Part 1: Microbiology (Viral, Bacterial & Fungal Infections) Flashcards

1
Q

A single stranded RNA virus is called a

A

Viroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Virus either contain ____ or ____, not both

A

DNA or RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Arboviruses/Arthropod borne viruses are transmitted by

A

Mosquitoes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Polion is transmitted by

A

oral/fecal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

warts are transmitted by

A

skin contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hep A is transmitted by

A

oral/fecal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hep B is transmitted by

A

sex, IV drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hep C is transmitted by

A

transfusions, tattooing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Herpes Simplex Type 1 characteristics

A
  • cold sores (above the belt)
  • can be in Trigeminal “Gasserion” ganglion ***
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Herpes Simplex Type 2 characteristics

A

below the belt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Characteristic of Molluscum Contagiosum:

A

pink cauliflower lesion on female genitalia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

AKA for warts

A

Papovavirus (Papillomavirus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

AKA for Rubella

A

German Measles
3 day measles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Characteristics of Rubeola

A
  • Koplik Spots in mouth
  • 3 C’s: Cough, Coryza (runny nose), Conjunctivitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

AKA for Vaccinia

A

Cow Pox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

AKA for Variola

A

Small Pox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Characteristics of Coxsackie virus

A
  • childhood dysentery
  • Hand, foot & mouth disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Characteristics of Echovirus

A
  • skin rash
  • heart disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Characteristics of Polio

A
  • affects anterior horn
  • bulbar type -> respiratory paralysis (major cause of death)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Bulbar =

A

brainstem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Adenovirus causes:

A

conjuctivitis & pharyngitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Influenza has ________ ________ and/or _______.

A

Antigenic shift and/or drift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A small mutation of Influenza is called ___________

A

Drift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A big mutation of Influenza is called ___________

A

Shift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What virus causes Mumps?

A

Sidomegalic paramyxoid virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Mumps can lead to:

A
  • Parotiditis
  • LMNL of CN7 (bells palsy)
  • Sterility from oophritis or orchitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

RSV can cause

A

Croup & Bronchiolitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Definition of Capsid

A

Covering of genetic material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What can cause disseminated disease in AIDS patients?

A

Cytomegalovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Characteristics of rabies

A
  • negri bodies in brain
  • hydrophobia
  • bullet shaped under microscope
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

MC cause of Reyes Syndrome

A

Influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What disease has a negative reaction to aspirin?

A

Reyes Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Reyes Syndrome can cause

A

Fatty liver & encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What occurs to RNA in AIDS?

A

Reverse transcriptase (RNA -> DNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What cells are affected in AIDS and what cell destroys them?

A

CD4 cells; T-Helper cells destroy them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

1 fungal infection in AIDS pt’s:

A

Pneumocystis Carinii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

1 cause of death in AIDS pt’s

A

Pneumocystis Carinii fungal infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

1 parasitic/protozoal infection in AIDS pt’s

A

Toxoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Toxoplasmosis is spread by

A

cat feces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

1 death by cancer in AIDS pt’s:

A

Kaposi Sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The complication of Giardia Lamblia in AIDS pt’s causes

A

mucousy diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What disease only replicates in the presence of Hep B?

A

Hep D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What types of hepatitis are you a carrier for life?

A

B, C & D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Side effect (Sequelae) of Hep A

A

None

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Side effect (Sequelae) of Hep B, C & D

A

Liver Cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Does Hep A, B, C & D have RNA or DNA?

A

Hep B is the only that has DNA all others have RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What form of Hepatitid has the best & worst diagnosis?

A

Best: A
Worst: C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the 5 major Arboviruses?

A

1) Eastern Equine Encephalitis
2) Western Equine Encephalitis
3) St. Loius Encephalitis
4) Yellow fever
5) Dengue Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What bacteria is present in the bubonic plague

A

Yersinia Pestis aka Pasteurella pestis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The term Bubos in the bubonic plague means:

A

neck & axillary lymph node enlargement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Death by asphyxition is a characteristic of…

A

Bubonic plague

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Tuleremia is caused by what bacteria?

A

Francisella Tularensis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Tuleremia’s vector is

A

rabbits, maybe squirrels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What organism is present in Botulism?

A

Clostridium Botulinum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What organism is present in Campylobacter?

A

C. Jejuni

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What organism is present in Listeria?

A

Listeria Monocytogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What organism is present in Salmonella?

A

Salmonella entrides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What organism is present in Staphylococcus?

A

Staph Aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What organism is present in Typhoid?

A

Salmonella Typhi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What foods cause Botulism?

A

GRAVIES & Meats
Home Canning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What foods cause Listeria

A

Deli meats & soft cheeses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What foods cause salmonella?

