Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Year 4 equine > Other GI Disease > Flashcards

Other GI Disease Flashcards

1
Q

What is the common name for equine dysautonomias

A

Grass sickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the highest age of incidence for grass sickness

A

2-7 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 3 categories of grass sickness

A

Acute - die rapidly
Sub-acute - survive 2-7 days
Chronic - survive >7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Risk factors for grass sickness

A

Stress
Mechanical dropping removal
Good-fat bcs
Frequent worming
Cool (7-11°c) dry weather
History on premises

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Signs of acute grass sickness

A

Severe gut paralysis (acute colic)
Difficultly swallowing
NG reflux
Drooling
Mucous coated hard faeces
Tachycardia
Muscle tremors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Signs of sub-acute grass sickness

A

Difficultly swallowing
Mild-mod colic
Rapid weight loss
Sweating/muscle tremors
Severely depressed
May eat small amounts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Signs of chronic grass sickness

A

Mild/intermittent colic
Reduced appetite
Some difficulty eating
Rapid and severe weightloss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Diagnostic tests for grass sickness

A

Ileal biopsy - requires laparotomy
Rectal biopsy - sensitivity lower than ileal
Phenylephrine test - topical application to one eye (positive reversal of ptosis)
Oesophageal endoscopy - linear ulcers possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Treatment for grass sickness

A

Nursing care
- feeding every 30-60 mins
- hand grazing
- diazepam (appetite stimulation)
-grooming/horse access/steam therapy
Analgesia
Prokinetics
- cisapride
- neostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Dietary causes of choke

A

Legume contamination with pizoctonia leguminicola
Oral PBTZ with clembuterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Clinical signs of choke

A

Regurgitation
Ptyalism
Pysphagia
Coughing
Anxiety
Repeated extension of head an neck

Others
Distension of left jugular furrow
Crepitus
Dehydration
Abnormal respiratory pattern
Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Morphological causes of choke

A

Malformation/injury/oedema (pharynx, larynx and oesophagus)
Pharyngeal disorders (abscess, cicatrix, inflammation)
Laryngeal disorders (epiglottic cysts, RDP arch)
Palate disorders (DDSP, cleft palate)
Guttural pouch (tympany ans empyema)
Oesophageal (obstruction and diverticular)
Teeth (root abscesses, broken teeth, abnormal wear)
Glossitis (FB)
Stomatitis (ulcerative, vesicular, bacterial)
Temporohyoid OA
Temporomandibular osteopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Functional abnormalities causing choke

A

Infection (rabies, viral encephalitis, verminous encephalitis and EPM, botulism, tetanus, meningitis)
CNS (cerebral damage/oedema, brainstem haemorrhage)
CNS masses (cholesteroloma)
Toxic (lead poisoning, yellow star thistle, hepatoencephalopathy)
Other (polyneuritis, grass sickness, thosteoarthropathy, gutteral pouch disease, petrous temporal bone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Diagnostics for choke

A

Palpation of neck and thoracic inlet
Oral exam
Thoracic exam
NG intubation
Clinical pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What support is needed for spontaneous resolution of choke

A

Remove feed and water
IV fluids
Analgesia
Sedation
Oxytocin (for proximal obstruction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What support is needed for assisted resolution of choke

A

Oesophageal lavage and drainage
-sedate and maintain head below thoracic inlet
Aggressive oesophageal lavage
- cuffed nasotracheal/nasoeosophageal tube
- standing or GA (minimizes aspiration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Oesophagostomy management of choke

A

Incision 5cm distal to lesion with indwelling tube into stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Complications of oesophagostomy

A

Laryngeal hemiplegia
Aspiration pneumonia
Oesophageal ulcer
Oesophageal stricture
Megaesophagus
Diverticula
Oesophageal rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is SIRS

A

A self amplifying dysregulated systemic inflammatory response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Triggers of SIRS

A

Bacterial toxins
Staphylococcus aureus
Lipopolysaccharide derived from G-ve bacteria
Burns
Neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Difference between sepsis, severe sepsis and septic shock

A

Sepsis = SIRS plus culture proven infection
Severe sepsis = sepsis with organ hypoperfusion or dysfunction
Septic shock = severe sepsis with systemic hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is Multi-organ dysfunction syndrome

A

Altered organ function in an actually ill animal, hemostasis is not maintained without intervention.
Primary = caused by a well defined insult
Secondary= organ failure as a consequence of host response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Definition of DIC

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

DIC pathology

A

Activation of coagulation with microvascular clotting, haemorrhagic diathesis and procoagulant consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Clinical signs of DIC

A

In large usually thrombosis
Also petechial haemorrhage
Bleeding following trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Diagnosis for DIC?? (3 out of 5 of)

A

Thrombocytopenia
Prolonged prothrombin time
Prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time
Increased fibrin degradation products
Decreased antithrombin 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Common name for Gasterophilus spp

A

Bot fly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the lifecycle of Parascaris quorum nearly identical to

A

That if ascaris suum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

At what age do ascarids cause disease

A

Under 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Prevalence of Parascaris equorum

A

10-50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Diagnosis of Parascaris equorum

A

Coughing and nasal discharge
Poor coat, weight gain, dull, anorexic
Occasionally colic
Disorders of bone and tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Treatment of Parascaris equorum

A

Avermectins Pyrantel
(Can survive 10 years on pasture)

33
Q

Test for oxyuris equi

A

Sellotape test on anus

34
Q

Treatment of oxyuris equi

A

All anthelmintics effective
Topical or systemic anti-inflammatories for pruritis
Keep clean

35
Q

Most important equine parasite

A

Cyathostomiasis

36
Q

Diagnosis of strongylus vulgaris

A

Thrombi on rectal palpation
Faecal analysis (not always able to tell from other strongyles)

37
Q

Treatment for strongylus vulgaris

A

Benzimidazoles and avermectins
Faeces removal
Avoid overgrazing

38
Q

What type of strongyle is S edentatus

A

Hepatoperitoneal

39
Q

What type of strongyle is S equinus

A

Hepatopancreatic (do not enter blood vessels like others)

40
Q

Risk factors for gastric disease

A

Lack of water
Lack of forage
High carbohydrate diets
High stress
Pain focuses

41
Q

Clinical signs of gastric disease

A

Colic signs
Weight loss
Bucking/rearing under saddle
Resentment of girthing and leg aids
Poor performance
Temperament changes

42
Q

Preparation for scoping

A

Withhold food 12 hours and water 4
Sedate - Dom/torb, nose twitch can be useful in addition
3 people - hold horse, pass endoscope, control endoscope

43
Q

Descriptions of gastric lesions

A

0 - epithelium intact with no hyperkeratosis
1 - mucosa intact but areas of hyperkeratosis
2 - small single/multifocal lesions
3 - large single or extensive superficial lesions
4 - extensive lesions with areas of deep ulceration

44
Q

Treatment for squamous gastric ulceration

A

Oral Omeprazole 4mg/kg
+/- oral sucralfate (10-40mg/kg/

45
Q

Treatment for glandular ulceration

A

Oral misoprostal 5mcg/kg
+/- oral sucralfate (10-40mg/kg)

46
Q

Optional treatment for squamous/glandular ulceration

A

Long acting injectable Omeprazole
4mg/kg once a week IM

47
Q

Management of horses with gastric disease

A

Forage ad lib
Reduce stress
Eliminate carbohydrates
Supplements - limited evidence (pectin and lecithin growing in evidence)
Oral Omeprazole 1mg/kg can be used long term and is fei but not bha legal

48
Q

Types of liver disease

A

Colangiohepatitis
Toxic hepatitis
Viral hepatitis
Choleliths

49
Q

Common blood work findings for intestinal/liver disease

A

WBC - normally low
Anaemia
Proteins - hyperglobulinemia, hypoalbuminemia
Fibrinogen, SAA, globulins
Liver values - SDH, GGT, AST, bile acids
Creatinine, Na, K, Ca +/- phosphorus

50
Q

Common ultrasonographic findings with intestinal/liver enteropathy

A

SI wall thickness - reduced absorptive capacity >4mm
LI wall thickness - abnormal >6mm
Liver - sharpness of edges, echogenicity, masses, gas shadowing
Peritoneal fluid - anechoic viscous
Masses - round, lobulated with varying echogenicity

51
Q

Common findings on abdominocentesis

A

Colour - turbid, serosanguinous, green/dark
Protein - abnormal >30g/L (inflammation/infection)
Lactate - abnormal >2.5mmol/L - intestinal ischemia >double systemic
Abdominal glucose >2.8mmol/L

52
Q

Intestinal function test

A

Glucose absorption
Serial blood tests after nasogastric infiltration of sugar
Elevation in 90-120 mins should be >85% normal

