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VM 611 > Neuro Final > Flashcards

Neuro Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common pathology of muscular dystrophy?

A

absence of dystrophin

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2
Q

What dog breeds get myotonia?

A

chow chows and mini schnauzers

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3
Q

What is the CS for cushings myopathy?

A

unilateral pelvic limb stiffness

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4
Q

What is the pathology of acute canine polyradiculoneuritis?

A

inflammation of peripheral nerve roots after exposure to raccoon antigen

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5
Q

How is acute canine polyradiculoneuritis diagnosed?

A

albuminocytologic dissociation on CSF, biopsy

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6
Q

What breeds most commonly get acquired myasthenia gravis?

A

akitas, newfies, GSD, labs, goldens

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7
Q

What is the definitive diagnosis for acquired myasthenia gravis?

A

AcH receptor antibody test

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8
Q

What is the tensilon test?

A

inject edrophonium chloride to test for myasthenia gravis

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9
Q

What long acting acetylcholinesterase inhibitor can be used to treat myasthenia gravis?

A

pyridostigmine bromide

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10
Q

Term for nerve injury with no damage to axon and the patient recovers in 1-6 weeks.

A

neuropraxia

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11
Q

Term for nerve injury where there is interruption between axon and cell body.

A

Axonotmesis

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12
Q

Term for nerve injury where there is complete severance.

A

Neurotmesis

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13
Q

What are examples of presynaptic nerver junction toxins?

A

tetanus, botulism, tick paralysis

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14
Q

What are examples of postsynaptic nerve junction toxins?

A

snake bites, organophosphates

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15
Q

What 2 diseases lead to neuro signs in snakes?

A

paramyxovirus

inclusion body disease

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16
Q

Loss of fine movements in a bird would indicate what neurological lesion?

A

cerebral

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17
Q

Hypermetric and intention tremors in a bird would indicate what type of neuro lesion?

A

cerebellar

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18
Q

Paralysis or paresis in a bird would indicate what type of neuro lesion?

A

proprioceptive

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19
Q

What are some possibilities for an ataxic african gray parrot?

A

proventricular dilitation dz

organophosphate toxicity

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20
Q

What are the CS of E. caniculi in rabbits?

A

head tilt, seizures, incontinece, peripheral neuropathy

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21
Q

How is E. caniculi diagnosed?

A

antibody titers

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22
Q

What is the treatment for E. caniculi?

A

benzimidazole anthelmintics, anti-inflammatories

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23
Q

Where does type II IVDD usually occur?

A

L7-S1 with lumbosacral stenosis

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24
Q

What are the CS of Type II IVDD?

A

pain, raised tail, myelopathy, possible incontinence

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25
Q

What is the definitive diagnostic tool for degenerative myelopathy?

A

histopath

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26
Q

What is the pathophysiology of degenerative myelopathy?

A

non inflammatory axonal degeneration (mutation in superoxide dismutase gene)

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27
Q

What type of cervical spondylomyelopathy do young giant breed dogs get?

A

osseous associated compressions

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28
Q

What type of cervical spondylomyelopathy do middle aged large breed dogs get?

A

disc associated compressions

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29
Q

What is the most common surgical treatment for atlantoaxial luxation?

A

ventral transarticular screws -> allows fusion of joint

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30
Q

What does hypovitaminosis A cause in cats?

A

hypertrophic bone formation of vertebrae - ankylosing spondylosis

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31
Q

What bacteria is usually involved in discospondylitis?

A

staph pseudointermedius

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32
Q

What type of dogs get steroid responsive arteritis-meningitis?

A

young large breed dogs, immune mediated disorder

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33
Q

What bacteria causes cerebral/spinal abcesses in horses?

A

salmonella in younger animals

strep equi equi in older animals

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34
Q

What is the main clinical sign of cerebral abcesses in horses?

A

unilateral cortical signs - circling, young horses

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35
Q

What are the toxins that cause equine leukoencephalomalacia?

A

fusarium spp –> fumonison toxin

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36
Q

When is WNV most common during the year?

A

mid summer - fall

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37
Q

What seasonality is equine leukoencephalomalacia?

A

winter

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38
Q

What are CS of fumonison toxicity?

A

often normal, icterus, self inflicted injuries, dementia

39
Q

What breed is cerebellar abiotrophy in horses?

A

arabians, hereditary

40
Q

What horse breeds are predisposed to wobblers?

A

thoroughbred, standardbred, quarter horses

41
Q

What age of horses are CS of wobblers usually seen?

A

6-24 months

42
Q

What are the treatments for wobblers in horses?

A

ventral fusion, or dorsal laminectomy

43
Q

What organism causes equine protozoal encephalomyelitis?

A

sarcocystis neurona

44
Q

How could you differentiate equine protozoal encephalomyelitis and wobblers?

A

EPM is assymetrical!! (TQ)

45
Q

WHat are some parasites that can cause equine parasitic encephalomyelitis?

A

strongylus vulgaris, setaria, hypoderma, halicephalobus, draschia

46
Q

What is the most common cause of acutely ill cows with bilateral gait abnormailities but normal mentation?

A

lymphoma - lesion in spinal cord

47
Q

What 2 diseases cause hydrocephalus in cows?

