OB Test collaboration Flashcards
1
Q
In the breech fetus with the transverse spine and orientation marker to the right of the monitor, the fetus is lying _________________
A
on its right side
2
Q
When the fetus is vertex and the transverse spine is on the left side of the monitor, the fetus is lying_____________________
A
on its right side
3
Q
_________________refers to when the head is down towards the cervix.
A
vertex
4
Q
_____________________ breech refers to when the buttocks present first (toward the cervix) and both hips and knees are flexed.
A
complete
5
Q
_______________ or “footling” breech indicates the fetus has one foot or both feet down (towards the cervix), so it’s legs are poised to deliver first.
A
incomplete
6
Q
A fetus positioned wit the cranium in the superior uterus, rump in the inferior uterus, and spine at the maternal right uterus is labeled:
A
breech with fetus lying on its right side facing maternal right
7
Q
Choose the position that is the same as a cephalic presentation.
A
vertex
8
Q
Ipsilateral means:
A
on the same side
9
Q
The inability of some females to lay supine during weeks 20 - term pregnancy because of a hypotensive state is known as:
A
aortocaval compression syndrome
10
Q
A ___________ transducer may provide optimal images well into the third trimester on a thin patient.
A
5 MHz
11
Q
A sonographer can adjust power levels adn minimize patient exposure to diagnostic ultrasound by knowing and watching the ultrasound system __________________ levels.
A
mechanical and thermal indices
12
Q
A correctly filled bladder allows for imaging of the ________________ and lower placental edge.
A
cervix
13
Q
implantation of the placenta in the lower part of the uterus covering the internal cervical os, thus delivering before the fetus
A
placenta previa
14
Q
an implantation of a fertilized ovum in any area outside the endometrial cavity
A
ectopic pregnancy
15
Q
The output power indication of the amount of acoustic power it takes to raise the temperature of tissue by 1 degree celsius
A
thermal indices
16
Q
entrapment of the umbilical cord between the presenting fetal part and the cervix
A
vasa previa
17
Q
the amount of transmitted energy by the ultrasound beam. The higher the frequency, the lower the index, thus, the lower the frequency, the higher the index
A
mechanial indices
18
Q
compression of the aorta and inferior vena cava by the gravid uterus resulting in symptoms of nausea, hypotension, lightheadedness, and syncope
A
aortocaval compression syndrome
19
Q
A sonographer can minimize thermal effects by which one of the following?
a. not staying in one spot to long
b. placing the focus of the beam in the near field
c. scanning over fetal bone
d. increasing acoustic output
A
a
20
Q
A sonogram at 8 weeks of gestation demonstrates a cystic area within the posterior cranium. This appearance most likely represents which one of the following?
a. abnormal mesencephalon
b. normal rhombencephalon
c. abnormal rhombencephalon
d. normal prosencephalon
A
b
21
Q
In early pregnancy, the gestational sac size grows at a rate of ___________ mm/day.
A
1-2
22
Q
In the first trimester, herniated bowel will return within the abdominal cavity by the ____________ week.
A
12th
23
Q
The blastocyst typically enters the uterus ___________ days after fertilization.
A
6-8
24
Q
The crown-rump length measurement is considered most accurate through the _________ gestational week.
A
12th
25
The diameter of the normal yolk sac should never exceed____________ mm.
6
26
The embryonic heart begins to beat at _________ days after conception.
23
27
The interface between the decidua capsularis and echogenic vascular endometrium is which one of the following?
a. decidua capsularis
b. decidua basalis
c. double decidual sign
d. chorionic cavity
c
28
The villi on the myometrial side of the conceptus are known as which one of the following?
a. double decidual sign
b. decidua basalis
c. decidua capsularis
d. chorion laeve
d
29
To calculate the mean sac diameter of a gestational sac, which one of the following formulas should be used?
a. length x width x height
b. length + width +height
c. (length x width x height)/3
d. (length + width + height)/3
C
30
Select the normal chromosome number for an ovum
a. 46XXY
b. 46 XY or 46 XX
c. 23XO
d. 22XX or 22 XY
d
31
Using a transvaginal approach, the first structure visualized within a gestational sac is which one of the following structures?
a. primary yolk sac
b. secondary yolk sac
c. amnion
d. embryo
b
32
What is the area between the myometrium and the placenta?
retroplacental
33
Which of the following laboratory tests is used to indicate pregnancy when the values are elevated?
a. FSH
b. LH
c. hcG
d. HL
c
34
Which one of the following structures forms early in gestation and surrounds the embryo?
a. chorionic cavity
b. chorion frondosum
c. amniotic cavity
d. fetal cavity
c
35
Where does implantation of the embryo occur?
endometrium
36
A normal gestation last approximately:
280 days
37
Which hormone triggers ovulation?
luteinizing
38
What portion of the fallopian tube does fertilization generally occur in ?
ampullary
39
Name the solid ball of developing cells that occurs after fertilization.
morula
40
Identify the blastocyst layer that eventually develops into the embyryonic portion of the placenta.
a. trophoblast
b. embryoblast
c. blastocele
d. cytotrophoblast
a
41
What structure images after the secondary yolk sac?
embryo
42
Select the gestational age when the yolk sac images between the chorion and amnion.
a. carnegie stage 11
b. 11 weeks
c. carnegie stage 20
d. 5 weeks
c
43
Which of the following contributes to the maternal portion of the placenta?
a. embryonic ectoderm
b. chorionic villi
c. chorion laeve
d. decidual basalis
d
44
Choose the quantitative pregnancy test
a. serum beta hCG
b. urine
c. thyroxin
d. progesterone
a
45
What would be the correct formula to calculate gestational age in days?
MSD + 30
46
What is the formula to calculate gestational age in weeks?
menstrual age in days/7
47
What would be the gestational age of an embryo with a CRL of 0.38 cm?
6.3 weeks
48
Using Naegele's rule, what would be the estimated due date for a woman with a LMP of September 10th ?
June 17th
49
Ultrasound in the first trimester is mostly performed to demonstrate:
EDD
GA
likelihood of continuing to term
50
What prevents more than one sperm from entering an ovum?
zona pellucida
51
At what age have the rudimentary forms of all embryonic organs and structures developed?
almost 11 weeks menstrual/GA
52
The portion of the endometrium that surrounds the blastocyst is:
decidua capsularies
53
average mean diameter of the gestational sac used to determine GA
mean sac diameter
54
Calculation to find a patient's EDD
take LMP
add 1 year
subtract 3 months
add 7 days
Naegele's Rule
55
changes in the endometrium to allow implantation of a blastocyst
decidualization
56
due date, calculated by adding 280 days to the first day of the last menstrual period. Also called estimated date of confinement
estimated date of delivery ( also called estimated date of confinement)
57
measurement of longest axis of an embryo; determines gestational age
crown rump length
58
number of times a woman has been pregnant
gravidity
59
Summary of a woman's pregnancy outcomes.
parity
60
product of fertilization including all forms from zygote to fetus
conceptus
61
first sonographic evidence of an intrauterine pregnancy, the fluid-filled blastocyst
gestational sac
62
solid cluster on undifferentiated cells formed by repeated cleavage of the single cell that resulted from the fusion of two gametes
morula
63
duration of pregnancy counted from fertilization expressed in hours or days, also called embryonic age or postovulatory age
conceptual age
64
bud-like outward growths from the trophoblast, some of which will give rise to the fetal portion of the placenta
chorionic villi
65
membrane enclosing the amniotic cavity and embryo or fetus
amnion
66
haploid cell that when merged with a gamete from the opposite sex creates a diploid zygote
gamete
67
female gamete, aka egg or ovum
oocyte
68
membrane around the chorionic cavity, made up of trophoblast cells and extraembryonic mesoderm
chorion
69
subcuteaneous fluid in the posterior region of the neck of embryos and fetuses up to 14 weeks GA.