53
Q

Granulomatous enteritis LEARN

A

Cs - weight loss, anorexia, skin lesions on coronet
Low albumin
Anaemia
Abnormal glucose absorption
Good correlation with rectal biopsy

54
Q

Lymphocytic enterocolitis LEARN

A

Cs - weightloss
+/- low albumin
Normal blood
Abnormal glucose absorption
Unreliable on biopsy

55
Q

Foal eosinophilic enteritis LEARN

A

Cs - colic, weightloss (rare)
Normal albumin
Normal blood work
Glucose absorption+/-
Focal full thickness biopsy, no rectal

56
Q

MEED - LEARN

A

Cs - weightloss, skin lesions, liver disease
Albumin - normal initially, low in advanced
Blood - normal, anaemia, high GGT
Glucose absorption - LI>SI
50% biopsies on rectal

57
Q

Intestinal lymphoma LEARN

A

Cs- weight loss, mild colic, diarrhoea
Low albumin
Anaemia
Generally abnormal glucose absorption
Full thickness rectal or duodenal biopsy

58
Q

How to diagnose proliferative enteropathy

A

Faecal PCR for L. intracellularis
Chronic - biopsy, PCR and histo with silver staining

59
Q

How to diagnose chronic salmonella

A

PCR and enriched culture

60
Q

How to diagnose sand enteropathy

A

Sedimentation test - low sensitivity

61
Q

What does SDH (sorbitol DH) measure

A

Liver specific hepatocellular enzyme
Low stability >4 hours

62
Q

What does AST show

A

Hepatocellular enzyme marking muscle +++ RBCs and kidney
Need to interpret with muscle and liver enzymes

63
Q

What does GGT show

A

Biliary duct enzymes with reproductive, urinary, pancreas - local elevation but not systemic
Takes longer to reduce after insult

64
Q

What is ALP

A

Biliary duct enzyme 80% liver, 20% bone
Non specific
Elevation in growing foals and horses with fractures

65
Q

Bile acids use

A

Liver specific function test higher in hepatobiliary than hepatocellular - moderate to severe dysfunction needed to elevate

66
Q

Use of bilirubin

A

Liver specific function test - total of little value, anorexia, haemolysis, liver disease. Driven in acute masses >170umol/L. Chronic = mild elevation

67
Q

Where is a liver biopsy taken

A

14-15 ics right side

68
Q

Likely findings on liver histopathology

A

Toxins
-pyrrolizidine causes megalocytosis, hyperplasia and fibrosis
- mycotoxins, severe hepatic necrosis
- iron supplements, hepatic necrosis, haemochromatosis

69
Q

Likely bacterial and viral culture from liver biopsy

A

Clostridium piliforme (foal 1w-2m)
Klebsiella, E.coli, salmonella in ascending cholangiohepatitis
Viral - equine parvovirus-hepatitis virus (EaPV-H)

70
Q

What types of worm are anoplocephala perfoliate/magna

A

Equine tapeworm

71
Q

Clinical signs of anoplocephala perfoliate/ magna

A

Colic (various types)
Diarrhoea

72
Q

Diagnosis of anoplocephala perfoliate/ magna

A

Blood test
Saliva test
Elisa - for groups only

73
Q

Treatment/prevention of anoplocephala perfoliate/manga

A

High dose Pyrantel and praziquantal - treat in autumn/winter

74
Q

What dose strongylus vulgaris cause

A

Large strongyle causing verminous arteritis due to travel through mesenteric arteries

75
Q

Clinical signs of strongylus vulgaris

A

Colic
Diarrhoea
Anorexia
thrombi at aorto-illiac junction
Ischaemic

76
Q

Diagnosis of cyathostomiasis

A

Difficult as PPP disease, history and clinical signs important (young/poor worming history)
Larvae on glove after rectal
IgG Elisa

77
Q

Disease of cyathostomiasis

A

Acute larval cyathostomiasis seen in spring
- mucosal damage
- colic
- weight loss
- diarrhoea acute/chronic
- wasting/death
Autumn - larva entering intestinal wall
- colic
- diarrhoea (due to inflammation)

78
Q

Treatment of clinical parasite cases

A

Moxidectin for larval cyathostomiasis
Pyrantel for high Parascaris burden
Praziquantal or double Pyrantel for anaplocephala

79
Q

How to avoid larval cyathostomiasis

A

Strategic anthelmintic use
Pasture management - faecal collection
Pasture rotation
Grazing with ruminants
Dung heap away from grazing area

Year 4 equine (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions