsegmented bodies

179
Q

What organism is responsible for Fluke worm in the blood?

A

Shistosoma Japnicum

180
Q

What organism is responsible for Fluke worm in the Intestines?

A

Fasciolopsis buski

181
Q

What organism is responsible for Fluke worm in the Liver?

A

Clonorchis Sinensis & Fasciolopsis Hepatica

182
Q

What organism is responsible for Fluke worm in the Lung? ***

A

Paragonimus westermani

183
Q

What is the MC cause of death by a helminth (parasitic worm) worldwide?

A

The fluke worm -> Shistosoma Japonicum (Swimmers itch)

184
Q

What is the MC Helminthic infection worldwide?

A

The roundworm “Ascaris Lumbricoides”

185
Q

The Wuchereria Bancroft organism is transmitted by _______ and can cause:

A

Mosquitoes; elephantitis & Lymphatic blockage

186
Q

The Organism Necotor americanus aka Ancylostoma duodenale is a ___________ located in _________________.

A

Hookworm; fecal contaminated soil

187
Q

What organism is responsible for pinworm contamination?

A

Enterobius Vermicularis

188
Q

What is the MC helminth in the US?

A

Pinworm “Enterobius Vermicularis”

189
Q

What are the symptoms of Pinworm “Enterobius Vermicularis” infection?

A

Anus-finger-mouth touching
Nocturnal anal itching

190
Q

River blindness is caused by what organism and transmitted by ________?

A

Onchocerca Volvulus; flies

191
Q

River eye worm s caused by what organism and transmitted by ________?

A

Loa Loa; Flies

192
Q

Trichinosis s caused by what organism and transmitted by ________?

A

Trichonella spiralis; Raw pork

193
Q

Whipworm s caused by what organism and transmitted by ________?

A

Trichuris Trichura; Oral-fecal

194
Q

Trichinosis lives in what part of the body?

A

striated muscles, intercostals, diaphragm

Part 1 Boards (12 decks)

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