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Paper 1 Flashcards

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AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

name the five parts of the animal cells

A

Cell membrane
Nucleus
Cytoplasm
Mitochondria
Ribosome

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2
Q

name the 3 extra parts of the plant cells

A

vacuole
cell wall
chloroplasts

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3
Q

what is the function of the cell membrane?

A

Controls what enters and leaves the cell

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4
Q

what is the function of the nucleus?

A

contains the DNA of the cell and can control the cell

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5
Q

what is the function of the cytoplasm?

A

where the reactions take place

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6
Q

what is the function of the ribosome?

A

creates proteins

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7
Q

what is the function of the cell wall?

A

helps the cell keep its shape

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8
Q

what is the function of the vacuole?

A

contains cell sap, helps keep the shape of the cell

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9
Q

what is the function of the chloroplasts?

A

where photosynthesis

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10
Q

what type of cells are plant and animal cells

A

eukaryotic cells

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11
Q

what are eukaryotic cells?

A

cells that have a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles

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12
Q

what type of cells are bacterial cells

A

prokaryotic cells

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13
Q

what are prokaryotic cells?

A

cells that don’t have a nucleus

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14
Q

what are the 7 structures of bacterial cells?

A

chromosomal DNA
Ribosomes
plasmids
cytoplasm
cell wall
flagellum
cell membrane

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15
Q

what is chromosomal DNA

A

a single loop of DNA that lies free in the cytoplasm, which carries most of the bacteria’s genes

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16
Q

what is a plasmid?

A

extra circles of DNA, which contain extra genes not found in chromosomal DNA

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17
Q

what is the function of a flagellum?

A

helps the bacteria move

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18
Q

give 3 specialised animal cells

A

egg cell
sperm cell
nerve cell
red blood cell
white blood cell

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19
Q

give 3 specialised plant cells

A

root hair cells
palisade cells
xylem cells

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20
Q

give a specialised feature of a root hair cell

A

have a large surface area which allows for a higher rate of absorption
have more mitochondria to allow for active transport

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21
Q

give a specialised feature of a palisade cell

A

are towards the top of the leaves
have more chloroplasts to allow for photosynthesis

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22
Q

give a specialised feature of a xylem cell

A

have thick cell walls to help keep the structure of the plant

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23
Q

give a specialised feature of an egg cell

A

have a haploid nucleus
can prevent any more sperm cells from entering after being fertilised

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24
Q

give a specialised feature of a sperm cell

A
  • have a flagellum for movement
  • have a midpiece filled with mitochondria which give the cell energy to move around
  • have an acrosome with enzymes that helps the sperm cell enter the egg cell
  • haploid nucleus
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25
Q

give a specialised feature of a nerve cell

A

are thin and long which allow them to carry message over a long distance
have a myelin sheath which insulates the electrical signal

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26
Q

give a specialised feature of a red blood cell

A
  • don’t have a nucleus so have more space to carry oxygen
  • contain haemoglobin to carry oxygen
  • Biconcaves have a large surface area, which gives them the best chance of absorbing as much oxygen they can in the lungs
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27
Q

what are the 2 types of microscopes?

A

light microscope
electron microscope

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28
Q

what is the greatest possible magnification from a light microscope?

A

x2000

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29
Q

what is the greatest possible magnification from a electron microscope?

A

*10 million

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30
Q

what is the formula for calculating magnification?

A

Magnification = Image Size / Real Size

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31
Q

how to get from mm to um

A

*1000

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32
Q

what is the equation for total magnification?

A

total magnification = eyepiece magnification * objective lens magnification

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33
Q

what are the 4 small units of measurements?

A

millimetres
micrometres
nano metres
picometres

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34
Q

how do you get from micro metres to pico-metres

A

*1’000’000

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35
Q

what are enzymes

A

enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up reactions in the body without being used up themselves.

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36
Q

why do enzymes only work with specific substrates?

A

because the shape of the active site is made to fit only one type of substrate

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37
Q

what 3 factors affect the activity of enzymes

A

temperature
substrate concentration
PH

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38
Q

how does temperature affect the activity of an enzyme?

A

-if the temperature is too low, there is not a lot of kinetic energy which means less successful collisions will happen between the substrate and the active site, and the substrate will take longer to fit into the active site
-I the temperature is the optimum temperature, the enzyme will be working at its fastest rate
- too high of a temperature will cause the enzyme to denature which is where the shape of the active site changes, this can cause the substrate to no longer fit into the active site, which will lower the rate of reaction

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39
Q

how does substrate concentration affect the activity of an enzyme?

A

the more substrate there is the more chances of a collision with an active site meaning that the rate of reaction will increase, however, at one point the rate of reaction will stop increasing as every enzyme will be occupied so no matter how much substrate you add the rate will not increase

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40
Q

how does PH affect the activity of an enzyme?

A

If the PH is too high or too low the enzyme will denature and cause the shape of the active site to change which will lower the rate of reaction. Each enzyme will have an optimum PH where the denaturing does not occur so the rate will be at its highest

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41
Q

what two things can enzymes do to the substrate?

A

they can synthesize large molecules from small ones
or they can break down large molecules into smaller ones

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42
Q

what are 3 enzymes?

A

amylase
lipase
protease

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43
Q

what do carbohydrates break down into

A

sugars

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44
Q

what do proteins break down into

A

amino acids

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45
Q

what do lipids break into

A

fatty acids and glycerol

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46
Q

what test reagent do you use to test for starch?

A

iodine solution

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47
Q

what test reagent do you use to test for reducing sugars?

A

benedicts solution

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48
Q

what test reagent do you use to test for protein?