nuchal translucency
70
early gestation consisting of a thin outer layer of cells (trophoblast), a fluid-filled cavity, and an inner cell mass (embryoblast)
blastocyst
71
penetration of an oocyte by a sperm to form a diploid zygote
fertilization
72
single cell resulting from the fusion of two gametes
zygote
73
The term for having an abnormal number of chromosomes:
aneuploidy
74
The term for an abnormally slow heartrate is:
bradycardia
75
The empty gestational sac seen in an anembryonic pregnancy is:
blighted ovum
76
A deficiency of red blood cells is:
anemia
77
The spontaneous failure and expulsion of an early pregnancy is:
abortiona
78
A spontaneous abortion in which some products of conception remain in the uterus is:
incomplete abortion
79
An early failed pregnancy that remains in the uterus is termed:
missed abortion
80
A crescent shaped sonolucent collection of blood between the gestational sac and the uterine wall is:
subchorionic hemorrhage
81
The term for an abnormally rapid heart rate:
tachycardia
82
Having three copies of each chromosome is termed:
triploidy
83
A gestational sac in which the embryo fails to develop is described as:
blighted ovum
84
Heterotopic pregnancy
concomitant intrauterine pregnancy and ectopic pregnancy
85
Embryos with heart rates below ____ beats per minute generally have a poor prognosis.
less than 90
86
Multiple tiny cluster of grapelike echoes within the uterine cavity best describes:
gestational trophoblastic disease
87
The best sonographic correlation in the diagnosis of an ectopic pregnancy is the combination of no intrauterine pregnancy and _____
adnexal mass/ tubal ring sign
88
Which location of ectopic pregnancy would have an increased risk for massive hemorrhage?
interstitial/ the uterine part of the fallopian tube
89
The most common cause of vaginal bleeding in the first trimester is _____
subchorionic hemorrhage
90
The serum level beta chg. is _______ with gestational trophoblastic disease
elevated
91
most common pelvic mass seen in a first-trimester pregnancy
corpus luteal cyst
92
_____ may contain bowel and organs that may protrude into the base of the umbilical cord. Cannot be differentiated from normal physiological bowel migration until after 12 weeks
bowel gut herniation
93
Early onset intrauterine growth restriction is defined as a crown rump length ______
10% or less than average
94
Complete hydatidform mole usually results in:
large for dates uterus and vaginal bleeding
95
Hydatidform moles are caused by:
abnormal fertilization
96
Theca Lutein cysts are usually stimulated by excessive levels of hCG and are related to:
complete molar pregnancy
97
Ectopic pregnancy can be caused by:
PID
history of ectopic pregnancy
history of tubal surgery
98
signs of tubal rupture
hypotension
rebound tenderness
tachycardia
99
Beta-hCG levels should approximately double every ____ hours/
48
100
Ectopic pregnancy most often implant in:
fallopian tube
101
What beta-hCG levels are necessary to visualize an IUP with a transabdominal approach?
6500 mIU/mL
102
a fluid filled collection caused by bleeding from the decidualized endometrium
pseudosac
103
A ruptured tubal pregnancy usually appears as _____
complex mass-like area representing hemorrhage and free fluid
104
Which imaging method is considered the "gold standard" for diagnosing and locating an abdominal ectopic pregnancy?
MRI
105
A correctly filled bladder bladder allows for imaging of the _____ and lower placental edge.
cervix
106
A ______ transducer may provide optimal images well into the third trimester on a thin patient.
5 MHz
107
A fetus positioned with the cranium in the superior uterus, rump in the inferior uterus, and spine at the maternal right uterus is labeled:
breech with fetus lying on right side
108
A normal gestation lasts approximately:
280 days
109
A sonogram at 8 weeks of gestation demonstrates a cystic area within the posterior cranium. This appearance most likely represents what?
normal rhombencephalon
110
At what age have the rudimentary forms of all embryonic organs and structures developed?
almost 11 weeks menstrual/GA
111
The position that is the same as the cephalic presentation.
vertex
112
Endovaginal transducers aid the clinician in determining:
EDD
GA
likelihood of continuing to term
113
Identify the blastocyst layer that eventually develops into the embryonic portion of the placenta.
trophoblast
114
In early pregnancy, the gestational sac size grows at a rate of ___ mm/day.
