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VM 611 > Onco Midterm > Flashcards

Onco Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What syndrome is characterized by concurrent IMHA and thrombocytopenia?

A

evan’s syndrome

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2
Q

What is the signalment of IMHA?

A

middle aged, female

breeds: cockers, springers, old english sheepdogs, lhasa apsos, shih tzus

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3
Q

What is the MOA of cyclophosphamide in treating IMHA?

A

cross link DNA in rapidly dividing cells (T and B lymphos)

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4
Q

What is the MOA of azathioprine in treating IMHA?

A

antimetabolite, defective DNA synthesis, cell death

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5
Q

What is the MOA of danazol in treating IMHA?

A

attenuated androgen that blocks Fc receptors on macrophages

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6
Q

What drug results in a more physiological available corticosteroid in IMHA?

A

danazol (releases from binding protein)

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7
Q

What therapy for IMHA is an antibody that blocks Fc receptors?

A

IV human immunoglobulin

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8
Q

What drug binds to tubulin and causes megakaryocytic fragmentation with release of immature platelets?

A

vincristine

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9
Q

What functional test is used for cellular immunity in horses?

A

intradermal phytohemagglutinin (also response to vax)

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10
Q

What is the quantitative test for antibody mediated immunity in horses?

A

radioimmunoassay

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11
Q

What is the quantitative test for cellular immunity in horses?

A

CBC

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12
Q

What part of the immune system is absent in SCID foals?

A

T-cell and B-cell function absent

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13
Q

What is the mean age of diagnosis of lymphoma in horses?

A

5-10 years

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14
Q

What is the most common cell lineage type of equine lymphoma?

A

T cell rich, large B cell most common

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15
Q

What is the most common organ of metastasis of lymphoma in horses?

A

spleen

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16
Q

What are the 3 types of leukemia in horses?

A

Leukemic - profound leukocytosis
Subleukemic - blast cells, low/normal WBC
Aleukemic - abnormal bone marrow only

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17
Q

What is the normal amount of reticulocytes in circulation in equine blood?

A

NONE

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18
Q

Which sedative should be avoided in acute blood loss in horses?

A

alpha 2 agonists

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19
Q

How much blood can be taken for transfusion from an equine blood donor?

A

5-10 L

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20
Q

What are the differences in CS for primary hemostasis disfunction and secondary hemostasis dysfunction?

A

primary - petechia, melena

secondary - hemorrhage, hematomas

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21
Q

What is the most common inherited coagulation factor deficiency in a horse?

A

VIII deficiency (hemophilia A)

22
Q

What will be seen on a coag panel with a horse that has factor VIII deficiency?

A

abnormal APTT, normal PT

23
Q

How is vasculitis in a horse diagnosed?

A

punch biopsy

24
Q

What causes equine purpura hemorrhagica?

A

strep equi equi

25
Q

What are the CS of vasculitis in a horse?

A

dermal/subq edema, petechiae

26
Q

What is the vector for anaplasma?

A

ixodes scapularis

27
Q

How is Equine infectious anemia tested for?

A

coggins test

28
Q

What clotting factors are synthesized from vit K?

A

2, 7, 9, 10

29
Q

What are the common causes of vit k deficiency in a horse?

A

warfarin, moldy sweet clover

30
Q

What kind of vit k is given in warfarin toxicity in horses?

A

SQ vit K1

31
Q

How is babesia treated in a horse?

A

imidocarb

32
Q

What are the most common RBC factors involved in neonatal isoerythrolysis?

A

Qa and Aa

33
Q

What is the most common cause of heinz body anemia in horses?

A

red maple toxicity

34
Q

What is the most common type of pituitary tumor in a dog?

A

corticotroph adenoma

35
Q

What may be seen on a radiograph with a multiple myeloma patient?

A

osteolytic (punched out) lesions

36
Q

What kind of pituatary tumors do cats get?

A

functional somatotroph adenoma - secretes GH

37
Q

What are bisphosphanates used to treat in multiple myeloma patients?

A

managing hypercalcemia and decreasing osteoclastic bone resorption

38
Q

What gene is associated with increased susceptibility to BLV in cows?

A

Gene DRB3.2 on chromosome 23

susceptible animals have higher milk production

39
Q

What is the prevelance of + BLV herds in the whole cattle industry?

A

dairy - 70%

beef - 50%

40
Q

What is the prevelance of positive cows in BLV+ herds?

A

30% dairy

10% beef

41
Q

What are the 2 most common places for cattle to get SCC?

A

frontal sinus and eye

42
Q

Where do sheep and goats get SCC?

A

sheep - ear

goats - perineum

43
Q

What are the 4 R’s of factors that affect radiation therapy?

A

Repair
repopulation
redistribution - phase of mitosis cycle
reoxygenation - hypoxic cells resistant

44
Q

What mitosis phases is radiation therapy best at killing?

A

cells in M and G2 phases

45
Q

What are acute side effects from radiation therapy and when do they occur?

A

moist desquamation, oral mucositis, KCS, alopecia

arise at end of RT and get worse for another week or two

46
Q

What are chronic side effects from radiation therapy and when do they occur?

A

permanant hair loss, KCS, cataracts, bone or CNS necrosis

6 months to years after RT

47
Q

What types of microscopic disease is radiation best at treating in dogs?

A

soft tissue sarcomas and mast cell tumors

also carcinomas in perianal, anal sac, ear canal, salivary, and cutaneous

48
Q

What is the most common tumor that is treated with palliative radiation therapy in dogs?

A

appendicular osteosarcoma

49
Q

What oral tumor responds well to radiation therapy?

A

melanoma

50
Q

What group of chemotherapy drugs has an MOA of creating DNA adducts that interfere with replication of DNA?

A

alkylating agents

51
Q

What phase of the mitosis cycle do microtubule spindle poisons affect?

A

M phase (cell cycle specific)

VM 611 (16 decks)

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