A

Biuret solution

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49
Q

what test reagent do you use to test for fat?

A

ethanol

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50
Q

what colour does iodine go if starch is present?

A

blue/black

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51
Q

what colour does iodine go if starch is not present?

A

yellow/orange

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52
Q

what colour does Benedict’s solution go if reducing sugars are present?

A

green –> orange –> red (depending on how much sugar is present)

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53
Q

what colour does Benedict’s solution go if reducing sugars are not present?

A

blue

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54
Q

what colour does the Buiret test go if protein is present?

A

pale purple/lilac

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55
Q

what colour does the Buiret test go if protein is not present?

A

pale blue

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56
Q

what happens to ethanol if fat is present

A

cloudy white emulsion

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57
Q

what happens to ethanol if fat is not present

A

clear

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58
Q

what chemicals are used in the biuret test

A

potassium hydroxide
copper sulfate

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59
Q

what are reducing sugars

A

reducing sugars cause a reducing reaction with the reagent. reducing sugars are sugars such as glucose, and fructose but not table sugar

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60
Q

what is a calorimeter used for

A

to calculate the energy in food

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61
Q

what are the steps to finding the energy of a food using a calorimeter?

A
  1. measure the starting temperature of the water
  2. measure the mass of the food
  3. see the food alight, then place it under the test tube
  4. measure the temperature at the end, and calculate the change in temperature
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62
Q

how much energy is needed to raise the temperature of a 1cm cube of water

A

4.2 joules

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63
Q

give 3 reasons why students’ calorimeter will not be accurate

A
  • taking too long to put the burning food under the test tube
    -holding the foot at different distances away from the test tube which would affect how much energy is transferred into the air rather than the test tube
  • not measuring the temperature of the water or the weight of the food accurately
  • the food not burning completely
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64
Q

what are the 2 ways that dissolved substances move in and out of cells

A

diffusion
active transport

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65
Q

give an example of diffusion

A

moving oxygen into cells and removing carbon dioxide from cells

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66
Q

what happens in diffusion

A

molecules move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration through a partially permeable membrane

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67
Q

what is an example of active transport in plants?

A

root cells absorbing minerals from the soil.

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68
Q

what is an example of active transport in animals?

A

small intestines absorbing glucose from digested food

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69
Q

what happens in active transport

A

active transport is when molecules move from an area of low concentration to an area of low concentration, against the concentration gradient, which requires energy from respiration

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70
Q

what is the name given to the diffusion of water?

A

osmosis

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71
Q

what are the 2 types of cell division?

A

mitosis and meiosis

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72
Q

what types of cells does mitosis create?

A

create genetically identically diploid cells

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73
Q

how many cells does mitosis create?

A

2

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74
Q

what are the 6 stages of mitosis?

A

interphase
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
cytokinesis

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75
Q

what happens in interphase

A

interphase is a stage in a cell’s life where the chromosomes are doubled

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76
Q

what happens in prophase

A

in this phase, the nuclear membrane breaks down and lets the chromosome into the cytokinesis

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77
Q

what happens in metaphase

A

in metaphase, the chromosomes line up along the centre of the cell and are connected to opposite sides of the cell wall by spindle fibres

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78
Q

what happens in anaphase

A

the chromosomes are pulled to opposite sides of the cell by spindle fibres

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79
Q

what happens in telophase

A

the spindle fibres disappear and new nucleus membranes start to form around the 2 sets of DNA.

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80
Q

what happens in cytokinesis

A

the cell pinches in the middle and separated into 2 separate cells

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81
Q

what stage is a cell in for most of the time?

A

interphase

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82
Q

what is mitosis used for

A

growth, repair and asexual reproduction

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83
Q

where does mitosis happen in plants?

A

in the shoots and roots

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84
Q

what happens to newly made plant cells at the roots and shoots

A

they elongate

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85
Q

how do plant cells elongate

A

by absorbing water into their vacuole by osmosis

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86
Q

what is growth

A

growth is a permanent increase in size.

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87
Q

what are baby percentile charts used for

A

to monitor if a baby is growing faster or slower than it is normal for their age

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88
Q

what does it mean if a baby is in the 65th percentile?

A

it means that 35 per cent of babies are above that weight and 65 per cent of babies have a mass lower than that weight

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89
Q

what are stem cells?

A

stem cells are cells that are blank and have the ability to differentiate into other cells

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90
Q

what are the 3 types of stem cells?

A

embryonic stem cells
adult stem cells
meristems

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91
Q

what is an embryonic stem cell?

A

cells that are taken from embryos at a very young stage

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92
Q

what are adult stem cells?

A

cells that are found inside our bones that can divide to repair or replace damaged cells

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93
Q

what are meristems

A

areas of the plants that rapidly grow. they can divide to make any type of plant cell

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94
Q

what are some uses of embryonic stem cells?

A

-replacing/repairing brain cells to treat Parkinson’s
-replacing damaged cells in the retina of the eye to treat some kind of blindness
-growing new tissue for transplants and drug tests

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95
Q

what are some uses of adult stem cells?

A
  • treatment of leukaemia
  • potentially growing new tissues that are genetically matched to the patient
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96
Q

what are the 2 advantages of using embryonic stem cells?

A
  • are easy to extract
  • can produce any type of cell
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97
Q

give one disadvantage of using embryonic stem cells

A

embryo destroyed when cells are removed so some people believe have a right to live

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98
Q

what are the 2 advantages of adult stem cells?

A
  • embryo destroyed so not an ethical issue
  • if taken from the person to be treated will not cause the body to reject it
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99
Q

what is an advantage of using stem cells?

