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Part 1 Boards > Part 1: Pathology (Immunity, Blood, Genetics, Bone & Joints) > Flashcards

Part 1: Pathology (Immunity, Blood, Genetics, Bone & Joints) Flashcards

1
Q

Bradykinin/Histamine is responsible for what during the inflammation process?

A

Vasodilation (increase inflammation)

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2
Q

Leukotrienes is responsible for what during the inflammation process?

A

increased inflammation

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3
Q

Prostaglandins is responsible for what during the inflammation process?

A

increased inflammation

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4
Q

Substance P is responsible for what during the inflammation process?

A

Increased inflammation

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5
Q

Enkephalins/Endorphins is responsible for what during the inflammation process?

A

Pain control (Decreases inflammatino)

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6
Q

NSAIDs is responsible for what during the inflammation process?

A

decrease inflammation

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7
Q

NSAIDs inhibit…

A

Cycloxygenase (COX)

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8
Q

Steroids is responsible for what during the inflammation process?

A

decrease inflammation

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9
Q

Steroids inhibit…

A

Phospholipase A2

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10
Q

B-lymphocytes are responsible for what role in the immune system?

A

transform into plasma cells to make antibodies

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11
Q

Granulocytes consist of what types of cells?

A

Basophils
Eosinophils
Neutrophils

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12
Q

Agranulocytes consist of what types of cells?

A

Lymphocytes & Monocytes

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13
Q

Macrophages are widely distributed. what are the called in each of the following areas of the body? Tissue, Liver, Lung, CNS, PNS, Skin

A

Tissue Level: Monocytes
Liver: Kupffer
Lung: Dust
CNS: Microglia
PNS: Dendritic
Skin: Langerhan

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14
Q

Natural Killer Cells consist of what types of cells?

A

Monocytes
Eosinophils
Neutrophils

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15
Q

T-Helper cells are responsible for what role in the immune system?

A

CD4 cells; activate B cells

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16
Q

T-Killer cells are responsible for what role in the immune system?

A

CD8 cells; Destroy cancer & foreign agents

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17
Q

T-Suppressor cells are responsible for what role in the immune system?

A

T-regulatory cells; decrease immune system slowing antibody production

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18
Q

WBCs and their percentages in the blood:

A

60% Neutrophils
30% Lymphocytes
5-8% Monocytes
2-4% Eosinophils
0-.5% Basophils

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19
Q

What do Neutrophils do?

A

increase in acute bacterial infections and acute inflammation

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20
Q

What do lymphocytes do?

A

Increase in viral conditions and chronic inflammation

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21
Q

What do Monocytes do?

A

change into phagocytes in chronic conditions

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22
Q

What do Eosinophils do?

A

increase in parasites and allergies

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23
Q

What do Basophiles do?

A

Produce heparin & histamine increasing conditions that cause histamine release

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24
Q

Steps of the Immune complex from Antigen -> Antibody (7)

A

Antigen -> Macrophage -> CD4 cells -> produces lymphokines -> stimulates B lymphocytes -> converts to plasma cells -> produce antibodies

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25
Q

Natural immunity involves what 4 cells?

A

1) Natural killer cells
2) Mast cells
3) Basophils
4) Macrophage

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26
Q

What is the MC primary immunodeficiency at birth?

A

Bruton’s Agammaglobulinnemia

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27
Q

What effect does Bruton’s Agammaglobulinnemia have?

A

decreases B cells & IgG

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28
Q

What isDiGeorge disorder?

A

hypoplasia of thymus

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29
Q

What causes DiGeorge disorder?

A

T cell deficiency at birth affecting bone marrow

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30
Q

What causes severe combined immune deficiency?

A

newborn without proper B or T cells
adult with aplastic anemia OR benzene poisoning

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31
Q

Prothrombin converts to thrombin by using what?

A

Vit K & Calcium

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32
Q

What substance breaks down clots?

A

fibrolysin & plasmin

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33
Q

What starts coagulation?