A

BVD and akabane

48
Q

What deficiency in cows causes increased CSF pressure in calves that causes blindness and then seizures follow?

A

vitamin A deficiency

49
Q

What kind of cows get cerebellar abiotrophy with BVD?

A

herefords and shorthorns

50
Q

What are CS of hepaticencephalopathy in horses?

A

walk incessantly, photosensitization, head pressing

51
Q

What may be the only sign of fumoninsin toxicity in horses?

A

severe proprioceptive deficits (leg crossing)

52
Q

What are the pathognomonic signs for cerebellar abiotrophy in horses?

A

intention tremors, severe spasticity, strength preserved

53
Q

What are CS of wobblers?

A

symmetrical, hind limbs worse

other signs of OCD in MC3, radius

54
Q

At which spinal joint is wobblers lesion most common in horses?

A

c3-c4 (TQ)

55
Q

What is the most common way of treating cervical vertebral malformation (wobblers)?

A

ventral fusion - basket

56
Q

What type of cervical vertebral malformation do arabians get?

A

occipitoatlantoaxial malformation (arabians do not get regular wobblers)

57
Q

What is the source of listeria for cows?

A

sliage - must be more acidic than 5.5 to inhibit growth

58
Q

What are the CS of listeriosis in cattle?

A

older than 1 month, unilateral cranial nerve deficits

59
Q

What is the treatment for listeriosis in cattle?

A

long term antibiotics

60
Q

What is TEME caused by in cattle?

A

histophilus somni

61
Q

What are the clinical signs of TEME in cattle?

A

rapid, death within 36 hours, ataxia, weakness, opisthotonos

62
Q

What bacteria causes brain and pituitary abcesses in cattle?

A

arcanobacterium (trueperella) pyogenes

63
Q

What are CS of brain abscesses in cattle?

A

asymmetric, vision loss

64
Q

What causes polioencephalomalacia in cattle?

A

dysfunction of Na-K ATP pump (thiamine deficiency* TQ*)

65
Q

What kind of diet promotes H2S gas in the development of polioencephalomalacia?

A

grain diets

66
Q

What are CS of polioencephalomalacia in ruminants?

A

develop rapidly - central blindness, ataxia, strabismus, opisthotonus, convulsions

67
Q

What causes otitis media/interna in cows?

A

mycoplasma bovis

68
Q

What breed is predisposed to progressive ataxia?

A

charloais calves - recessive defect

69
Q

What types of cows get spastic syndrome?

A

adult bulls - hypertonia, hypereflexia, first 12 months of age

70
Q

What is the tx for OP toxicity in ruminants?

A

atropine

71
Q

What CS are from sciatic nerve paralysis in cows?

A

toe touching

72
Q

What CS are from femoral nerve damage in calves from dystocias?

A

atrophy of thigh muscles

73
Q

What are CS from tibial nerve damage in cows?

A

hock drop but still can stand

74
Q

What are CS from peroneal nerve damage in cows?

A

knuckling over, similar to tibial

75
Q

What are CS of radial nerve paralysis in cows?

A

dropped elbow but supports weight (most common)

76
Q

What is NOT a clinical sign of edema disease in pigs?

A

no fever, no diarrhea

77
Q

Which CSF tap on a horse requires general anesthesia?

A

atlantooccipital space

78
Q

How is EPM treated in horses?

A

sulfa/pyrimethamine = folic acid inhibitors

or diclazuril and ponazuril (labeled)

79
Q

What are CS of parasitic encephalomyelitis in horses?

A

assymetric signs like EPM, xanthochromia, increased inflammatory cells in CSF

80
Q

How is parasitic encephalomyelitis in horses treated?

A

10x dose of fenbendazole

81
Q

What is the pathology of EHV1?

A

vascular infarctions of brain/cord, immune mediated vasculitis

82
Q

What are the CS of neurologic EHV1?

A

acute onset ascending paralysis, sym or asym, paraphimosis, dec sens in perianal area

83
Q

What is the tx for EHV1?

A

corticosteroids, antibiotics for 2ndary infection

84
Q

What is the cause of equine degenerative myelopathy?

A

defect in Vit E uptake/metabolism

85
Q

What are the CS of equine degenerative myelopathy?

A

symmetrical slow progressive neuro signs, warmbloods

86
Q

What is the MOA of tetanus toxin?

A

blocks presynaptic UMN

87
Q

WHat is a pathognomic sign for tetanus in a horse?

A

third eyelid flips up

88
Q

How often should horses be vaccinated against tetanus?

A

every year

89
Q

What is the MOA of botulinum toxins?

A

blocks LMN AcH release (motor end plate) –> flaccid paralysis

90
Q

What is an early CS of botulism in horses?

A

dysphagia

91
Q

What diseases are vaccinated against for horses yearly in the spring?

A

tetanus toxoid, eastern and western encephalitis, influenza and herpesvirus

92
Q

At what months are pregnant mares vaccinated with EHV1?

A

5, 7, 9

93
Q

At what time should pregnant mares be vaccinated against tetanus, WEE, rabies, and influenza?

A

4 weeks prior to foaling

VM 611 (16 decks)

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