A

have the ability to replace faulty cells with a healthy cell

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100
Q

what is the risk of using stem cells?

A

the stem cells may not stop dividing and may cause a cancer

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101
Q

what are the 3 parts of the brain?

A

cerebral hemispheres
medulla oblongata
cerebellum

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102
Q

what is the purpose of the cerebral hemispheres?

A

control voluntary movement
interpret sensory information
responsible for learning and memory

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103
Q

what is the purpose of the medulla oblongata?

A

regulates the heart rate and breathing

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104
Q

what is the purpose of the cerebellum?

A

coordinates and controls precise and smooth movements

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105
Q

what are the 2 types of scans?

A

CT scan
PET scan

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106
Q

what does CT scan stand for

A

computerised tomography

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107
Q

what does PET scan stand for

A

positron emission tomography scan

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108
Q

how do CT scans work

A
  • the patient is given a radioactive tracer which allows different parts of the brain to show up. Next many pictures of the brain are taken from lots of different angles, then the computer combines all of these images to give a 3-dimensional picture
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109
Q

how do PET scans work

A

the patient is given a small amount of radioactive glucose, which will travel to the parts of the body where respiration is happening very rapidly, and this shows up changes in parts of the body such as the brain that might indicate damage or disease. the scanner detects this radioactivity and you can see where the glucose is most concentrated.

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110
Q

why is it difficult to treat damage and disease in the brain and nervous system?

A

because they are well-protected

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111
Q

what are stimuli

A

a change in the environment

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112
Q

what are the 3 types of neurons?

A

sensory neurons
motor neurons
relay neurons

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113
Q

what is the function of a sensory neuron?

A

carry impulses to the CNS

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114
Q

what does CNS stand for

A

central nervous system

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115
Q

what is the function of the motor neuron?

A

carry impulses from the central nervous system to affect organs

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116
Q

what is the function of the Relay neurons?

A

Relay neurons are found only in the CNS

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117
Q

what will the nerve reaction be like when your finger touches a tree and you want to take your hand off it

A

the pain will be detected by the receptors which will send the electrical along the sensory neuron to the CNS where the relay neurons carry the signal to the motor neurons which will carry them to the effector muscles that will cause the hand to move

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118
Q

what part of a sensory neuron picks up the signal

A

dendrites

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119
Q

what part of a relay neuron passes the signal

A

axon endings

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120
Q

what are the 2 sides of a sensory neuron called?

A

dendron and axon

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121
Q

what is the fatty myelin sheath for

A

insulated the signal

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122
Q

what do you call the gap between 2 neurons?

A

synapses

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123
Q

Explain in 3 steps how an electrical signal crosses a synapse

A
  1. electrical nerve impulse reaches the end of the axon
  2. the electrical impulse causes chemical neurotransmitters to be released into the synapse
  3. the neurotransmitters diffuse across the gap and fit into the receptors which will tell the other neuron what the electrical signal was so that a new electrical signal can be created on the other side
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124
Q

give 4 facts about the reflected arc

A

immediate
involuntary
innate
invariable

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125
Q

what is the point of a reflex arc?

A

they protect us from immediate harm because they create an immediate reaction which is much faster than a normal reaction which has to go all the way to the (more synapses) brain and be processed. this means that our body will be hurt for a shorter time

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126
Q

what do you call the hole in the eye where the light comes through

A

pupil

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127
Q

what 2 parts of the eye focus the light on the retail

A

cornea and lens

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128
Q

what are the receptors that are in the retina?

A

rods and cones

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129
Q

what do rods detect

A

black and white

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130
Q

what do cones detect

A

colour

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131
Q

what is the coloured part around the pupil?

A

iris

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132
Q

how does the image from the retina get to the nerve?

A

along the optic nerve

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133
Q

what are ligaments that are attached to the lens and control its shape?

A

suspensory ligaments

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134
Q

what muscles control how tight the suspensory ligaments are

A

ciliary muscles

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135
Q

what is the purpose of the iris?

A

it will make the size of the pupil bigger or smaller depending on how much light there is

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136
Q

what are 4 eye problems that could develop

A

cataracts
colour blindness
long sight
short sight

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137
Q

what is a cataract and how do they occur

A

cataracts occur when the lens becomes cloudy, which means that light cannot pass through the lens properly. which will cause the person to have blurred vision

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138
Q

what is colour blindness?

A

colour blindness occurs when one type of cone (red green blue) is missing or doesn’t work properly.

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139
Q

what is long-sight

A

long-sighted people can focus on distant objects but not near ones. This

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140
Q

what is short sight?

A

when a person can focus on objects close to them but not distant ones

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141
Q

how can cataracts be fixed?

A

removing cloudy lenses and inserting an artificial lens

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142
Q

how can long-sight be fixed?

A

using a converging lens

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143
Q

how can short-sightedness be fixed?

A

using a diverging lens

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144
Q

what are the 2 types of reproductions?

A

sexual reproduction
asexual reproduction

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145
Q

explain sexual reproduction in 3 steps

A

gamete from mother fuses with a gamete from father

genetic information is mixed

offspring will have a different combination of genes so will have a variety of characteristics

146
Q

what cell division does asexual reproduction use

A

meitosis

147
Q

what is an advantage of sexual reproduction?

A

offspring will be genetically different which allows for variation and evolution. so if there is a change in the environment, some individuals will be more adapted and will survive

148
Q

what is a disadvantage of sexual reproduction?

A

takes time and energy to find a mate

149
Q

what are the 2 advantages of asexual reproduction?

A

only one parent - so they don’t need to waste energy to find a mate which makes the reproductive cycle faster

offspring are identical to the parent which is good for organisms that are very well-adapted to an unchanging environment

150
Q

what is a disadvantage of asexual reproduction?

A

there will be no variation so if the environment changes all will die

151
Q

how many and what type of cells does meiosis create?

A

it will make 4 genetically different haploid daughter cells

152
Q

where is DNA found?

A

DNA is the genetic material found in the chromosomes of the nuclei in cells that

153
Q

what is inside of a chromosome

A

a string of genes

154
Q

what is gene

A

a gene is a section of DNA that codes for a particular protein

155
Q

what does a DNA look like

A

a long coiled molecule formed from two strands that twist together to form a double a helix

156
Q

what joins the 2 strands of DNA

A

joined by bases

157
Q

what are the 4 bases in DNA?

A

Adenine
thymine
guanine
cytosine

158
Q

what are the complementary base pairs?

A

A-T
G-C

159
Q

what holds the bases together in DNA

A

weak hydrogen bonds

160
Q

describe the structure of DNA

A

DNA is a POLYMER made up of many MONOMERS called NUCLEOTIDES

161
Q

what does a nucleotide consist of

A

Phosphate
deoxyribose sugar
base
weak hydrogen bond

162
Q

explain the 3 steps to extract DNA from fruit

A
  1. grinding the fruit with sand, using a pestle and mortar, to separate the cells
  2. adding a detergent to break open the membranes
  3. adding ice-cold Alcohol to cause the DNA to precipitate out
163
Q

what are the 2 stages of protein synthesis?

A

transcription and translation

164
Q

what is created in the transcription stage of protein synthesis

A

mRNA strand is created

165
Q

where does the transcription stage of protein synthesis happen

A

in the nucleus

166
Q

what happens in the transcription stage of protein synthesis in 3 steps

A
  1. A section of DNA is unwound causing the 2 strands to separate
  2. an enzyme (RNA polymerase) will bind to the noncoding DNA in the front of the Gene
  3. The enzyme then used free complementary base pairs to construct a complementary DNA strand called the mRNA strand which is taken to the ribosome
167
Q

what is the enzyme used in DNA synthesis?

A

RNA polymerase

168
Q

what is the difference in mRNA to DNA

A

there is U base instead of T Base

169
Q

where does the translation stage in protein synthesis happen

A

ribosomes

170
Q

what happens in the translation phase of protein synthesis in 6 steps

A
  1. the mRNA attaches to the ribosome, it will move along the mRNA strand reading one codon at a time
  2. tRNA will bring amino acids to the ribosome, the amino acid will brought will depend on the order of bases on the tRNA
  3. complementary bases on the tRNA bond with bases on the mRNA strand
  4. the amino acids that are brought will join together to create a polypeptide amino acid chain
  5. the tRNA then goes to collect another amino acid
  6. each protein is formed from a specific number of amino acids that are in a particular order. The order of the bases in the DNA determines the order of the protein so each section of DNA codes for one particular protein
171
Q

what is codon

A

3 bases that code for a specific amino acid

172
Q

what is a polypeptide chain?

A

a chain of amino acids

173
Q

who was the first person to discover the inheritance

A

Gregor Mendel

174
Q

how did Mendel discover the inheritance?

A

He bred purebred tall peas and purebred short peas and realised that nearly all the offspring were tall which led him to discover that some traits were recessive while others were dominant. such as the dominant tall peas trait

175
Q

what is gamete

A

a reproductive cell of a plant or animal that is haploid

176
Q

what is zygote

A

the diploid cell that is created when 2 gametes are fused

177
Q

what is an allele?

A

different forms of a gene that produce different variations of a characteristic

178
Q

what does homozygous mean

A

having the same allele for a characteristic

179
Q

what does heterozygous mean

A

having 2 different alleles for a characteristic

180
Q

how do you show an allele is dominant?

A

by writing it in capital

181
Q

what is a chromosome?

A

thin strands full of DNA

182
Q

what is a genotype?

A

the alleles for a gene

183
Q

what is the phenotype?

A

observable characteristics caused by the genotype

184
Q

what are 2 diagrams used to show inheritance?

A

punnet square
genetic diagrams

185
Q

what is the genotype of a male?

A

XY

186
Q

what is the genotype of a female?

A

XX

187
Q

what is the chance of having a male child?

A

50%

188
Q

What are the 3 alleles for the blood group allele?

A

AOB

189
Q

what are the 2 dominant blood group alleles?

A

A B

190
Q

what is a recessive blood group allele?

A

O

191
Q

what does co-dominant mean

A

when a heterozygous individual shows the effects of both alleles carried for the gene

192
Q

name a sex-linked genetic disorder

A

Haemophilia

193
Q

why are some genetic disorders more likely to be inherited by males?

A

this is because males have an XY chromosome while females have XX. Since males have only one X chromosome if a particular gene depends on an allele on the X chromosome, so for a recessive phenotype the genotype only needs to have one recessive allele as the Y chromosome will have no dominant allele to change it.

194
Q

what are the 2 causes of variation?

A

genetic variation
environmental variation

195
Q

how does a mutation happen

A

when the sequence of bases in a gene is changed

196
Q

what can happen if a mutation happens in the non-coding section of the DNA?

A

could increase or decrease the ability of the RNA polymerase to bind to the DNA which could cause an increase or decrease in protein production

197
Q

What was the Human Genome Project

A

a collaboration between scientists to decode the human genome (the order of bases on all human chromosomes).

198
Q

When was the human genome project completed?

A

2003

199
Q

what are the 3 advantages of the human genome project?