1-2
115
In the breech fetus with the transverse spine and orientation marker to the right of the monitor, the fetus is lying _____.
on its right side
116
In the first trimester, herniated bowel will return within the abdominal cavity by the ____ week.
12th
117
Name the solid ball of developing cells that occurs after fertilization.
morula
118
The normal chromosome number for an ovum
22X or 22Y
119
The blastocyst typically enters the uterus ____ days after fertilization.
4-5
120
The crown-rump length measurement is considered most accurate through the ____ gestational week
12
121
The diameter of the normal yolk sac should never exceed ___ mm.
6
122
The embryonic heart begins to beat at ___ days after conception.
23
123
The inability of some females to lay supine during weeks 20-term pregnancy because of a hypotensive state is known as:
aortocaval compression syndrome
124
The interface between the decidua capsularis and echogenic vascular endometrium
double decidual sign
125
The portion of the endometrium that surrounds the blastocyst is:
trophoblast
126
The villi on the myometrial side of the conceptus are known as:
decidua basalis
127
To calculate the mean sac diameter of a gestational sac, what is the formula?
length + width + height/3
128
Ultrasound in the first trimester is mostly performed to demonstrate:
EDD
GA
likelihood to continue to term
129
Using Naegele's rule, what would be the estimated due date for a woman with a LMP of September 10th
June 17th
130
Using a transvaginal approach, the first structure visualized within a gestational sac is what?
secondary yolk sac
131
What is the area between the myometrium and the placenta?
retroplacental
132
What is the formula to calculate gestational age in weeks?
MSD + 30/7
133
What portion of the fallopian tube does fertilization generally occur in?
ampullary
134
What prevents more than one sperm from entering an ovum?
zona pellucida
135
What structure images after the secondary yolk sac?
embryo
136
What would be the correct formula to calculate gestational age in days?
MSD + 30
137
What would be the gestational age of an embryo with a CRL of 0.38 cm?
6.3 weeks
138
When the fetus is vertex and the transverse spine is on the left side of the monitor, the fetus is lying ____.
head down lying on its right side
139
Where does implantation of the embryo occur?
middle third of the posterior face of the uterus
140
Which hormone triggers ovulation?
Luteinizing
141
What contributes to the maternal portion of the placenta?
decidua basalis
142
What laboratory test is used to indicate pregnancy when the values are elevated?
hCG pregnancy test
143
What structure forms early in gestation and surrounds the embryo?
amnion
144
______ of "footling" breech indicates the fetus has one foot or both feet down (towards the cervix), so it's legs are poised to deliver first.
incomplete
145
______ breech refers to when the buttocks present first (toward the cervix) and both hips and knees are flexed.
complete
146
_____ refers to when the head is down towards the cervix.
vertex
147
The procedure used to obtain a fetal blood sample.
PUBS
148
What procedure can be done in the first six weeks of gestation?
coelocentesis
149
A 26 year old, G2P1 patient presents to the department with complaints of pain and bleeding. She is considered high risk due to her uncontrolled hypertension and by previous sonographic examination she is 20 weeks pregnant. What is the most likely cause for the sonographic finding?
placental abruption
150
What is the most common maternal disorder?
diabetes
151
What is considered part of the double decidual sac sign?
decidua capsularis
decidua parietalis
152
A 22 year old woman is seen for an obstetric woman is seen for an obstetric ultrasound at 12 weeks of gestation for increased uterine size and absent heart tones. The ultrasound shows a large heterogeneous mass within the uterus. No identifiable fetus or amniotic fluid can be detected. What is the most likely diagnosis?
molar pregnancy
153
A 32 year old woman is seen for ultrasound with positive pregnancy test and pelvic pain. She has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease and reveals an empty uterus and a moderate amount of cul-de-sac fluid. This is most suspicious for what?
ectopic pregnancy
154
A 25 year old woman G2 P1, is seen at the emergency department at 10 weeks gestation with vaginal bleeding. Laboratory test results reveal a beta-hCG level of 257,000 IU/mL. An ultrasound examination is ordered to confirm what?
viable IUP
155
A patient is seen with heavy bleeding 5 days after an uncomplicated delivery. Ultrasound reveals an enlarged postpartum uterus with echogenic mass. This suggests what?
retained products of conception
156
An 18 year old is seen by her gynecologist with a 2 week history of spotting. She reports that she had a positive urine pregnancy test result after a missed period six weeks ago. Endovaginal ultrasound examination of the uterus reveals an embryo, without a heartbeat, with measurements consistent with a 7 week gestation. This would be consistent with what?
missed abortion
157
A 40 year old woman is seen for an obstetric ultrasound with bleeding and excessive nausea and vomiting. Clinical examination reveal a uterus consistent with a 14 week gestation that is inconsistent with her predicted 10 week gestation with last menstrual period. An ultrasound is performed and reveals a viable fetus with a crown rump length consistent with a 9.5 week gestation. A normal placenta is identified with an adjacent large echogenic mass that contains small cystic lesions. What should be suspected?
partial hydatidform mole
158
A 22 year old pregnant woman is seen in the ultrasound department with heavy bleeding and cramping. She is 8 weeks pregnant by last menstrual period, which was confirmed with a 6 week ultrasound after an episode of spotting. The ultrasound reveals an empty uterus. This would be most consistent with what?
spontaneous abortion
159
A patient is seen with pain and spotting at 7 weeks gestation. Ultrasound confirms a viable intrauterine pregnancy consistent with the patients last menstrual period. A mild to moderate amount of cul-de-sac fluid is identified, and an adnexal ring sign is imaged in the left adnexal region. What diagnosis would accurately describe the sonographic finding described?
heterotopic pregnancy
160
A crescent shaped sonolucent collection of blood between the gestational sac and the uterine wall is ______.
subchorionic hemorrhage
161
A deficiency of red blood cells is:
anemia
162
A gestational sac in which the embryo fails to develop is described as:
blighted ovum
163
A heterotopic pregnancy is what?
intrauterine and extrauterine pregnancies concomitant
164
a fluid collection caused by bleeding from the decidualized endometrium
pseudosac
165
A ruptured tubal pregnancy presents as a:
complex mass-like hemorrhage and free fluid
166
A spontaneous abortion in which some of the products of conception remain in the uterus is:
incomplete abortion
167
An early failed pregnancy that remains in the uterus
missed abortion
168
Beta-hCG levels should approximately develop every ___ hours/
48
169
Complete hydatidform mole usually results in:
larger for dates uterus and vaginal bleeding
170
Early onset intrauterine growth restriction is defined as crown rump length at least _____ standard deviations below the mean for the expected gestation age.
Ectopic pregnancy can be caused by:
171
Ectopic pregnancy most often implanted in the:
ampullary portion of the fallopian tube
172
Embryos with heart rates below ____ beats per minute at 6.2 weeks generally have a poor prognosis
90
173
Having three copies of each chromosome is termed _____
triploidy
174
Hydatidform moles are caused by:
abnormal fertilization
175
Multiple tiny clusters of grapelike echoes within the uterine cavity best describes what?
gestational trophoblastic disease
176
Healthy characteristics of a yolk sac
round
177
Signs of tubal rupture
abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding
178
The best sonographic correlation in the diagnosis of an ectopic pregnancy is the combination no intrauterine pregnancy and what?
adnexal mass/ free fluid
179
The empty gestational sac seen is anembryonic pregnancy is:
blighted ovum
180
The most common cause of vaginal bleeding in the first trimester
subchorionic hemorrhage
181
The serum level of beta-hCG is ______ with gestational trophoblastic disease.