A

Hageman factor 12

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34
Q

Hemophilia A:
1) Factor deficiency
2) Factor name

A

1) 8
2) Von willibrand

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35
Q

Hemophilia B:
1) Factor deficiency
2) Factor name

A

1) 9 / 10
2) Christmas factor disease / Stuart factor

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36
Q

Hemophilia C:
1) Factor deficiency
2) Factor name

A

1) 11 / 12
2) NONE / Hageman Factor

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37
Q

Hemophilia C is considerd

A

mild

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38
Q

Hemophilia B: ________ are carriers and _______ have the disease

A

(X-linked) Females; Males

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39
Q

What type of Hemophilia results in decreased platelet adhesion

A

Hemophilia A

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40
Q

what ype of anemia is caused by benzate poisoning?

A

aplastic anemia

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41
Q

Aplastic anemia shows decreased…

A

RBCs, WBCs & platelets, bone marrow degeneration

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42
Q

Decreased RBC, WBC and platelets is known as ____________.

A

pancytopenia

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43
Q

MC cause of decreased RBC production

A

iron deficiency

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44
Q

MC cause of iron deficiency

A

chronic blood loss (menses)

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45
Q

Reasons for decreased production of RBCs

A

1) Iron def.
2) pernicious anemia from gastritis
3) folic acid def
4) B12 def

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46
Q

B12 deficiency is commonly seen in

A

vegetarians

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47
Q

Iron deficiency anemia is considered (2)

A

Microcytic, hypochromic

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48
Q

pernicious anemia has a lack of _____________ and can be caused by ____________.

A

Intrinsic factor; Gastritis

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49
Q

Folic acid deficiency is known as what type of anemia?

A

megaloblastic

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50
Q

chronic blood loss leads to…

A

iron deficiency anemia (microcytic, hypochromic)

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51
Q

Hemorrhage leads to…

A

normochromic/normocytic anemia

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52
Q

3 diseases that can cause blood loss:

A

1) Sickle cell anemia
2) Thalassemia Major
3) Erythroblastosis fetalis

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53
Q

How does sickle cell anemia cause blood loss?

A

hemolytic breakdown

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54
Q

AKAs for Thalassemia Major

A

1) Cooley’s anemia
2) Homozygous Beta Thalassemia
3) Mediterranean anemia

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55
Q

What sign on x ray indicates thallesimia maor?

A

“hair on end” of the skull

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56
Q

What Rh factors do parent and baby have in erythroblastosis fetalis?

A

Mom Rh-
Dad Rh+
Baby Rh+

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57
Q

What is Polycythemia?

A

Increased RBCs

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58
Q

What is 1st degree polycythemia?

A

Polycythemia Rubra Vera
(Pathological)

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59
Q

What is 2nd degree polycythemia?

A

relative polycythemia
(normal response to high altitudes)

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60
Q

Definition of Thrombocytopenia

A

decreased platelets in the blood

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61
Q

An aneurysm of the Berry in Circle of Willis is a

A

subarachnoid hemmorhage

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62
Q

What is a dissecting aneurysm?

A

Longitudinal tearing of aorta

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63
Q

Signs of an AAA

A
  • sudden LBP
  • hypovolemic shock
  • thready pulse
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64
Q

what shape and what type of calcification is seen in an AAA?

A

fusiform shape & curvilinear calcification

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65
Q

What is Atherosclerosis?

A

deposition of fatty plaque in intima of large & medium sized arteries causing narrowing

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66
Q

AKA for Buerger’s disease

A

Thromboangitis Obliterans

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67
Q

What type of patient sget Buerger’s disease?

A

younger males (20-40 y.o.) with history of smoking

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68
Q

What is Buerger’s disease?

A

intermittent claudication of lower extermity with exertion (cramping)

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69
Q

What is a cardiac tamponade?

A

fluid in pericardial space preventing proper ventricular filling

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70
Q

What refferal should a cardiac tamponade have?

A

ER

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71
Q

What is Aortic Coarctation?

A

congenital narrowing of aorta distal to the left subclavian

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72
Q

Coarctation of the aorta causes…

A

Hypertension in upper extremities and hypotension in lower extremities

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73
Q

Who typically gets Monkeberg’s sclerosis?

A

smokers & diabetics

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74
Q

What is Monkeberg’s sclerosis?