A
  • can be used to alert people that they are at risk of certain diseases, and can therefore change their lifestyle early to reduce the chances of the disease developing

-distinguish between different forms of diseases such as leukaemia or Alzheimer’s, as some forms of medicine are better for different forms of the disease

  • can allow doctors to tailor treatments, as specific alleles might affect how a person responds to a treatment
200
Q

what are the 2 disadvantages of the Human Genome Project?

A
  • people who are at a higher risk of certain diseases might have to pay more to obtain life insurance
  • it may not be helpful to tell someone they are at risk of a disease that has no cure
201
Q

which 2 scientists discovered evolution

A

Wallace and Darwin

202
Q

what is natural selection?

A

natural selection is where the environment (including the climate and other organisms) selects which individuals pass on their alleles to the next generation

203
Q

give a ways the theory of evolution is important to modern biology

A
  • it helps us understand relationships between different species and organisms
204
Q

what is Darwin theory?

A

his theory suggests that young animals with advantageous variation that are better adapted to survive in their environment are more likely to survive and produce offspring that will have those same characteristics. while individuals that are not as well adapted will be less likely to survive and produce offspring

205
Q

what were the 5 species of humans found in order?

A

Ardipithecus ramidus
Australopithecus aferensis
Homo Habilas
Homo Erectus
Home Sapiens

206
Q

how did height change as humans evolved

A

we got taller

207
Q

when did Ardi exist

A

4.4 million years ago

208
Q

what species of human was Lucy

A

Australopithecus aferensis

209
Q

how long ago did Lucy live

A

3.2 million years ago

210
Q

how long ago did Homo
Habilas live

A

around 2 million years ago

211
Q

how long ago did homo erectus live?

A

around 1.3 million years ag0

212
Q

how did brain size change as humans evolved

A

it got larger

213
Q

what were the 2 details of Ardipithecus ramidus?

A
  • tree climber
  • upright walker
214
Q

what were the 2 details of Australopithecus aferensis?

A
  • walked upright
  • ape-like face
214
Q

what were the 2 details of Homo Habilis?

A
  • flat face
  • used simple stone tools
215
Q

what were the 2 details of Homo Erectus?

A

long distance walker
strongly built

216
Q

what was a detain about homo sapiens?

A

used complex tools

217
Q

what are the 2 ways to classify animals?

A

5 kingdom system
tree domain system

218
Q

what are the 5 kingdoms?

A

Plants
Animals
Fungi
Protists
Prokaryotes

219
Q

what are the 3 domains in the 3 domains naming system?

A

Eubacteria
Archaea
Eukaryota

220
Q

what feature is in most animals

A

pentadactyl limb

221
Q

what is selective breeding?

A

is when plants or animals with certain desirable characteristics are chosen to breed together. so that the offspring will also gain those favourable characteristics.

222
Q

what are 5 factors that a person might want in their crops, which they use selective breeding in plant’s to acheive?

A

disease resistant
increased yield
better ability to cope with difficult conditions
faster growth
better flavour

223
Q

give 2 benefits of selective breeding

A

has a low cost
future generations of plants/animals will maintain the characteristics

224
Q

give 3 disadvantages of selective breeding

A

can lead to a lack of variety
there is no guarantee the characteristics will be passed on
the changes might harm the animal

225
Q

what is genetic engineering?

A

the process of changing the DNA of an organism, often by introducing genes from another to genetically modified organisms

226
Q

what are the 3 steps in genetic engineering

A

the gene for a characteristic can be cut out of a chromosome using an enzyme

the gene is then inserted inside the nucleus of a cell in a different organism

the cell will now produce the characteristics gained from the gene

227
Q

give an example of genetic engineering

A

bacteria being modified to create human insulin-releasing bacteria

228
Q

what are GM crops?

A

plants that have been genetically modified to give them new characteristics such as resistance to insect attacks and resistance to herbicides

229
Q

what is tissue culture?

A

making many identical copies of a special organism. to create copies of GM species or to test out new drugs on the tissue

230
Q

what are the advantages of using animal cell cultures?

A

can test the effect of drugs/chemicals without having to risk the life of an organism

can check for cancer cells in a sample from a patient

can produce important antibodies

231
Q

what are the advantages of using plant cell cultures?

A

can produce thousands of identical plants from one parent plant

cells can be grown in culture to make plant products

can produce disease-free plants

can be grown in small spaces

232
Q

what are the 4 stages of making human insulin?

A
  1. DNA from a human cell is cut into pieces using restriction enzymes. These make staggered cuts across the double-stranded DNA. and will leave a few unpaired bases at each end called sticky ends
  2. the same restriction enzyme will cut open the plasmid of the bacteria leaving matching sticky ends
  3. the pieces of DNA containing the insulin gene are mixed up with the plasmids. the bases in the sticky end pairs will match up. a new enzyme called DNA ligase is added to link the plasmid back into a continuous circle
  4. the plasmids are inserted back into bacteria. the bacteria can now be grown in a huge fermenter where they will continue to make human insulin
233
Q

what are vectors

A

a vector is a name for anything that carries the new gene into a cell.

234
Q

what are BT plants?

A

genetically modified plants that naturally produce the BT toxin which causes them to be insect repellent

235
Q

what are the 2 advantages of BT plants?

A

crop damage is reduced so crop yield increases

less chemical insecticide is needed so harmless and useful insects are less likely to be harmed

236
Q

what are the 3 disadvantages of BT plants?

A

seeds from BT plants are more expensive than normal seeds

insect pests may become resistant

BT gene might transfer to closely related wild plants by pollination, which would make those plants insect-repellent

237
Q

what are 2 methods used to increase crop yield

A

fertilisers
biological control

238
Q

what are the 3 advantages of fertilisers?

A

can help crops grow well
they increase crop yields
it is a good way to use animal waste

239
Q

what do fertilisers have

A

nitrogen
potassium
phosphorus

240
Q

what are the 3 disadvantages of fertilisers?

A

excess fertilisers can pollute waterways causing eutrophication

artificial fertilisers are expensive to make

can reduce soil diversity

241
Q

what is eutrophication

A

excessive nutrients taken into lakes or rivers will cause algae to flourish causing the environment to be damaged

242
Q

what is biological control?

A

introducing a natural predator, parasite or disease of the pest to the environment to keep the population low

243
Q

what are the 3 advantages of biological control?

A

the pest cannot become resistant

if well chosen the control agent is specific to the pest

avoids using chemical pesticides which can leave harmful residue and kill useful organisms

244
Q

what are the 2 disadvantages of biological control?

A

does not get rid of the organism completely

the control agent may become the pest itself

245
Q

what is health

A

a state of complete physical mental and social wellbeing

246
Q

what is physical health?

A

sleeping, eating and being free from diseases

247
Q

what is mental well-being?

A

how you feel about yourself

248
Q

what is social well-being?

A

how you get on with other people

249
Q

what are the 2 types of diseases?

A

communicable
non-communicable

250
Q

what is a communicable disease?

A

a disease that can be passed from one person to another

251
Q

what is a communicable disease?

A

a disease that cannot be spread from one person to another

252
Q

what is a pathogen?

A

an organism that causes an infectious disease

253
Q

what are the 2 features of communicable diseases?

A
  • rapid variation in the number of cases
  • cases can be localises
254
Q

what are 2 features of non-communicable diseases?

A

number of cases changes gradually over

cases may be more widely spread

255
Q

what are 3 examples of communicable diseases?

A

malaria, typhoid, cholera

256
Q

what are 3 examples of non-communicable diseases?

A

cancer,
diabetes
heart disease

257
Q

what are the 4 types of pathogens?

A

bacterium
virus
fungi
protist

258
Q

how does bacterium make us feel ill?

A

bacteria may release toxins that make us feel ill. some bacteria invade and destroy body cells

259
Q

how do viruses make us feel ill?

A

virus stake over a body cell to make toxins or make more viruses

260
Q

what are fungi

A

fungi are eukaryotic organisms

261
Q

what are protists

A

protists are eukaryotic organisms, many are free-living but some are pathogens

262
Q

what are 3 diseases that are caused by the bacterium?

A

cholera
tuberculosis
stomach ulcers

263
Q

what is a disease that is caused by protists

A

malaria

264
Q

what are 2 diseases that are caused by viruses?

A

HIV/aids

Ebola

265
Q

what is a disease caused by fungus?

A

ash die back (Chalara)

266
Q

what is a symptom of cholera?

A

watery, pale-coloured diarrhoea

267
Q

what are 2 symptoms of malaria?

A

fever
weakness
chills
sweating

268
Q

what are 2 symptoms of HIV/AIDS?

A

mild flu-like symptoms
repeated infections

269
Q

what are 2 symptoms of tuberculosis?

A

lung damage
blood speckled mucus
weight loss
fever
nigh sweats

270
Q

what are 2 symptoms of Ebola?

A

internal bleeding
fever
severe headache
muscle pain
vomiting
diarrhoea

271
Q

what are 2 symptoms of stomach ulcers?

A

inflammation in the stomach causing pain
bleeding in stomach

272
Q

what are 2 symptoms of chalara?

A

leaf loss
bark lesions
dieback of top of tree

273
Q

what is the vector for malaria

A

mosquito

274
Q

how is malaria spread

A

the mosquito that carries protist bites a human and injects the protist

this infects the liver cells which causes the blood cells to become infected

when another mosquito bites that sma e person and takes a blood meal it will also carry the protist

275
Q

what happens in HIV

A

HIV virus enters the blood and reproduces inside the white blood cells causing the white blood cells to be destroyed. After a while so many white blood cells will be damaged that the immune system cannot work properly

276
Q

what is a way of reducing the spread of cholera?

A

boil water
wash hands thoroughly after using the toilet

277
Q

what is a way to reduce tuberculosis?

A

ventilate buildings to reduce the chance of beating in bacteria

diagnose infected people quickly and give them antibiotics

isolated infected people so they cannot spread the infection

278
Q

what is a way to reduce malaria?

A

prevent mosquito bites by removing water

use mosquito nets when sleeping

279
Q

what are some ways to reduce ebola?

A

isolate infected people
wear fully protected clothing when working with infected people or dead bodies

280
Q

what does STI stand for

A

sexually transmitted diseases

281
Q

what are the 2 virus lifecycles?

A

lytic and lysogenic

282
Q

what is the difference between the lytic and lysogenic lifecycles of a virus?

A

in the lysogenic cycle, the virus will stay dormant inside the DNA of the cell and let the cell duplicate by mitosis before destroying the host cell

283
Q

what are the 4 steps in the life cycle of a virus?

A
  1. The virus attaches to the host cell
  2. the virus injects its DNA into the DNA of the cell
  3. Virus BNA copies itself and creates virus proteins to be made using the host cell’s organelles
  4. the virus DNA and virus proteins are packaged together to create new viruses that are released from the host cell, which usually destroy the host cell
284
Q

what are the 3 common methods of HIV transmission?

