Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Part 1 Boards > Part 1: Physiology (Heart, Lungs, Kidneys) > Flashcards

Part 1: Physiology (Heart, Lungs, Kidneys) Flashcards

1
Q

What vein drains the lumbers into the Superior Vena Cava?

A

Azygous Vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What % of blood PASSIVELY flows into the right ventricle?

A

80% (20% needs atrial contraction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The P wave starts at __________

A

SA node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where is the SA node located?

A

Christa Terminalis of the Right Atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What node has an electrical delay? Why?

A

AV Node; to allow ventricles to completely fill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The P-R interval is when…

A

AV node is delaying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

At the end of diastole what is the volume of the R. Atrium?

A

120ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What valve closing creates the S1 heart sound?

A

Tricuspid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The QRS complex is when the ________ contract which is known as ___________.

A

Ventricles; ventricular depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The 2 Pulmonary arteries carry ________________ blood to the lungs.

A

Deoxygenated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The Umbilical artery in a fetus carries ______________ blood

A

Deoxygenated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What effect is responsible for blood being oxygenated by the lungs?

A

Bohr Effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How many Oxygen are there for each hemoglobin molecule?

A

Four

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What % of hemoglobin is saturated with Oxygen?

A

97%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How many pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood to the left atrium?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What structures carries the most oxygenated blood in the cardiovascular system?

A

The pulmonary veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The umbilical vein in a fetus carries _________ blood.

A

Oxygenated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What % of blood PASSIVELY flows into the left ventricle? What does the other % need?

A

80%; 20% needs P wave AV nodal delay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the order of events in the left ventricle? (5)

A

1) Mitral valve closes
2) isovolumetric contraction
3) Midsystole
4) aortic Valve opens
5) aortic valve closes
6) isovolumetric relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When the aortic valve opens how much blood rushes into the Aorta?

A

70ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How much blood remains in the ventricles during isovolumetric relaxation?

A

50ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Isovolumetric relaxation marks the…

A

End of Diastole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

EKG Readings: P Wave

A

1) Atrial depolarization
2) Atrium contracts
3) SA Node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

EKG Readings: P-R Interval

A

1) AV nodal delay
2) atrium contracting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

EKG Readings: R

A

1) Isovolumetric contraction
2) Signal released from AV node & travels down Bundle of His into Purkinjie Fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the Moderator band?

A

Right Bundle of His in the septomarginal recess of the Right Ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the fastest nerve in the body? Why?

A

Purkinje system in ventricle; intercalated discs & gap junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

EKG Readings: QRS

A

1) Ventricular depolarization
2) Ventricle contracts
3) Atrial Repolarization is hidden under the QRS complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

EKG Readings: Q Wave

A

1) 1st downwards deflection
2) Chordae Tendinae + papillary muscles prevent AV valves from blowing back from vent. Cont.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

EKG Readings: T Wave

A

ventricular Repolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

EKG Readings: U wave

A

Repolarization of the papillary muscle (seen sometimes in bigger hearts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

EKG Readings: S-T Segment

A

Isovolumetric relaxation with 50ml of blood in the ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

During the S-T Segment the valves are ________

A

Closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Inverted T Wave or an altered S-T segment indicates

A

Myocardial Infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

AKA for Long absolute refractory period

A

Slow Calcium channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Tetany =

A

Slow calcium channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Plateaus means

A

Impossible for the heart to fire again

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

AKA for Auto rhythmicity

A

Automatic conductivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does Auto rhymicity mean?

A

Heart can beat on its own due to leaky sodium channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What causes auto rhythmicity?

A

SA node at about 45 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

1 degree heart block EKG reading

A

Elongation of PR interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

2 degree heart block EKG reading

A

Elongation of PR interval until 2 atrial depolarization show up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the Winkebocks Phenomena?

A

2 degree heart block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Complete heart block EKG reading

A

No pattern / random

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

1st heart sound:

A
  • AV valves closed
  • Isometric contraction
  • Lub
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

2nd heart sound

A

Semilunar valves closed
“Dub”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

3rd heart sound

A

Ventricular gallop in CHF (normal in athletes & children)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

4th heart sound

A
  • Heard in diastole
  • Atrial gallop
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What pathologies occur in Diastole?

A

[ARMS & PRTS]
Aortic Regurgitation
Mitral Stenosis
Pulmonic Regurgitation
Tricuspid Stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

MC cause of CHF

A

Essential hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

2nd MC cause of CHF

A

Aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Essential hypertension age range

A

35-55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Ventricular Hypertrophy is seen in

A

CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What causes Exertional Dyspnea and Orthopnea?

