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MBChB YR2 MSK > Other: Imaging > Flashcards

Other: Imaging Flashcards

1
Q

How can a bone scan be used to monitor arthritis activity?

A

Can show increased vascularity around joints which accompanies synovitis

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2
Q

What is an avulsion fracture?

A

Avulsion of soft tissue fragments cause fracture of the bone

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3
Q

How could you tell the difference between a 5th MT base fracture in an adolescent and the normal anatomical accessory ossification centre?

A

Ossification centre is longitudinal, 5th MT base fractures are transverse

Arrow = normal apophysis, arrowheads are other ossification centres

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4
Q

What is bone sclerosis?

A

Increased bone density

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5
Q

What is an impacted fracture?

A

Axial force through the bone impacts the two bone ends together, so the bone appears sclerotic

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6
Q

What does cortical involvement indicate when imaging a potential bone tumour?

A

Aggressive tumour and surgery should be considered before the tumour causes a pathological fracture

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7
Q

What causes the loss of joint space in osteoarthritis?

A

Aymmetric cartilage wear leads to asymmetric joint space reduction

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8
Q

What is the fabella?

A

Sesamoid within the lateral head of gastrocnemius, often visible posterior to the distal femur

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9
Q

What does Codman triangle indicate when imaging a potential bone tumour?

A

Periosteal reaction which suggests a more slow-growing tumour

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10
Q

Which joints are commonly affected in Reiter’s syndrome?

A

Scattered large lower limb joints, lower limb entheses

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11
Q

What is the mechanism of injury in a spiral fracture?

A

Occur due to torsional (twisting) forces

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12
Q

What causes subchondral cysts in osteoarthritis?

A

Synovial fluid dissects into bone, forming cysts

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13
Q

What might be mistaken for a fracture of the posterior calcaneus in a child?

A

Fragmented accessory ossification centre

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14
Q

How can US be used to monitor arthritis activity?

A

Colour Doppler US can show thickening of synovium and increased blood flow within it

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15
Q

Name the x-ray views used to image the cervical spine

A

AP, lateral, odontiod peg (mouth open)

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16
Q

What is the mechanism of injury in a comminuted fracture?

A

Generally a reflection of a higher energy injury (or poor bone quality)

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17
Q

What is the mechanism of injury in an oblique fracture?

A

Occur with a shearing force

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18
Q

What causes osteopenia in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Hyperaemia causes bone demineralisation resulting in periarticular osteoporosis

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19
Q

What is a segmental fracture?

A

Very unstable fracture that occurs when the bone is fractured in two separate places

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20
Q

What are technetium bone scans useful for in imaging trauma?

A

Can be useful to detect stress fractures (e.g. hip, femur, tibia, fibula, 2nd metatarsal) as these may fail to show up on x-ray until hard callus begins to appear

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21
Q

If a bony ring e.g. pelvis is injured, what should you be looking for on x-ray?

A

Two or more disruptions (fractures/dislocations)

22
Q

What is the best modality for imaging sciatica?

A

MRI - shows all disc prolapses, and even the preceeding disc dehydration

23
Q

What causes subchondral sclerosis in osteoarthritis?

A

Increase in subchondral bone vascularity and cellularity drives new bone formation, leading to sclerosis of subchondral bone

24
Q

What is the mechanism of injury in a transverse fracture?

A

Occur with pure bending force where the cortex on one side fails in compression and the cortex on the other side in tension

25
Q

Rounded sesamoid bones always present on the medial and lateral plantar aspect of which digit of the foot?

A

1st metatarsal head

26
Q

Which joints are commonly affected in ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Scattered large lower limb joints

27
Q

What is the ostrigonum?

A

Accessory ossification centre commonly seen posterior to the tallus

28
Q

What is the angulation of a fracture?

A

Describes the direction in which the distal fragment points towards, and the degree of this deformity

29
Q

Why should you always check for joint involvement when imaging trauma?

A

If not reduced properly patient will be predisposed to OA of that joint

30
Q

What is an x-ray used for in imaging trauma?

A

Can show fracture

31
Q

What is an CT used for in imaging trauma?

A

Used when fracture shown on x-ray but more detail is needed, or if x-ray is normal but there is high clinical suspicion of fracture

32
Q

What causes deformity in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Erosion ‘shortens’ the bones, so the ligaments and capsule surrounding the joint becomes lax

Inflammation softens ligaments, which stretch further

Joint subluxation and deformity develop

33
Q

Name the radiographic features of rheumatoid arthritis

A

Soft tissue swelling, osteopenia, erosion, deformity

34
Q

What does a sunburst appearance indicate when imaging a potential bone tumour?

A

Periosteal reaction which suggests a more aggressive tumour

35
Q

Is a poorly defined zone of transition on imaging of a bone tumour is suggestive of a benign or malignant tumour?

A

Malignant

36
Q

How would you assess a potential acromioclavicular dislocation?

A

Assess bony alignment

37
Q

What is a displaced fracture?

A

Bone ends are no longer in contact

38
Q

How can MRI be used to monitor arthritis activity?

A

Can show periarticular bone marrow oedema - often precedes significant joint erosion/damage so provides early evidence of inflammatory joint disease

39
Q

What causes erosion in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Inflamed thickend synovium (pannus) destroys bone, initially at the joint margins (marginal erosion is the hallmark of RA)

With time bone erosion progresses, spreading across the joint

40
Q

What causes the formation of osteophytes in osteoarthritis?

A

Periosteal stimulation

41
Q

What is the rotation of a fracture?

A

Describes one type of fracture displacement where there has been a rotation of the distal fracture fragment in relation to the proximal portion

42
Q

What is a posterior fat pad sign indicative of?

A

Elbow trauma

43
Q

What causes soft tissue swelling in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Synovial proliferation and reactive joint effusion

44
Q

What is a comminuted fracture?

A

Fractures with 3 or more fragments

45
Q

Which is the only modality to adequately show the spinal cord?

A

MRI

46
Q

What is the translation of a fracture?

A

Describes the movement of fractured bones away from each other

47
Q

Which joints are commonly affected in psoriatic arthritis?

A

Small joints of hands and feet (DIP joints, IP of great toe)

48
Q

What is an MRI used for in imaging trauma?

A

Undisplaced fractures as shows bone marrow in detail, also can show soft tissue damage

49
Q

Name the radiographic features of osteoarthritis

A

Loss of joint space, osteophytes, subchondral sclerosis, synovial cysts

50
Q

Name the x-ray views used to image the scaphoid

A

AP, lateral, two obliques

MBChB YR2 MSK (36 decks)

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