A

Eggs & Poultry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What foods cause Staphylococcus?

A

Creams & custardds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What foods cause Typhoid?

A

fecal contaminated food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What food poisoning mimics myasthenia gravis?

A

Botulism

66
Q

Botulism prevents ____ release

A

AcH (floppy baby syndrome)

67
Q

1st & 2nd symptoms of botulism:

A

1st: diplopia
2nd: death

68
Q

What is the #1 cause of food poisoning & diarhhea?

A

Campylobacter (C. Jejeni)

69
Q

Signs & Symptoms of Campylobacter

A

Abdominal pain & blood/pus in stool
Fever

70
Q

Signs & Symptoms of Typhoid

A

Rose colored spots on abdomen
peyer’s patches on ileum

71
Q

What test is used for Typhoid fever?

A

Widal test

72
Q

What organism causes Cholera?

A

Vibrio Cholera

73
Q

What organism causes Shigella

A

Shigella

74
Q

What organism causes Travelers diarrhea

A

E. Coli

75
Q

Contaminated water can cause (2)

A

Cholera & E. COli

76
Q

Shigella is transmitted from

A

contaminated soil & water

77
Q

Rice water stool are characteristic of

A

cholera

78
Q

blood in the stool can be a sign of this water borne disease:

A

blood in stool aka: Bacillary/bacterial dysentery
Shigella

79
Q

The Enterohemorrhagic form of E. Coli is ______ and can cause:

A

E. Coli OH157; Hamburger’s disease/Death

80
Q

Food borne diseases (6)

A

1) Botulism
2) Campylobacter
3) Listeria
4) Salmonella
5) Staphylococcus
6) Typhoid

81
Q

Water borne diseases (4)

A

1) Brucellosis
2) Cholera
3) Shigella
4) Traveler’s Diarrhea

82
Q

Soil Borne diseases (4)

A

1) Anthrax
2) Tetanus
3) Shigella
4) Gas Gangrene

83
Q

What organism causes Anthrax?

A

Bacillus Anthracis

84
Q

What organism causes Tetanus?

A

Clostridium Tetani

85
Q

What organism causes Gas Gangrene?

A

Clostridium Perfingins

86
Q

AKA for Anthrax disease

A

Woolsorter’s disease

87
Q

What causes Anthrax disease?

A

Inhaled spores from animal hides or woll making it zoonotic

88
Q

What causes Lock jaw in Tetanus?

A

Inhibits GABA & Glycine

89
Q

1 & #2 causes of Otitis Media:

A

1: Haemophilus Influenza

#2: Strep Pneumoniae

90
Q

1 & #2 causes of Otitis Externa aka swimmers ear

A

1: E. Coli

#2: Pseudomonas Aeruginosa

91
Q

Spirochete Diseases (2)

A

1) Lyme’s disease
2) Syphilis

92
Q

What organism causes Lyme’s disease?

A

Borrelia Burgdorferi

93
Q

Charcteristic of Lyme’s disease

A

Erythema Chronicum Migricans
(Bulls eye rash)

94
Q

What organism causes Syphilis?

A

Treponema Pallidum

95
Q

Characteristics of the following stage of Syphilis: Primary

A

hard painless chancre

96
Q

Characteristics of the following stage of Syphilis: Secondary

A
  • Condylomata lata (flat warts on vulva)
  • maculopapular rash
97
Q

Characteristics of the following stage of Syphilis: Latency

A

may or may not have symptoms

98
Q

Characteristics of the following stage of Syphilis: Tertiary

A
  • Neurosyphilis
  • gummas
  • argyll robertson pupil
  • tabes dorsalis
99
Q

How do bacteria replicate?

A

binary fission-asexual reproduction

100
Q

What is the enzyme that acts on the bacteria B hemolytic strep?

A

Streptokinase

101
Q

The enzyme Coagulase acts on

A

Bacterial Staph

102
Q

The enzyme Hemolysin acts on

A

Bacterial Staph

103
Q

The enzyme Leukocidin acts on

A

bacterial staph or strep

104
Q

the enzyme Hyaluronidase acts on

A

bacterial Staph, Strep or Clostridia

105
Q

Function of the enzyme streptokinase

A

dissolves clots to organisms can spread faster

106
Q

Function of the enzyme Coagulase

A

Fibrin -> Fibrinogen (makes it thicker)

107
Q

Function of the enzyme Leukocidin

A

Exotoxin that kills WBCs & phagocytes

108
Q

Function of the enzyme Hyaluronidase

A

Breaks down tissue “cement” of hyaluronic acid

109
Q

Mesophilics are killed by

A

fever

110
Q

MC causes of meningitis in newborns

A

1st: E. COli
2nd:Listeria

111
Q

What organism causes meningitis in adults?