A

Blood being backed up into the L. Atrium into the lungs (early sign of CHF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is Orthopnea?

A

Can’t lay down because of fluid in lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

In CHF, blood backs up into the L. Atrium and lungs via

A

The pulmonary vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Blood backing up into the L. Atrium to the lungs creates

A

1) pulmonary edema
2) pulmonary hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

In right sided heart failure..

A

Blood backs up into right ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

MC cause of right sided heart failure

A

Left sided heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

If right sided heart failure is isolated to the right side…

A

Cor Pulmonale problem; lung problem such as pneumonia or emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

If the R. Atrium backs up into the SVC…

A

Pulsation of jugular veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

If the R. Atrium backs up into the IVC…

A

It will back up to the liver and the legs (pitting edema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the longest vein in the body?

A

Great saphenous vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

“Bag of worms” appearance of veins =

A

Varicocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What vein is used for coronary bypass?

A

Great saphenous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Th Portal vein =

A

Superior mesenteric vein + Splenic/Lineal Vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Portal hypertension creates

A

Ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

MC cause of liver failure

A

Alcoholism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Alcoholism can cause

A

Ascites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Mallory Weiss Syndrome is caused by what steps?

A

1) alcoholism
2) liver failure
3) esophageal varices
4) hematemesis (vomit blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is found in the liver with Mallory Weiss Syndrome

A

Mallory bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

B1 (Thiamin deficiency) can lead to

A

Wernicke-Korsakoff psychosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the layers of the blood vessels?

A

1) Tunica intimate (inside)
2) Tunica Muscularis (middle)
3) Tunica Adventitia (outside)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Blood vessels that irrigate blood vessels are called

A

Vaso Vasorum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The greatest pressure is found in what arteries?

A

The largest arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Resistance to pressure is found in what vessels?

A

Arterioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Coronary arteries _________ & _________ due to ____________ _________.

A

Dilate & constrict; metabolic demand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Coronary arteries dilating & contricting due to metabolic demand…..

A

After load in heart is determined by aortic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Normal blood pH

A

7.35-7.45

80
Q

What blood type is the universal donor?

A

Type O-

81
Q

What blood type is the universal recipient?

A

AB+

82
Q

Characteristics of Tetralogy of Fallot: (4)

A

1) Dextroposition of aorta
2) R. Ventricular Hypertrophy
3) Interventricular septal defect
4) Pulmonary stenosis

83
Q

Characteristics of Marfan’s syndrome: (4)

A

1) Dissecting aneurysm
2) Eye lens subluxation
3) tall stature
4) long spider-like fingers (arachnodactaly)

84
Q

Characteristics of Valve defect:

A

1) destroyed by rheumatic fever
2) Strep Pyogenes
3) makes Aschoff bodies

85
Q

Group A vs. Group B valve pathology:

A

A: Lancefield
B: Hemolytic Strep

86
Q

MC benign tumor of the heart

A

Myxoma

87
Q

Sign of Heart inflammation

A

C-reactive protein (CRP)

88
Q

Laws of physiology: Bell Magende

A

Anterior spinal roots are motor / Posterior are Sensory

89
Q

Laws of physiology: Hering Breuer

A

Limits respiratory excursion via the Vagus nerve

90
Q

Laws of physiology: LaPlace’s Law for arteries

A

The tension in an artery is proportional to the radius of the vessel

91
Q

Laws of physiology: LaPlace’s Law for the heart

A

ventricular pressure depends on muscular tension, size & shape of the heart

92
Q

Laws of physiology: Starling’s Law

A

Cardiac output is equal to venous return

93
Q

If venous return exceeds cardiac output…

A

Congestive Heart Failure

94
Q

What is the Haldane effect?

A

Hemoglobin becomes more acidic binding with oxygen

95
Q

The Haldane effect causes

A

Carbon dioxide and H+ protons to be expelled into the alveoli upon expiration

96
Q

Carbon Dioxide and H+:

A

Always move together

97
Q

What is the Bohr’s effect on the lungs?

A

[Shift to the Left = Shift to the Lung]
- Hemoglobin binds 4 O2’s
- Hemoglobin releases CO2, H+ & DPG
- Decreases temperature

98
Q

What is Bohr’s effect at the Tissues?

A
  • Hemoglobin releases O2
  • Hemoglobin binds CO2, H+ & DPG
  • Increases temperature
99
Q

Normal Tidal volume

A

500 ml

100
Q

Tidal volume is controlled by the

A

Pneumotaxic center and limits inspiration when lung is full

101
Q

Tidal volume AKA

A

Normal breathing

102
Q

What reflex is fired in tidal volume?

A

Herring Breuer reflex

103
Q

Inspiration Reserve volume AKA

A

Forced Inspiration

104
Q

Normal Inspiration Reserve volume

A

3000ml

105
Q

Inspiration Reserve volume shuts of the

A
  • Herring Breuer Reflex
  • & Pneumotaxic reflex via the apneustic center in the pons
106
Q

What lung volume allows for deep breath and is the largest part of individual breathing?

A

Inspiration Reserve volume

107
Q

Expiratory Reserve Volume AKA

A

Forced expiration

108
Q

Normal Expiratory Reserve Volume

A

1100ml

109
Q

What controls Expiratory Reserve Volume

A

Rectus abdominals

110
Q

What lung volume keeps the lungs from collapsing?

A

Residual volume

111
Q

Normal Residual volume

A

1200ml

112
Q

What is the calculation for Normal Inspiratory capacity?

A

Inspiratory Reserve Volume + Tidal Volume = 3500ml

113
Q

What is the calculation for normal Functional Residual capacity?

A

ERV + RV = 2300ml

114
Q

What is the calculation for normal Vital capacity?

A

IRV + TV + ERV = IC + ERV = 4600ml

115
Q

What is the calculation for normal Total lung volume?

A

IRV + TV + ERV +RV = 5800ml

116
Q

What is “dead space” in the lungs

A

Air in the pulmonary tree not involved with gas exchange (like air in bronchi)

117
Q

Respiration is controlled by 1) what nerve & 2) what CN’s?

A

1) Dorsal Motor nucleus of Vagus nerve
2) Nucleus Ambiguous CN 9, 10 & 11

118
Q

Alveolar pressure is

A

Slightl negative due to surfactant

119
Q

Atmospheric pressure

A

Opposes alveolar pressure

120
Q

Pleural pressure

A

Is negative and keeps the lungs open to their resting level

121
Q

Trans pulmonary pressure

A

Is the difference between alveolar pressure and pleural pressure measuring elastic forces in the lungs

122
Q

Lack of surfactant at birth usually in premature babies (disease name)

A

Acute Respiratoy Distress Syndrome (ARDS)
AKA Neonatal Hyaline Membrane Disease

123
Q

Apex of the lung is called the

A

Cupola

124
Q

What type of cell is the entire lung made up of?

A

(PCCE) Pseudostratified Ciliated Columnar Epithelium

125
Q

The alveolar sacs are made of what type of cell?

A

Simple Squamous Epithelium

126
Q

Type 1 Pneumocytes are responsible for:

A

Gas exchange

127
Q

Type 2 Pneumocytes are responsible for:

A

Decrease surface tension (Surfactant)

128
Q

What are the macrophages of the lung called

A

Dust cells

129
Q

Fluid in the lungs collects in the

A

Diaphragmatic recess

130
Q

J cells are for

A

Mucous

131
Q

Water is 20x more absorbable to. ____ than ____

A

CO2; O2

132
Q

Central chemoreceptors in the brain are most sensitive to

A

Increases in CO2 (Decrease in O2 is second)

133
Q

Peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic body are most sensitive to

A

Decrease in O2 & Increase in CO2

134
Q

Chloride shift does what?

A

Keeps the blood pH constant

135
Q

%’s of CO2 in the blood (3)

A

70% is bicarbonate
23% is carbamino Hemoglobin
7% freely diffused in blood

136
Q

AKA for Carboxyhemoglobin

A

Carbon Monoxide

137
Q

Carbonic Anhydrase converts what?

A

H20 + CO2 <-> H + HCO3

138
Q

Carbonic Anhydrase is a ____________ ___________.

A

Reversible enzyme

139
Q

What is the mineral for carbonic Anhydrase?

A

Zinc

140
Q

Acidosis has increased:

A

[H+] & [CO2]

141
Q

Acidosis has decreased

A

[O2]

142
Q

Alkalosis has decreased

A

[H+] & [CO2]

143
Q

Alkalosis has increased

A

[O2]

144
Q

Cause of Respiratory Acidosis

A

Decreased ventilation

145
Q

Examples of Respiratory Acidosis (3)

A
  • Holding breath
  • consolidation
  • pneumonia
146
Q

Treatment for Respiratory Acidosis

A

Urinate NH4+ out and Breathing

147
Q

Cause of Respiratory Alkalosis

A

Increased ventilation

148
Q

Example of Respiratory Alkalosis

A

Hyperventilation

149
Q

Treatment for Respiratory Alkalosis

A

Bag over head and/or excrete Bicarbonate (NaCO3)

150
Q

Cause of Metabolic Acidosis

A

Non-Lung Acidosis

151
Q

Examples of Metabolic Acidosis (3)

A
  • Diarrhea
  • Diabetes
  • Ketoacidosis
152
Q

Treatment for Metabolic Acidosis

A

Hyperventilation to blow off CO2
(If DM -> smell ketones)

153
Q

Cause of Metabolic Alkalosis

A

Non-lung alkalosis

154
Q

Examples of Metabolic Alkalosis (2)

A

1) Bulimia (loss of HCL)
2) Diuretics ( loss of H+)

155
Q

Treatment for Metabolic Alkalosis

A

Slow Breathing

156
Q

Kidneys filter ____ liters of fluid per day

A

180

157
Q

The macula densa is located in the ____________

A

Distal convoluted tubule

158
Q

The macula densa is sensitive to

A

Sodium concentration

159
Q

When the macula densa detects decreased sodium …….

A

It interprets it as decreased blood pressure

160
Q

The macula densa acts on the ________ ___________ causing _____________.

A

Afferent arteriole; Vasodilation

161
Q

After the macula densa causes vasodilation of the afferent arteriole, what cells are stimulated and what do they do?

A

Juxtaglomerular cells; release Renin into the blood

162
Q

Renin combines with _____________ to form _____________.

A

Angiotensinogen; angiotensin I

163
Q

After Angiotensin is formed where does it travel? And what is it converted to?

A

Lung; Angiotensin II

164
Q

What is the most powerful vasoconstricter known to humankind?

A

Angiotensin II

165
Q

Where does Angiotensin II have its greatest effect and what does it do?

A

The Efferent Arteriole; Vasoconstriction

166
Q

Angiotensin II ultimately produces what result?

A

Increases pressure in the Glomerulus

167
Q

Increased pressure in the glomerulus…

A

Forces fluid out into the Bowman’s Capsule for filtration

168
Q

Angiotensin II goes to the _____ __________ of the ___________ __________ to secrete _____________.

A

Zona Glomerulosa; Adrenal Cortex; Aldosterone

169
Q

Once Angiotensin produces secretion of Aldosterone the affect is on the ____________________ which retains ________ and excretes __________.

A

Distal convoluted tubules; Sodium; Potassium

170
Q

When sodium levels rise in the blood, what are they picked up by and what is the result?

A

Osmoreceptors of the supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus & Release ADH/Vasopressin

171
Q

What is the greatest effect of ADH

A

Makes the COLLECTING DUCTS permeable to water

172
Q

Once water leaks out of the collecting ducts, the __________ __________ of the _____________ ______________ return it to the blood

A

Oncotic pressure; peritubular capillaries

173
Q

Where does angiotensinogen come from?

A

Liver

174
Q

What is the first segment of the male urethra?

A

Preprostatic urethra

175
Q

What is the second segment of the male urethra?

A

Prostatic urethra

176
Q

What is the third segment of the male urethra?

A

Membranous urethra passing through the urogenital diaphragm in the deep perineal pouch

177
Q

What is the forth segment of the male urethra?

A

Penile Urethra; corpus spongiosum

178
Q

If the penile urethra comes out on the top of the penis it is called

A

Epispadias

179
Q

If the penile urethra comes out of the bottom of the penicillin it is called

A

Hypospadias

180
Q

What structure is responsible for Male erection?

A

Corpus Cavernosa

181
Q

What does Micturitian mean?

A

Going pee

182
Q

Whaat is the muscle that avoids the bladder in the urinary system?

A

Detrusor

183
Q

What triggers the release of Aldosterone?

A

Angiotensin II

184
Q

Where does Aldosterone act?

A

Distal convoluted tubules

185
Q

What is the action of Aldosterone

A

Retain Sodium & Excrete Potassium

186
Q

What triggers the release of ADH?

A

Increased Sodium osmolarity

187
Q

Where does ADH act?

A

Collecting duct

188
Q

What is the action of ADH?

A

Allows reabsorption of water by making collecting ducts permeable to water

189
Q

The distal convoluted tubules absorbs ______ under the influence of _____________.

A

Sodium; Aldosterone

190
Q

Everything except for sodiu is absorbed through the…

A

Proximal convoluted tubules

191
Q

What is the best test for GFR?

A

Insulin

192
Q

The Loop of Henle prevents

A

Excess Ion excretion

193
Q

The kidney cortex includes (3)

A

1) Nephron
2) PCT
3) DCT

194
Q

The kidney Medulla consists of: (2)

A

1) Loop of Henle
2) collecting ducts

195
Q

Order of where fluid flows in the urinary system: (5)

A

Minor Caylx
Major Caylx
Renal Sinus
Renal Pelvis
Ureter

Part 1 Boards (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions