Ortho path Flashcards

1
Q

osteoid vs woven bone

A

both are immature, rapidly formed. woven is mineralized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Types of lamellar bone

A

cortical (compact) and cancellous (spongy, trabecular)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

balance b/w blasts and clasts

A

clasts break down bone and release factors which lead to differentiation into blasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta: defect, calluses

A

Deficiency in Type1 collaen. fractures heal with excess callus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Osteoporosis

A

Postmenopausal (high turnover): estrogen deficiency means less OPG. Senile (low-turnover): osteoblasts just poop out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Rickets/Osteomalacia: defect, x-ray findings,

A

Vit.D deficiency. You get uncalcified osteoid in zone of hypertrophy. Metaphysial flare. Renal failure leads to decreased Ca and ^phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hyperparathyroidism: ditty, which bone type is affected most? characteristic findings?

A

Moans, bones, stones, psychiatric overtones. Cortical>trabecular. hemosiderin deposits (brown tumor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

paget disease: defect, staging, characteristic findings, associations?

A

blast/clast dyssynchrony. Three phases: lytic, mixed, sclerotic. reversal cement lines. Paramyxovirus infection, cardiac failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Osteopetrosis: defect, effect, complications

A

clasts can’t acidify pits. medullary canal fills with bone. Anemia, thrombocytopenia, fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Acute osteomyelitis: cause, result, characteristic features

A

Staph aureus infection. Uses Volkman canals to spread. Ischemic necrosis of bone. Dead bone (sequestrum) surrounded by PMNs. New bone (involucrum) forms around dead.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Osteochondroma (exostosis): cause, characteristics

A

EXT1 mutation. Ice cream cone growing away from physis. marrow space contiguous w/ bone’s. If cartilage cap > 3cm, malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Enchondroma: xray, invasive? multiple?

A

benign. arc&ring lobules. non invasive. enchondromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Giant cell tumor: cell type, treatment

A

osteoclastic cells. Lytic lesion. en bloc excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Osteoid osteoma: presentation, microscopic,

A

nocturnal pain relieved by NSAIDs. Nidus of woven bone spicules lined by osteoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

fibrous dysplasia: microscopic, two types

A

fibro-osseous lesion lacking osteoblastic rimming. Monostotic FD, Polystotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

McCune-Albright

A

polystotic FD + cafe au lait spots

17
Q

osteosarcoma: unique? location? tx? prognosis?

A

neoplastic cells directly produce bone. Metaphysis in younger pts, craniofacial in older. Prosthetic while in tx. Prognosis good if >90% responsive

18
Q

chondrosarcoma: age

A

older ppl. Lobulate arc&ring.

19
Q

Ewing sarcoma: unique, cause, who, where, microscopic

A

neuroectodermal tumor. t(11;22). young males. diaphysis. Small blue round cells. Onionskin and sunburst of periosteum

20
Q

osteoarthritis: what joints, cause

A

large, esp knee. lumbar. PIP/DIP. mechanical stres»apop of chondrocytes.

21
Q

OA: changes

A

fibrillation of cartilage, fragmentation, loss. Osteophytes crack and give rise to subchondral cysts

22
Q

RA: what ab’s

A

RF: IgM directed against IgG