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VM 611 > Musculoskeletal Final > Flashcards

Musculoskeletal Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is the pathology of sequestration?

A

periosteal trauma and loss of vascular supply to the outer cortex –> bone dies –> separates from live bone

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2
Q

Does hind limb or forelimb have worse prognosis as far as flexor ligament structure injury?

A

forelimb

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3
Q

What happens when the deep digital flexor tendon is cut in horses?

A

hyperextension of dital interphalangeal joint - toe in the air

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4
Q

What is the treatment for DDF tendon repair?

A

debridement, no sutures, cast, heel extension shoe

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5
Q

WHat is the surgical treatement for suspensory apparatus failure in horses?

A

arthrodesis with bone plates

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6
Q

What are CS of extensor tendon lacerations in horse hindlimbs?

A

inability to flip toe forward, uncontrolled knuckling

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7
Q

What is the signalment for dogs with medial patellar luxations?

A

miniature and toy breeds, females

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8
Q

Which direction of patellar luxation is more common?

A

medial

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9
Q

What are the four grades of patellar luxation?

A 
0 - cannot be completely luxated
1 - returns when released
2 - easily luxated, stays luxated
3 - permanantly luxated, manually returned
4 - cant be manually returned
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10
Q

What is the goal of tibial tuberosity transposition in patellar lux repair?

A

realigns extensor mechanism, repositions patella within trochlear groove

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11
Q

What is the goal of soft tissue release in patellar lux repair? (medial retinacular release)

A

cut soft tissues on medial side to release patella back to lateral side

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12
Q

What is the goal of imbrication in patellar lux repair?

A

tighten left side soft tissue to pull patella over

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13
Q

What are the prognosis for the different grades for patellar luxation?

A

good for lux up to grade 3

guarded for grade 4 - multiple sx

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14
Q

What animals usually get hematogenous septic arthritis?

A

neonates/young animals, predominately enterobacteria

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15
Q

What is the pathogenesis of acute hematogenous osteomyelitis/septic arthritis cases?

A

embolism in metaphyseal, subsynovial or epiphyseal capillary loops

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16
Q

What is seen on a radiography for acute hematogenous osteomyelitis?

A

moth eaten appearance of bone

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17
Q

What bacteria is most commonly found in iatrogenic septic arthritis?

A

staph aureus

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18
Q

What are some consequences of septic arthritis?

A

aggrecanolysis = softening, fibrosis, contralateral laminitis

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19
Q

What is the most important part of treatment of septic arthritis?

A

early, effective AB coverage

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20
Q

What is the difference between OCD and osteochondrosis?

A

OC - disruption of endochondral ossification

OCD - cartilage flap

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21
Q

What is the typical signalment for OCD?

A

males, rapidly growing large breeds, bilateral

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22
Q

What is the area in the shoulder that gets OCD?

A

caudal aspect of the humeral head

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23
Q

What is the area of OCD in the elbow?

A

distal trochlear ridge of the medial aspect of the humeral condyle

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24
Q

What is the area of OCD in the stifle joint?

A

medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle

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25
Q

What is the area of OCD in the hock?

A

medial trochlear ridge of the talus

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26
Q

What are the different prognosis for OCD affected areas?

A

shoulder - good to excellent
elbow - guarded, djd
stifle - guarded, djd
hock - poor, severe lameness

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27
Q

Where is the most likely place for a cow to have lameness?

A

outside claw of rear foot

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28
Q

What infectious agent causes digital dermatitis (heel wart) in cows?

A

treponema spp

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29
Q

What are the 4 developmental abnormalities that make up elbow dysplasia?

A

Ununited anconeal process (UAP)
fragmented medial coronoid process (FMCP)
osteochondrosis of medial humeral condyle
elbow incongruity

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30
Q

What are the three possible mechanisms that lead to elbow dysplasia?

A

osteochondrosis - defective cartilage
trochlear notch dysplasia
asynchronous growth

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31
Q

What is the signalment and history for elbow dysplasia?

A

large breeds, pain and lameness before 1 year, bilateral

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32
Q

A patient with elbow dysplasia will adduct or abduct elbow while standing up?

A

adducted

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33
Q

WHen is the bony union of the anconeal process to the ulna?

A

4-5 months (can diagnose UAP by 5 months of age)

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34
Q

What breed is exceptionally predisposed to ununited anconeal process?

A

GSD

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35
Q

What view is best to diagnose UAP?

A

flexed mediolateral view

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36
Q

What imaging technique is preferred for fractured medial coronoid process?

A

CT - more accurate

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37
Q

What is the prognosis for elbow dysplasia?

A

poor to guarded - DJD

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38
Q

What happens during panosteoitis?

A

bone marrow adipose replaced with fibrous tissue, cause not known

39
Q

What bone is panosteitis most common in?

A

ulna

40
Q

What age is panosteitis seen? Signalment?

A

5-18 months, giant breeds, males

41
Q

How is panosteitis diagnosed?

A

radiographs - may need to repeat as lesions lag behind CS

“clouds” in medullary canal, endosteal bone production

42
Q

How is panosteitis treated?

A

NSAIDs, exercise restriction

43
Q

What bones are affected by retained cartilagenous core?

A

distal ulna - most common

distal femur - genu valgum

44
Q

What is the signalment for patients with retained cartilagenous core?

A

great danes, 3-4 months, mild lameness, valgus deviation of carpus

45
Q

What will be seen on radiographs of a retained cartilagenous core?

A

flame shape to distal ulnar physis

46
Q

What 2 breeds get hypertrophic osteodystrophy?

A

great danes and weimariners

47
Q

What history is associated with hypertrophic osteodystrophy?

A

2-8 months old, acute mild lameness, anorexic, FEBRILE, swollen and painful limb, bilateral

48
Q

What is the pathogenesis of hypertrophic osteodystrophy?

A

inflammation of physis, removal of bone

49
Q

What is the pathognomonic sign for hypertrophic osteodystrophy?

A

double physis

50
Q

What bones are associated with hypertrophic osteodystrophy?

A

all appendicular metaphyseal regions

51
Q

What are the three stages of pathogenesis of perthes’ disease?

A

ischemic (necrosis) –> early repair stage (clefts and fissures) –> advanced repair stage (articular cartilage thickening, femoral head deformed)

52
Q

What is the signalment for perthes disease?

A

young toy and miniature breeds, 6-7 months, bilateral

53
Q

What is the pathogen that causes foot rot in cattle?

A

fusobacterium necrophorum (opportunistic, damage to skin)

54
Q

What are the CS of foot rot?

A

symmetrical swelling of foot, necrotic tissue

55
Q

What amount of lying time per day should cows have?

A

10-12 hours

56
Q

What vitamin can be used to improve quality of hoof horn in cows?

A

biotin (vit B7)

57
Q

What are the treatments/prevention for foot rot?

A

feeding iodine, chlortetracycline

58
Q

What complete fractures of horses are not repairable?

A

anything above the carpus or tarsus

59
Q

What type of splint should be used for phalanges to distal MC3 in horses?

A

dorsal splint from toe to just below carpus

kimzey splint - commercial

60
Q

What type of considerations should be taken for a splint from mid MC3 to distal radius for a horse?

A

must neutralize bending in 2 places, lateral and caudal splint at 90 degrees from ground to elbow

61
Q

What type of considerations should be taken for a splint from mid to proximal radius in a horse?

A

flexors and extensors become abductors –>long lateral splint extends above shoulder

62
Q

What considerations should be taken for a splint from proximal to elbow in a horse?

A

no specific splinting except to re establish triceps apparatus (olecranon fx) (caudal splint)

63
Q

What splint should be used for phalanges to distal MT3 in horse?

A

plantar splint with limb in flexion

64
Q

What splint should be used for mid to proximal Mt3?

A

caudal and lateral splint (like front leg)

65
Q

What splint should be used for tarsus to tibia in horses?

A

stablize reciprocal apparatus - long lateral splint

66
Q

How should a horse be placed in a trailer if it has a forelimb fracture?

A

face backwards (fracture in back of trailer)

67
Q

When are puncture wounds of the foot in horses life threatening?

A

caudal 1/3 of foot

68
Q

How is clostridial myositis in horses treated?

A

fenestration + antibiotics

69
Q

What are the steps in hoof trimming of cows?

A 
1 - measure toe length, should be 3 in on dorsal inside claw
2- exceptions (curvature)
3- remove excess sole
4- balance toes
5 - slope sole
6- balance heels
7- corrective trimming
70
Q

How thick should sole be at toe of cow?

A

5-7mm

71
Q

What slope should the sole be on a cow?

A

30 degrees

72
Q

How long should a block stay on a cows foot?

A

4-6 weeks

73
Q

What is the treatment for foot rot in cattle?

A

systemic antibiotics

74
Q

How long does bone healing take in adult horses?

A

4 months

75
Q

What is the standard plate for repairing long bone fractures in horses??

A

locking compression plate

76
Q

What type of fractures are external fixators indicated for horses?

A

breakdown fracture - biaxial fx of sesamoid bones

comminuted fxs of P1 or P2

77
Q

What is the treatment for deep digital sepsis in cows?

A

arthrodesis - fuse joints with drill

78
Q

On a radiograph, what is indicated of joint sepsis in cows?

A

seperation of joint

79
Q

What is a CS of a cow with a stifle injury?

A

short stride, walk on toes, abducted leg, acute followed by chronic DJD

80
Q

What fractures are most common in the distal phalanx of horses?

A

wings and extensor processes

81
Q

How are distal phalanx fractures treated in horses?

A

bar shoe application except extensor process fractures (sx)

82
Q

How are non comminuted proximal phalanx fxs treated in horse?

A

interfragmentary screw compression

83
Q

How are middle phalanx fractures treated in a horse?

A

pastern arthrodesis

84
Q

What is the most common fracture of the metacarpus in the horse?

A

lateral condylar fracture

85
Q

How are lateral condylar fractures treated in horses?

A

interfragmentary screw compression (lag screws)

86
Q

How are distal splint bone fractures treated in horses?

A

surgical excision

87
Q

What should you rule out if a horse has distal splint bone fracture?

A

suspensory ligament desmitis

88
Q

What slab fracture is most common in the carpus of the horse?

A

C3

89
Q

What slab fracture is the most common in the tarsus of the horse?

A

T3 and T-C

90
Q

How are slab fractures of carpus and tarsus treated in a horse?

A

internal fixation by lag screw

91
Q

What equine fractures is NOT managed by a lag screw?

A

extensor process fracture of distal phalanx (TQ)

92
Q

What is sx tx for complete minimally displaced sagittal proximal phalanx fxx in adult horse?

A

lag screw fixation (TQ)

93
Q

Where is the most common location of a subchondral bone cyst in a horse?

A

medial femoral condyle (TQ)

94
Q

OCD and subchondral bone cystic lesions are manifestations of what disease?

A

osteochondrosis

VM 611 (16 decks)

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