A

Calcified tunica media of medium sized arteries

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75
Q

Characteristics of sickle cell anemia

A

1) half moon shaped RBC
2) H shaped vertebrae
3) homozygous sickle cell allele

76
Q

AKA for Takayasu arteritis

A

pulseless disease

77
Q

What is Takayasu arteritis?

A

Granulomatous inflammation of the aortic arch seen in asian women

78
Q

AKA for temporal arteritis

A

Giant cell arteritis

79
Q

Temporal Arteritis is associated with: (3)

A

1) long standing hypertension
2) blindness if Opthalmic artery is affected
3) elevated ESR

80
Q

What is the best DDx for temporal arteritis?

A

biopsy

81
Q

What 4 things are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?

A

[DRIP]
Dextrorotation of Aorta
Right Ventricular Hypertrophy
Interventricular Septal Defect
Pulmonic Stenosis

82
Q

Valvular lesions are due to

A

tooth extraction where Strep infection causes Aschoff bodies from Rheumatic fever

83
Q

What valve is affected in Strep infections?

A

Mitral

84
Q

What heart valve is affected in Syphilis?

A

Aortic

85
Q

Acute lymphoblasstic Leukemia is MC seen in

A

children

86
Q

MC acute leukemia in adults

A

85% -> Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia

87
Q

What acute leukemia has the worst prognosis in adults?

A

Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia

88
Q

MC chronic leukemia in adults

A

Chronic lymphocytic Leukemia

89
Q

Chronic Myelocytic Leukemia affects who?

A

young adults (30-40 y.o)

90
Q

Chronic Myelocytic Leukemia is associated with (2)

A

1) Increased granulocytes
2) translocation of Philadelphia chromosome #22

91
Q

MC form of genetic dwarfism

A

Achondroplasia

92
Q

What is affected in Achondroplasia

A

growth plates & failure of normal epiphyseal cartilage formation

93
Q

On Radiographs, what can you see with Achondroplasia?

A

Bullet vertebrae & Trident hand

94
Q

What genetic disease is known for accumulation of homogentisic acid?

A

Alkaptonuria

95
Q

What does the accumulation of homogenistic acid produce? What disease is this a feature of?

A

blue-black deposits in cartilage, ears, nose & cheeks
(Alkaptonuria)

96
Q

Alkaptonuria can cause what to the spine and what to the urine?

A

calcification in the discs & black urine

97
Q

In Alkaptonuria an increase of ________ can be seen.

A

Tyrosine

98
Q

What is CHarcot Marie Tooth disease?

A

Hereditary progressive peroneal muscle + tibialis anterior atrophy

99
Q

Charcot Marie tooth disease can be seen in what patients?

A

Diabetics

100
Q

What is Edwards disease?

A

Trisomy 18, retardation

101
Q

What are the signs of Edwards disease?

A

rocker bottom feet
clenched fists
cleft pallot

102
Q

When does Huntinton’s CHorea typically set in?

A

age 30-50

103
Q

What tissue is affected in Huntington’s chorea?

A

Basal ganglia & atrophy of caudate
(decrease in GABA)

104
Q

Huntingtons Chorea affects what chromosome and produces…

A

4; dementia & death

105
Q

Signs of Marfan’s syndrome

A
  • Arachnodactyly
  • subluxation or dislocation of lens
  • tall stature
  • dissecting aortic aneurysm
106
Q

What genetic disease is characterized by a defct in type I collagen?

A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

107
Q

2 Signs of Osteogenesis Imperfecta

A

Blue Sclera & Brittle Bones

108
Q

What process causes Phenylketonuria?

A

Cant convert phenylalanine to tyrosine due to phenylalanine hydroxylase

109
Q

What are the physical abnormalities of Von Gierke’s disease?

A

[Glycogen storage disease]
- Lack enzyme Glucose-6-phosphatase
- excess glucose stored in the liver

110
Q

What is Cri du Chat disease?

A

CHS #5; characteristic cry of newborn

111
Q

What are the 4 Lipodystrophy genetic diseases?

A

1) Gauchers
2) Krabbes
3) Niemann Pick’s
4) Tay Sach’s

112
Q

What is Gaucher’s disease?

A

(Lipodystrophy)
Excess GLUCOcerebrosides in brain, liver & spleen

113
Q

What is Krabbe’s disease?

A

(Lipodystrophy)
Excess GALACTOcerebrosides in white matter

114
Q

What is Niemann Pick’s Disease?

A

(Lipodystrophy)
Increased Sphingomyelin due to Sphingomyelinase Deficiency

115
Q

What is Tay Sach’s Disease?

A

(Lipodystrophy)
Increased Gangliosides (glycosphingolipid) in the brain
due to Hexosaminidase A deficiency

116
Q

What are the clinical signs of Tay Sach’s disease?

A

Cherry red spots on macula MC in Ashkenasi Jews

117
Q

What is Fragile X disease?

A

MC form of retardation caused by fragile site at XQ27

118
Q

What gene is associated with Fragile X disease?

A

FMR1 gene

119
Q

What disease is characterized by 47XXY karyotype?

A

Kleinfelter’s

120
Q

What disease is characterized by 45X0 karyotype?

A

Turner’s

121
Q

Physical characteristics seen in Kleinfelters disease

A

1) tall male
2) Low IQ
3) Testicular atrophy
4) Gynecomastia & sterile

122
Q

Physical characteristics of Turner’s Disease:

A

1) Short female
2) webbed neck
3) amenorrhea
4) lacks secondary female characteristics

123
Q

What is Duchene’s Muscular Dystrophy?

A

Pseudohypertrophy of calves where the muscle is replaced by fat

124
Q

Who is affected by Duchene’s Muscular Dystrophy?

A

boys ages 3-7

125
Q

Duchene’s Muscular Dystrophy is ____ linked and ___________.

A

X-linked & recessive

126
Q

Duchene’s Muscular Dystrophy shows an increase in…

A

creatine phosphokinase

127
Q

Characteristic signs of Duchene’s Muscular Dystrophy: (2)

A

waddling gait & Gower’s maneuver (using hands on legs to stand up)

128
Q

What cancer is MCly seen in sacrum & clivus of Occiput?

A

Chordoma

129
Q

What is the MC primary malignancy of bone in adults?

A

Multiple myeloma

130
Q

aka for multiple myeloma

A

Plasma cell laukemia/sarcoma

131
Q

Multiple Myeloma shows an increase of __________ and abnormal _______________.

A

amyloid; B lymphocytes

132
Q

Radiogrph characteristics of Multiple Myeloma

A

1) multiple punched out lesions
2) Raindrop skull
3) Russel bodies

133
Q

Lab findings for Multiple Myeloma: (4)

A

1) IgG M Spike
2) Bence Jones proteins in urine
3) Reverse A/G ratio
4) Elevated ESR

134
Q

What is Myositis Ossificans?

A

calcium or bone deposits in muscle due to trauma

135
Q

Myositis Ossificans is most commonly in what muscles?

A

Quads & Biceps

136
Q

If Myositis Ossificans is located in the adductors it is known as…

A

Prussian’s disease

137
Q

What disease has a dumbbell shaped IVF?

A

Neurofibromatosis

138
Q

Causes of a neuropathic joint (6)

A

1) Diabetes
2) Corticosteroids
3) Syringomyelia
4) Tabes Dorsalis
5) Alcoholic Neuropathy
6) Leprosy

139
Q

AKAs for a Neuropathic joint: (3)

A

1) Neurogenic joint
2) neurotrophic joint
3) Charcot joint

140
Q

MC location for neuropathic joint

A

Foot/ankle
2nd is the Knee

141
Q

What are the 6 D’s associated with a Neuropathic Joint?

A

Destruction
Debris of Bone
Density Increase
Dislocation
Disorganization
Distension

142
Q

Osteoblastomas are MCly seen where?

A

neural arch

143
Q

What bone pathology has pain worse @ night and is relieved by Aspirin?

A

Osteoid Osteoma

144
Q

Age range for Osteoid Osteoma

A

15-25

145
Q

MC benign tumor of the skull

A

Osteoma

146
Q

AKAs for Osteopetrosis

A
  • Marble Bone Disease
  • Albers Schlonbers Disease
147
Q

Early & Late sign on radiographs for Osteopetrosis:

A

Early: one within a bone
Late: Sandwich Vertebrae

148
Q

MC primary bone cancer for children 10-30

A

Osteosarcoma

149
Q

What pathological cell is associated with Paget’s disease?

A

Osteoclastic cell

150
Q

Typical history of a patient with Paget’s disease

A
  • men over 50
  • increase hat size
  • cortical thickening
151
Q

What are the 4 radiographic stages of Paget’s disease?

A

1) Lytic: osteoclast activity
2) Mixed: lytic & Blastic
3) Blastic: osteoblast activity
4) Malignant Degeneration (osteosarcoma)

152
Q

Lab results for Paget’s Disease (3)

A

1) Inc. Alkaline Phosphatase
2) Inc. Urinary hydroxyproline
3) normal Calcium & Phosphorus

153
Q

What signs are associated with a Sclerodoma?

A

[CREST]
Calcinosis Cutis
Raynauds
Esophageal problems
Sclerodacyly
Telangectasis (dilation of superficial blood vessels

154
Q

Radiographic sign of Scleroderma

A

Reabsortion of distal tuffs

155
Q

What disease shows “picture frame vertebrae?

A

Paget’s

156
Q

Rugger Jersey Spine is seen in

A

Hyperparathyroidism

157
Q

MC cause of Osteomyelitis

A

Staph Aureus

158
Q

Acid phosphatase is elevated in

A

prostatic cancer

159
Q

Alkaline Phosphatse is elevated in

A

Liver & bone disease

160
Q

1 Mineral deficiency in the US

A

Calcium

161
Q

1 mineral deficiency in the World

A

Iron

162
Q

What is Caplan’s syndrome?

A

Coal miners lung with RA nodules

163
Q

AKA for AS

A

Marie Stumpell’s disease

164
Q

What is Felty’s syndrome?

A

Chronic RA with Splenomegaly

165
Q

Signs of Osteoarthritis:

A

1) unilateral
2) Herberden’s nodes of DIP
3) Bouchards nodes of PIP
4) MC in Hip then Knee

166
Q

Radigraphic signs of Psoriatic arthritis (3)

A

1) mouse ear erosion
2) Pencil in Cup
3) Rays sign

167
Q

Physical signs of Psoriatic arthritis: (4)

A

1) sausage digits
2) silver scales
3) pitted nails
4) Auspitz sign (pull off scale & it bleeds)

168
Q

Reiter’s Is caused by

A

Chlamydia

169
Q

triad of symptoms seen in Reiter’s

A

Uveitis (cant see)
Urethritis (cant pee)
Arthritis (cant dance)

170
Q

Lover’s heel can be seen in

A

Plantar fasciitis or Reiter’s

171
Q

What are the seronegative arthritides?

A

[PEAR]
Psoriatic
Enteropathic
Ankylosing Spondylitis
Reiter’s

172
Q

What are the seropositive Arthritides?

A

[RSSS]
Rheumatoid
Sjogren’s
Scleroderma
Systemic Lupus

173
Q

Signs of Sjogren’s arthritis (2)

A

1) Dry eyes (xerophthalmia)
2) Dry mouth (xerostomia)

174
Q

AKA for Still’s disease

A

Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis

175
Q

MC cause of Osteonecrosis

A

trauma, but can be from cortocosteroids

176
Q

Keinbock’s disease is avascular necrosis of the

A

Lunate

177
Q

Kohler’s disease is avascular necrosis of the

A

tarsal navicular

178
Q

Legg Calve Perthes disease is avascular necrosis of the

A

head of the femur in a child

179
Q

Preisser’s disease is avascular necrosis of the

A

Scaphoid

180
Q

Scheuermann’s disease is avascular necrosis of the

A

multiple vertebral endplats

181
Q

MC fracture of the wrist:

A

Colles fracture

182
Q

What is a Colles fracture?

A

fracture of distal radius with posterior displacement

183
Q

what sign is associated with Colles fracture?

A

Dinner Fork deformity

184
Q

AKA for Osgood Schlatter’s

A

Tibial Apophysitis

185
Q

AKA for Smith’s frcture

A

Reverse Colles fracture

186
Q

What is a Smith’s fracture?

A

Fracture of distal radius with anterior displacement

187
Q

What sign is associated with a Smith’s fracture?

A

Garden Spade Deformity

Part 1 Boards (12 decks)

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