Onco Midterm

Question 1

What syndrome is characterized by concurrent IMHA and thrombocytopenia?

Answer 1

evan’s syndrome

Question 2

What is the signalment of IMHA?

Answer 2

middle aged, female

breeds: cockers, springers, old english sheepdogs, lhasa apsos, shih tzus

Question 3

What is the MOA of cyclophosphamide in treating IMHA?

Answer 3

cross link DNA in rapidly dividing cells (T and B lymphos)

Question 4

What is the MOA of azathioprine in treating IMHA?

Answer 4

antimetabolite, defective DNA synthesis, cell death

Question 5

What is the MOA of danazol in treating IMHA?

Answer 5

attenuated androgen that blocks Fc receptors on macrophages

Question 6

What drug results in a more physiological available corticosteroid in IMHA?

Answer 6

danazol (releases from binding protein)

Question 7

What therapy for IMHA is an antibody that blocks Fc receptors?

Answer 7

IV human immunoglobulin

Question 8

What drug binds to tubulin and causes megakaryocytic fragmentation with release of immature platelets?

Answer 8

vincristine

Question 9

What functional test is used for cellular immunity in horses?

Answer 9

intradermal phytohemagglutinin (also response to vax)

Question 10

What is the quantitative test for antibody mediated immunity in horses?

Answer 10

radioimmunoassay

Question 11

What is the quantitative test for cellular immunity in horses?

Answer 11

CBC

Question 12

What part of the immune system is absent in SCID foals?

Answer 12

T-cell and B-cell function absent

Question 13

What is the mean age of diagnosis of lymphoma in horses?

Answer 13

5-10 years

Question 14

What is the most common cell lineage type of equine lymphoma?

Answer 14

T cell rich, large B cell most common

Question 15

What is the most common organ of metastasis of lymphoma in horses?

Answer 15

spleen

Question 16

What are the 3 types of leukemia in horses?

Answer 16

Leukemic - profound leukocytosis
Subleukemic - blast cells, low/normal WBC
Aleukemic - abnormal bone marrow only

Question 17

What is the normal amount of reticulocytes in circulation in equine blood?

Answer 17

NONE

Question 18

Which sedative should be avoided in acute blood loss in horses?

Answer 18

alpha 2 agonists

Question 19

How much blood can be taken for transfusion from an equine blood donor?

Answer 19

5-10 L

Question 20

What are the differences in CS for primary hemostasis disfunction and secondary hemostasis dysfunction?

Answer 20

primary - petechia, melena

secondary - hemorrhage, hematomas

Question 21

What is the most common inherited coagulation factor deficiency in a horse?

Answer 21

VIII deficiency (hemophilia A)

Question 22

What will be seen on a coag panel with a horse that has factor VIII deficiency?

Answer 22

abnormal APTT, normal PT

Question 23

How is vasculitis in a horse diagnosed?

Answer 23

punch biopsy

Question 24

What causes equine purpura hemorrhagica?

Answer 24

strep equi equi

Question 25

What are the CS of vasculitis in a horse?

Answer 25

dermal/subq edema, petechiae

Question 26

What is the vector for anaplasma?

Answer 26

ixodes scapularis

Question 27

How is Equine infectious anemia tested for?

Answer 27

coggins test

Question 28

What clotting factors are synthesized from vit K?

Answer 28

2, 7, 9, 10

Question 29

What are the common causes of vit k deficiency in a horse?

Answer 29

warfarin, moldy sweet clover

Question 30

What kind of vit k is given in warfarin toxicity in horses?

Answer 30

SQ vit K1

Question 31

How is babesia treated in a horse?

Answer 31

imidocarb

Question 32

What are the most common RBC factors involved in neonatal isoerythrolysis?

Answer 32

Qa and Aa

Question 33

What is the most common cause of heinz body anemia in horses?

Answer 33

red maple toxicity

Question 34

What is the most common type of pituitary tumor in a dog?

Answer 34

corticotroph adenoma

Question 35

What may be seen on a radiograph with a multiple myeloma patient?

Answer 35

osteolytic (punched out) lesions

Question 36

What kind of pituatary tumors do cats get?

Answer 36

functional somatotroph adenoma - secretes GH

Question 37

What are bisphosphanates used to treat in multiple myeloma patients?

Answer 37

managing hypercalcemia and decreasing osteoclastic bone resorption

Question 38

What gene is associated with increased susceptibility to BLV in cows?

Answer 38

Gene DRB3.2 on chromosome 23 | susceptible animals have higher milk production

Question 39

What is the prevelance of + BLV herds in the whole cattle industry?

Answer 39

dairy - 70% | beef - 50%

Question 40

What is the prevelance of positive cows in BLV+ herds?

Answer 40

30% dairy | 10% beef

Question 41

What are the 2 most common places for cattle to get SCC?

Answer 41

frontal sinus and eye

Question 42

Where do sheep and goats get SCC?

Answer 42

sheep - ear | goats - perineum

Question 43

What are the 4 R's of factors that affect radiation therapy?

Answer 43

Repair repopulation redistribution - phase of mitosis cycle reoxygenation - hypoxic cells resistant

Question 44

What mitosis phases is radiation therapy best at killing?

Answer 44

cells in M and G2 phases

Question 45

What are acute side effects from radiation therapy and when do they occur?

Answer 45

moist desquamation, oral mucositis, KCS, alopecia | arise at end of RT and get worse for another week or two

Question 46

What are chronic side effects from radiation therapy and when do they occur?

Answer 46

permanant hair loss, KCS, cataracts, bone or CNS necrosis | 6 months to years after RT

Question 47

What types of microscopic disease is radiation best at treating in dogs?

Answer 47

soft tissue sarcomas and mast cell tumors | also carcinomas in perianal, anal sac, ear canal, salivary, and cutaneous

Question 48

What is the most common tumor that is treated with palliative radiation therapy in dogs?

Answer 48

appendicular osteosarcoma

Question 49

What oral tumor responds well to radiation therapy?

Answer 49

melanoma

Question 50

What group of chemotherapy drugs has an MOA of creating DNA adducts that interfere with replication of DNA?

Answer 50

alkylating agents

Question 51

What phase of the mitosis cycle do microtubule spindle poisons affect?

Answer 51

M phase (cell cycle specific)