A
  • unprotected sex with an infected partner
  • sharing needles with an infected person
  • transmission from infected mother to foetus
  • infection from blood products
285
Q

what are 3 ways to reduce the spread of STIs

A
  • using condoms during sexual intercourse
  • screening people, including a pregnant woman
  • screening blood transfusion
  • supplying sterile needles to drug abusers
  • treating infected people using antibiotics
286
Q

what are the 2 types of human defences?

A

chemical and physical

287
Q

what is the point of physical barriers in the body?

A

make it hard for pathogens to enter the body

288
Q

what is the point of chemical defences in the body?

A

chemicals produced to kill or make pathogens inactive

289
Q

what are 2 physical barriers in the body?

A

unbroken skin forms a protective barrier because it is too thick for most pathogens to get through

sticky mucus in the breathing passages and lungs trap pathogens and the cilia lining the lungs move in a wave motion out of the lungs

290
Q

what are 3 chemical defences? in the body

A

lysozyme enzymes in tears kill bacteria by digesting their cell walls

lysozyme enzyme is also present in saliva and mucus

hydrochloric acid in the stomach kills pathogens in food and drink

291
Q

what is the purpose of the immune system?

A

helps protect the body from attacking pathogens.

292
Q

how does the immune system deal with viruses in four steps?

A
  1. when the body recognises it is under attack it will release non-specific phagocytes.
  2. The body will now activate a lymphocyte that has matching antibodies to the unique antigens on the virus. If your body has not encountered this infection before it will mutate lymphocytes until a lymphocyte that fits the antibody is created
  3. the lymphocytes will finish the infection and leave some of the antibodies in the bloodstream so if infected again the body will know which lymphocytes to use
293
Q

how do phagocytes fight infections?

A

they are non-specific so they can deal with any infection. They will engulf the pathogen and the enzymes inside will destroy the pathogen. However, since they can only deal with one pathogen at a time they are too slow to deal with the entire infection so instead are used to deal with the pathogens until the lymphocytes arrive

294
Q

how lymphocytes work

A

lymphocytes have the ability to create unique antibodies that can destroy pathogens. once a correct antibody is identified the lymphocyte will create thousands of antibodies that can lead to thousands of pathogens

295
Q

what are memory lymphocytes?

A

lymphocytes that stay in the blood in case a secondary infection occurs

296
Q

what is immunisation

A

when you give a person a vaccine to prevent them from becoming ill from a disease

297
Q

how do vaccines work

A

a vaccine will contain antigens from the pathogens (often in a weak or dead state). the person’s lymphocyte will produce antibodies against the antibody, and some of the lymphocytes will stay in the body so if the person is actually infected the memory lymphocytes will produce a very rapid secondary response.

298
Q

what are the 3 advantages of immunisation?

A

immunity iid produced without being ill

immunity lasts a long time, often for life

if most people are immune then the people who are not vaccinated are also less likely to catch the disease (herd immunity)

299
Q

what are the 2 disadvantages of immunisation?

A

some people get mild reactions to the disease

very rarely a person can have a major harmful reaction

300
Q

what is the purpose of antibiotics?

A

to treat bacterial infections

301
Q

how do antibiotics kill bacteria?

A

antibiotics inhibit cell processes. for example, some antibiotics stop the bacterial cell walls from forming

302
Q

how do you compare the effects on bacteria?

A

place desired antibiotics on bacterial culture in a Petri dish. then leave the antibiotics to get to work and then measure the radius of the clear zones around each antibiotic and calculate the area of the clear zone

303
Q

what is the purpose of using an aseptic technique?

A

to prevent contamination of cultures from microorganisms in the air when they are being prepared

304
Q

what are the 3 steps to aseptic technique?

A
  1. sterilising dishes and culture media
  2. sterilising inoculating loops
  3. sealing petri dished
305
Q

what are 2 ways that petri dishes can be sterilised?

A

using autoclaves

heating to a high temperature

306
Q

how to sterilise culture media

A

heating to high temperatures

307
Q

what is the purpose of an inoculating loop?

A

used to transfer microorganisms to the growth medium

308
Q

how do you sterilise inoculating loops?

A

heating it in a hot flame then cooling

309
Q

why do you not completely seal petri dishes?

A

to prevent the growth of anaerobic bacteria

310
Q

why are cultures at school only incubated to 25’c

A

any higher and it will encourage rapid growth in bacteria

311
Q

what are medicines

A

chemicals that are used to treat illness

312
Q

what are the 4 stages of testing a new medicine?

A

discovery
preclinical testing
clinical trials 1
clinical trials 2

313
Q

what happens in the preclinical stage of testing

A

the medicine is tested on cell cultures, tissue cultures and animals to show that the medicine can get into cells without harming them and can damage pathogens inside

314
Q

what happens in stage 1 clinical trials when testing new medicines

A

a healthy volunteer is given a very small dose of the drug to make sure the drug is not toxic

315
Q

what happens in stage 2 clinical trials when testing new medicines

A

the medicine is tested on a person with the disease to test its efficiency and how to find the optimum dose

316
Q

what are monoclonal antibodies?

A

are antibodies that carry useful chemical marker

317
Q

give 3 uses of monoclonal antibodies

A

used in pregnancy tests
used diagnose diseases
in the treatment of diseases

318
Q

how are monoclonal antibodies used in pregnancy tests?

A

the monoclonal antibody can identify if the pregnancy hormone is present in the urine, the monoclonal antibodies can match the hormone and cause a reaction with the indicator

319
Q

how are monoclonal antibodies used in the diagnosis of diseases?

A

monoclonal antibodies can stick to blood clots or cancer cells so they can be detected

320
Q

how are monoclonal antibodies used in the treatment of diseases?

A

the way monoclonal antibodies target specific cells can be used to target treatment

321
Q

what is a non-communicable disease?

A

a disease that cannot be passed on by a pathogen

322
Q

what are 5 factors that affect the risk of developing a non-communicable disease?

A

genes
age
sex
environmental
lifestyle factors

323
Q

how do genes affect the risk of getting a non-communicable disease?

A

different alleles of a gene may be more prone to a particular disease, these genes have the chance to be passed on to children

324
Q

how does age affect the risk of getting a non-communicable disease?

A

the older the body the more likely that cells may develop mutations

325
Q

how does sex affect the risk of getting a non-communicable disease?

A

the female hormone oestrogen has protective effects that men don’t get

326
Q

give 2 examples of how the environment affects the risk of getting a non-communicable disease.

A

factors such as air pollution can cause lung disease

poisons in food and drink can damage the body

327
Q

give 4 examples of how lifestyle affects the risk of getting a non-communicable disease.

A

The way we live, including diet, alcohol, smoking and exercise

328
Q

what are the 4 factors that make smoking dangerous

A
  • nicotine is addicting
  • carbon monoxide in fumes reduces how much blood the oxygen can carry
  • the chemicals in tar can cause cancer
  • substance in the cigarette can cause blood vessels to narrow and lead to cardiovascular disease
329
Q

how is alcohol dangerous?

A

alcohol contains ethanol which is poisonous to cells when absorbed from the gut and since it will travel through the liver the liver cells are likely to be damaged reading to liver disease

330
Q

what do you call it when someone does not eat enough?

A

malnutrition

331
Q

what does too much body fat lead to

A

obesity

332
Q

what are 2 methods used to measure obesity?

A

BMI
waist: hip ratio

333
Q

what is the formula for waist: hip ratio

A

waist measurement/hip measurement

334
Q

what is the equation for BMI?

A

weight/height squared

335
Q

how high does your BMI need to be to be considered obese?

A

above 30 in adults

336
Q

what is the link between waist-to-hip ratio and CHD?

A

the higher your waist-to-hip ratio the more risk at risk you are for CHD

337
Q

what 4 lifestyle changes you could do to reduce the chance of Cardiovascular disease

A

give up smoking
take more exercise
east a healthier diet (lower fat, sugar and slats)
lose weight

338
Q

what is an example of a medication that reduces the risk of Cardiovascular disease?

A

beta-blockers that reduce blood pressure

339
Q

what is an example of surgery that can be used to help people with cardiovascular disease?

A

a stent
heart bypass

340
Q

what is a stent and why is it used

A

if an artery becomes lowered the blood flow will lower which could cause damage to the tissue that relies on getting ion blood from the artery, so a wireframe mesh called a stent is inserted into the narrow part of the artery to lift it up, the artery is usually pushed up by a balloon to make the stent fit before being removed

341
Q

what happens in a heart bypass

A

a surgery where a new artificial vein is inserted to bypass the blocked coronary artery

342
Q

what are the positives of changing your lifestyle to prevent cardiovascular disease?

A

no side effects
may reduce chances of getting other health conditions
cheapest option

343
Q

what are the negatives of changing your lifestyle to prevent cardiovascular disease?

A

may take time to work or may not be effective

344
Q

what are the positives of using medicine to prevent cardiovascular disease?

A

will start working immediately
easy to do
cheaper and less risky than surgery

345
Q

what are the negatives of using medicine to prevent cardiovascular disease?

A

need to be taken long-term and can have side effects
may not work well with other medications the person is taking

346
Q

what are the positives of using surgery to prevent cardiovascular disease?

A

usually a long-term solution

347
Q

what are the negatives of using surgery to prevent cardiovascular disease?

A

there is a risk that the person will not recover after the operation
surgery is expensive
more difficult to do than giving medication
there is a risk of the person developing an infection after surgery

348
Q

what are pests

A

an organism that causes damage to a crop plant, e.g plant-eating insects

349
Q

what are some physical defences in plants?

A

bark
thich waxy cuticle (outer covering of a leaf)
spikes and thorns
cellulose cell walls

350
Q

what are some chemical defences in plants?

A

poisons in their cells to deter pests
chemicals that kill pathogen

351
Q

what are some uses of chemicals that are found in plants and used as medicines?

A
  • to treat malaria
  • to treat heart disease
  • to relieve symptoms eg pain or fever
352
Q

where is aspirin from

A

the willow tree

353
Q

what are 3 ways to detect and identify plant disease?

A

visible symptoms
distribution analysis
laboratory testing

354
Q

what are the first signs of plant disease?

A

visible symptoms

355
Q

what are some visible symptoms of plant disease?

A
  • change in normal appearance (for example a different colour of flowers/leaves)
  • overgrowth in parts of the plant (swelling on roots)
  • death of parts of the plant
  • underdevelopment of parts of plants
356
Q

what is distribution analysis?

A

looking at the way plants are distributed in the environment to help identify possible causes of disease

357
Q

what are the 4 factors to take into analysis when using distribution analysis?

A

How many plants are affected
Where are diseased plants found
What species of plant is affected
Do the symptoms change over time

358
Q

what is laboratory testing (plant diseases)

A

scientist using different techniques to identify the disease in a laboratory

359
Q

what are 4 tests used in laboratory testing (plant diseases)

A

microscopic examination of plant material for signs of pathogen

using antibodies to test for the presence of a pathogen

using genetic testing to identify any pathogen found

soils sample testing to rule out soil factors such as nutrient deficiency

Biology (15 decks)

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