increased
182
The spontaneous failure and expulsion of an early pregnancy is:
miscarriage
183
The term for an abnormally rapid heart rate is ____
tachycardia
184
The term for an abnormally slow heart rate is:
bradycardia
185
The term for having an abnormal level of chromosomes is:
aneuploidy
186
Theca Lutein Cysts are usually stimulated by excessive levels of hCG and are related to:
complete molar pregnancy
187
Which location of ectopic pregnancy would have an increased risk of massive hemorrhage?
interstitial
188
What is the most common pelvic mass seen in a first-trimester pregnancy?
corpus luteal cyst
189
Define a circumvallate placenta
form of extrachorial placenta, with a raised placental margin in an annular shape.
amnion and chorion edges rolled up around edges of placenta
190
Identify the placental type where the chorionic villi attach but do not invade the myometrium
placenta accreta
191
Scars within the uterus, secondary to previous gynecologic surgery, are called?
synechaie
192
The acquired maternal problem which results in a placenta thickness of less than 2 cm
preeclampsia
193
What is the suspected cause of amniotic sheets?
synechaie
194
What is the delivery of the cord before the fetus?
umbilical cord prolapse
195
What is the area between the myometrium and the placenta?
retroplacental
196
What can result in the mimicking of a placenta previa?
low lying placenta
197
The multiple fibrous strands of amnion that develop in utero and may entangle fetal parts to cause amputations or malformations of the fetus that are described as:
amniotic band syndrome
198
Which maternal disease can result in early placental maturation?
diabetes
199
The crossing of the internal os by the umbilical cord
vasa previa
200
The sonographic characteristic of excessive Wharton's jelly.
Small mass adjacent to the abdomen Irregular protrusion from the cord Cystic dilation up to 6 cm, usually located close to the fetus Variably echogenic, soft tissue mass with three vessels visible
201
Which form of placenta previa lies within two centimeters of the internal os?
low lying placenta
202
A 35 year old woman, G4 P3, is seen for an obstetric ultrasound with bleeding and no pain at 34 weeks gestation. Endovaginal ultrasound reveals the placenta across the lower uterine segment and extending along the anterior and posterior uterine wall. This would be consistent with what?
Placenta previa
203
A 36 year old woman, G5P4, is seen for an obstetric ultrasound at 31 weeks gestation for late prenatal care. Patient history includes two prior cesarean sections and otherwise uneventful pregnancies. The sonographer notes an anterior placenta with partia previa. The sonographer should also look for what abnormal findings?
placental attachment
204
Mucous tissue surrounding the umbilical cord
Wharton's jelly
205
The placenta is responsible for what?
nutritive, respiratory, and excretory functions
206
The umbilical cord originates from fusion of the yolk sac stalk and the omphalomesenteric duct at approximately:
week 7
207
The normal at term umbilical cord length is approximately:
52-61 cm
208
The normal term placenta weighs between:
480-600 g
209
A normal placental thickness at 24 weeks gestation is less than:
4 cm
210
Placental calcifications may be caused by:
maternal smoking
parity
season of the year
211
A jelly-like placenta is associated with:
IUGR
212
A placenta is considered low lying if the inferior margin is:
with 2 cm of the internal os
213
The most infiltrative form of placenta accreta is:
percreta
214
Premature separation of all or part of the placenta from the myometrium is:
abruption
215
Cord prolapse is defined as:
presentation of the umbilical cord in advance of the fetal part during labor and delivery
216
Velamentous cord insertion
a fetus's umbilical cord abnormally inserts on the edge of the placenta along the chorioamniotic membranes. The fetal blood vessels also travel unprotected from the placenta until they come together and reach the protection of the umbilical cord.
217
The use of _______ should make the visualization of the umbilical cord insertion into the placenta easily identifiable.
color Doppler
218
An accessory placental lobe is also known as a _____.
battledore placenta
219
Visualization of multiple ______ are highly suggestive of placenta accreta.
lacunae
220
The most common reason for emergency postpartum hysterectomy is a ______
morbidly adherent placenta
221
The umbilical vessel abnormality seen with conjoined twins is _____ vessels.
supernumerary
222
Compressed umbilical cords place the fetus at risk for:;
fetal hypoxia
circulatory compromise
223
A(n) _____ bladder can cause a false positive appearance of placenta previa.
overdistended
224
What is the disadvantage to chorionic villus sampling?
false-positive result
225
What is the preferred gestational age for a genetic amniocentesis?
14-20 weeks
226
The procedure used to obtain a fetal blood sample.
PUBS
227
What procedure can be done in the first six weeks of gestation?
vaginal coelocentesis
228
What procedure allows for sampling of the amniotic fluid?
amniocentesis
229
Early sampling of exocoelmic cavity fluid via placenta free areas
coelocentesis
230
A common clinical technique for retrieving living fetal cells/ cell products to the pregnant uterus is:
PUBS
231
An ultrasound procedure that obtains fetal blood via a needle inserted into the maternal abdomen
PUBS
232
Amniocentesis testing is recommended at:
14-20 weeks
233
Fetal blood sampling occurs at the:
venous cord insertion site
234
Vaginal coelcentesis can provide a sample of extra amniotic fluid as early as:
6 weeks
235
Culdocentesis is performed to:
acquire fluid posterior to the lower uterus
236
Disadvantages of CVS
false-positive result
237
Cordocentesis is also known as _____
PUBS
238
The optimal timing for a CVS is between the _____ weeks after the last menstrual period
10-13
239
Studies suggest that ______ is the safest and most accurate of the three procedures, transcervical CVS, transabdominal CVS, and amniocentesis
amniocentesis
240
Fetal blood sampling occurs at the _____ cord insertion
venous
241
Removal of a small amount of fluid surrounding the fetus via the maternal abdomen, for testing, is called ______
amniocentesis
242
What causes the anemia with sickle cell disease?
reduced production of hemoglobin
243
Which maternal bacterial infection raises the risk of fetal hydrops?
parvovirus b19
244
When does Rh isoimmunization occur?
When there is transfer of blood from a Rh positive fetus to a Rh negative mother
245
Immune fetal hydrops includes what fetal findings?
enlarged spleen, heart, or liver, and fluid surrounding the heart or lungs, ascites, excess amniotic fluid
246
Which placental problem coexists with maternal preeclampsia?
placental abruption
247
What indicates the onset of eclampsia?
seizures
248
What is the most common maternal disorder?
diabetes
249
An Rh-negative mother and a Rh-positive fetus can result in whaT?
Rh isoimmunization
250
PROM, toxemia, IUGR, sickle cell disease, and diabetes mellitus result in a _____ indicating vascular resistance.
high S/D ratio
251
A maternal infection occurring before conception.
may adversely affect a fetus
252
Maternal infection is passed to the fetus are usually via the:
genital tract and circulatory systems
253
A rare viral infection that is linked to stillbirth, low infant birth weight, congenital heart anomalies, and microphthalmia is:
EBV
254
A bacterial infection that is seen during pregnancy and known to cause fetal prematurity, prolonged rupture of fetal membranes, sepsis, and IUGR.
Gonorrhea
255
A maternal infectious disease that promotes placental insufficiency, causing IUGR, low birth weight, abortion, and stillbirth is:
malaria
256
The fetal barrier that usually protects fetuses from toxoplasmosis is most effective:
during early pregnancy
257
Fetal malformations occurring in the first trimester which consist of cataracts, cardiac defects, and deafness are caused by:
3 day measles
258
A glucose tolerance test is usually performed:
between 24 and 28 weeks
259
Isoimmunized pregnancies can result in:
erythroblastosis fetalis, hepatosplenomegaly, immune hydrops fetalis
260
Maternal disease that is least likely to affect a fetus's heart
thalassemia
261
The C in TORCH stands for:
cytomegalovirus
262
Maternal hypertension ______ uteroplacental blood flow
decreases
263
_____ of pregnancy is a third trimester disease characterized by maternal edema, hypertension, proteinuria, and central nervous system irritability
Toxemia (preeclampsia
264
Maternal malaria promotes placental _____ causing IUGR, low birth weight, abortion, and stillbirth
insufficiency
265
Fetal _____, a diagnostic test, helps detect heart abnormalities in patients exposed to CMV and rubella.
echocardiogram
266
Cesarean section delivery is indicated in the event of _____ virus in the maternal genital tract.
gestational herpes
267
Congenital malformation seen with diabetes are related to high blood sugar levels resulting in disruption of embryonic ______
organogenesis
268
Rh isoimmunization refers to the development of maternal _____ to the surface antigens on fetal red blood cells.
antigens
269
Rigid irregularity shaped blood cells that occur mostly in African Americans in the United States is a cause of:
sickle cell anemia
270
Ingestion of raw meat, contaminated water, and contact with feline feces is advised against for obstetrical patient owing to the risk of acquiring ______
toxoplasmosis
271
Mosquito-borne single-stranded RNA virus related to the dengue virus is:
Zika
272
Parasitic infection transmitted to humans from undercooked meat or contact with cat feces is:
toxoplasmosis
273
Contagious viral disease that is a milder form of measles lasting 3 or 4 days is:
german measles
274
Any of a group of herpes viruses that enlarge epithelial cells and can cause birth defects, can affect humans with impaired immunologic systems is:
cytomegalovirus
275
A condition is which women without previously diagnosed diabetes exhibit high blood glucose levels during pregnancy is known as ______ diabetes.
gestational
276
The development of immunities to Rh-positive blood antigens from a fetus by an Rh negative woman is called:
isoimmunization
277
Inherited form of anemia caused by faulty synthesis of hemoglobin is:
thalassemia
278
Estimated fetal weight <10th percentile for the gestational age is known as:
IUGR
279
Of the patients diagnosed with preeclampsia, 2%-12% are affected by the _____ syndrome.
HELLP
280
Hyperthyroidism produces thyroxine that causes a significant increase of _____ birth weight infants.
low
281
The software program used to measure volumes
VOCAL
282
What is the smallest unit of a 3D volume?
voxel
283
What term describes the display of parallel images?
tomographic ultrasound imaging
284
Portion of the menstrual cycle characterized by an increase in circulating progesterone and during which endometrial tissue is the thickest and prepared for embryo implanatation
luteal phase
285
Infertility is the failure to produce a pregnancy with unprotected intercourse after:
12 months
286
Fertilization of one egg by one sperm creates a:
zygote
287
What is the fluid filled cavity that develops within primary follicles and is sonographically visible?
antrum
288
When determining the antral follicle count for an infertility patient, only follicles between ____ are tallied.
2-10 mm
289
Clinical treatments and laboratory procedures used to establish a pregnancies is known as:
assisted reproductive technologies
290
Process that promotes the development of multiple follicles in the ovary using clomiphene citrate, letrozole, or injectable gonadotropins
ovulation induction
291
An ART option rarely used, where the sperm and ova are placed directly in the ampullary portion of the fallopian tube for in vivo fertilization is _______
292
Process whereby ova and sperm come into contact outside the body and fuse to form a zygote from extracted ova and sperm in a laboratory setting is _____
in vitro fertilization
293
3D/4D imaging using reconstruction abilities similar to:
CT
294
Pixel is defined as:
picture element
295
Anomalies of the fetal heart are best detected using _____ technology
STIC
296
Limitations of 3D/4D imaging
poor 2D acquisition reveals subpar 3D imaging, fetal movement, low amniotic fluid
297
The 3D mode that views hypoechoic structures and displays them as solid structures or creates a digital cast of the object is:
inversion mode
298
The rendering mode, glass body, or transparency mode is used with:
color Doppler
299
The rendering mode useful for evaluating the spine, extremities, and cranial sutures is:
skeletal mode
300
During amniocentesis of twins, a(n) ______ injection into the first sac/twin A after sampling ensures the second sac was entered to twin B
1-2 mL of indigo carmine dye