A

Strep pneumoniae

112
Q

List of protozoal infections (6)

A

1) Amebiasis
2) Giardiasis “beaver fever”
3) Kala-Azar “Leichmaniasis”
4) Malaria
5) Toxoplasmosis
6) Trypanosomiasis

113
Q

What organism causes Amebiasis

A

Entamoeba Histolytica

114
Q

What organism causes Giardiasis “beaver fever”?

A

Giardia Lamblia

115
Q

What organism causes Kala-Azar

A

Leishmania Donovani

116
Q

What organism causes Malaria

A

Plasmodium Vivax (MC) & Plasmodium Falciparum (Most fatal)

117
Q

What organism causes Toxoplasmosis?

A

Toxopanosoma Gondii

118
Q

What organism causes Trypanosomiasis

A

Trypanosoma Cruzi (Chaga’s disease) & Trypanosoma Gambiense (African sleeping sickness)

119
Q

Kala-Azar is transmitted from

A

sand flies

120
Q

Trypanosomiasis is transmitted from:

A

Kissing bug or Tsetse fly

121
Q

Amebiasis is transmitted from

A

contaminated food or water

122
Q

What is the infective form of Amebiasis?

A

Cyst

123
Q

What is the infective form of Giardiasis?

A

Cyst

124
Q

Amebiasis causes what symptoms?

A

dysentery, mild diarrhea

125
Q

Giardiasis causes what symptoms?

A

Flatulance, poor absorption & Mucousy diarrhea

126
Q

What protects against Malaria?

A

Sickle cell allele

127
Q

What is the infective stage vs. the merozoite stage of Malaria?

A

Infective: Sporozoite (gets into blood)
Merozoite: where it propagates through the blood

128
Q

When does Malaria become pathogenic?

A

in the Merozoite stage -> hemolytic anemia & Chronic splenomegaly

129
Q

What is the most fatal form of Malaria?

A

Plasmodium Falciparum

130
Q

What type of mosquito is responsible for carrying Malaria?

A

Anopheles mosquitoe

131
Q

List of fungal infections (6)

A

1) Aspergillosis
2) Blastomycosis
3) Coccidiomycosis
4) Histoplasmosis
5) AIDS Pneumonia
6) Sporotrichosis

132
Q

What organism causes Aspergillosis?

A

Aspergillus Fumigatus

133
Q

What organism causes Blastomycosis?

A

Endemic fungus

134
Q

What organism causes Coccidiomycosis?

A

endemic fungus

135
Q

What organism causes histoplasmosis

A

endemic fungus

136
Q

What organism causes AIDS pneumonia?

A

Pneumocystis Carinii

137
Q

What organism causes Sporotrichosis?

A

Sporotherix schenckii

138
Q

What disease is transmitted by nuts & grains?

A

Aspergillosis

139
Q

What disease is transmitted by Eastern seaboard?

A

Blastomycosis

140
Q

What disease is transmitted by the Deserrts of the Southwest?

A

Coccidiomycosis

141
Q

What disease is transmitted by Michigan and Ohio Valleys?

A

Histoplasmosis

142
Q

What disease is transmitted by Pigeon droppings?

A

AIDS Pneumonia

143
Q

What disease is transmitted by Rosebush thorns, flowers?

A

Sporotrichosis

144
Q

What disease is aka San Joaquin Valley Fever?

A

Coccidiomycosis

145
Q

What does Histoplasmosis do to the body?

A

creates calcific lesions in the lungs

146
Q

Who is at risk for Sporotrichosis?

A

Gardeners

147
Q

What does Aspergillous do to the body?

A

creates fungus ball in lungs
can cause liver cancer

148
Q

Tinea Barbae means

A

ringworm of beard

149
Q

Tinea capitis means

A

ringworm of scalp

150
Q

tinea corporis means

A

ringworm of body

151
Q

tinea cruris means

A

ringworm of groin “jock itch”

152
Q

tinea pedis means

A

ringworms of foot

153
Q

inea unguinum means

A

ringworm of nail

154
Q

tinea versicolor means

A

color change of surface of the skin

155
Q

What organism causes Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A

Rickettsia Rickettsii

156
Q

Rocky mountain spotted fever is transmitted by

A

wood tick

157
Q

Signs & symptoms of rocky moutain spotted fever:

A

rash on wrists & ankles

158
Q

Q fever is caused by what organism?

A

Coxiella Burnetii

159
Q

Coxiella Burnetii is ________ for Weil-Felix.

A

Negative

160
Q

Coxiella burnetii (Q-Fever) is transmitted by

A

Milk