OB Test collaboration Flashcards

1
Q

In the breech fetus with the transverse spine and orientation marker to the right of the monitor, the fetus is lying _________________

A

on its right side

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2
Q

When the fetus is vertex and the transverse spine is on the left side of the monitor, the fetus is lying_____________________

A

on its right side

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3
Q

_________________refers to when the head is down towards the cervix.

A

vertex

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4
Q

_____________________ breech refers to when the buttocks present first (toward the cervix) and both hips and knees are flexed.

A

complete

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5
Q

_______________ or “footling” breech indicates the fetus has one foot or both feet down (towards the cervix), so it’s legs are poised to deliver first.

A

incomplete

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6
Q

A fetus positioned wit the cranium in the superior uterus, rump in the inferior uterus, and spine at the maternal right uterus is labeled:

A

breech with fetus lying on its right side facing maternal right

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7
Q

Choose the position that is the same as a cephalic presentation.

A

vertex

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8
Q

Ipsilateral means:

A

on the same side

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9
Q

The inability of some females to lay supine during weeks 20 - term pregnancy because of a hypotensive state is known as:

A

aortocaval compression syndrome

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10
Q

A ___________ transducer may provide optimal images well into the third trimester on a thin patient.

A

5 MHz

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11
Q

A sonographer can adjust power levels adn minimize patient exposure to diagnostic ultrasound by knowing and watching the ultrasound system __________________ levels.

A

mechanical and thermal indices

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12
Q

A correctly filled bladder allows for imaging of the ________________ and lower placental edge.

A

cervix

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13
Q

implantation of the placenta in the lower part of the uterus covering the internal cervical os, thus delivering before the fetus

A

placenta previa

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14
Q

an implantation of a fertilized ovum in any area outside the endometrial cavity

A

ectopic pregnancy

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15
Q

The output power indication of the amount of acoustic power it takes to raise the temperature of tissue by 1 degree celsius

A

thermal indices

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16
Q

entrapment of the umbilical cord between the presenting fetal part and the cervix

A

vasa previa

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17
Q

the amount of transmitted energy by the ultrasound beam. The higher the frequency, the lower the index, thus, the lower the frequency, the higher the index

A

mechanial indices

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18
Q

compression of the aorta and inferior vena cava by the gravid uterus resulting in symptoms of nausea, hypotension, lightheadedness, and syncope

A

aortocaval compression syndrome

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19
Q

A sonographer can minimize thermal effects by which one of the following?
a. not staying in one spot to long
b. placing the focus of the beam in the near field
c. scanning over fetal bone
d. increasing acoustic output

A

a

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20
Q

A sonogram at 8 weeks of gestation demonstrates a cystic area within the posterior cranium. This appearance most likely represents which one of the following?
a. abnormal mesencephalon
b. normal rhombencephalon
c. abnormal rhombencephalon
d. normal prosencephalon

A

b

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21
Q

In early pregnancy, the gestational sac size grows at a rate of ___________ mm/day.

A

1-2

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22
Q

In the first trimester, herniated bowel will return within the abdominal cavity by the ____________ week.

A

12th

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23
Q

The blastocyst typically enters the uterus ___________ days after fertilization.

A

6-8

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24
Q

The crown-rump length measurement is considered most accurate through the _________ gestational week.

A

12th

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25
Q

The diameter of the normal yolk sac should never exceed____________ mm.

A

6

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26
Q

The embryonic heart begins to beat at _________ days after conception.

A

23

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27
Q

The interface between the decidua capsularis and echogenic vascular endometrium is which one of the following?
a. decidua capsularis
b. decidua basalis
c. double decidual sign
d. chorionic cavity

A

c

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28
Q

The villi on the myometrial side of the conceptus are known as which one of the following?
a. double decidual sign
b. decidua basalis
c. decidua capsularis
d. chorion laeve

A

d

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29
Q

To calculate the mean sac diameter of a gestational sac, which one of the following formulas should be used?
a. length x width x height
b. length + width +height
c. (length x width x height)/3
d. (length + width + height)/3

A

C

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30
Q

Select the normal chromosome number for an ovum
a. 46XXY
b. 46 XY or 46 XX
c. 23XO
d. 22XX or 22 XY

A

d

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31
Q

Using a transvaginal approach, the first structure visualized within a gestational sac is which one of the following structures?
a. primary yolk sac
b. secondary yolk sac
c. amnion
d. embryo

A

b

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32
Q

What is the area between the myometrium and the placenta?

A

retroplacental

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33
Q

Which of the following laboratory tests is used to indicate pregnancy when the values are elevated?
a. FSH
b. LH
c. hcG
d. HL

A

c

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34
Q

Which one of the following structures forms early in gestation and surrounds the embryo?
a. chorionic cavity
b. chorion frondosum
c. amniotic cavity
d. fetal cavity

A

c

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35
Q

Where does implantation of the embryo occur?

A

endometrium

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36
Q

A normal gestation last approximately:

A

280 days

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37
Q

Which hormone triggers ovulation?

A

luteinizing

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38
Q

What portion of the fallopian tube does fertilization generally occur in ?

A

ampullary

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39
Q

Name the solid ball of developing cells that occurs after fertilization.

A

morula

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40
Q

Identify the blastocyst layer that eventually develops into the embyryonic portion of the placenta.
a. trophoblast
b. embryoblast
c. blastocele
d. cytotrophoblast

A

a

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41
Q

What structure images after the secondary yolk sac?

A

embryo

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42
Q

Select the gestational age when the yolk sac images between the chorion and amnion.
a. carnegie stage 11
b. 11 weeks
c. carnegie stage 20
d. 5 weeks

A

c

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43
Q

Which of the following contributes to the maternal portion of the placenta?
a. embryonic ectoderm
b. chorionic villi
c. chorion laeve
d. decidual basalis

A

d

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44
Q

Choose the quantitative pregnancy test
a. serum beta hCG
b. urine
c. thyroxin
d. progesterone

A

a

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45
Q

What would be the correct formula to calculate gestational age in days?

A

MSD + 30

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46
Q

What is the formula to calculate gestational age in weeks?

A

menstrual age in days/7

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47
Q

What would be the gestational age of an embryo with a CRL of 0.38 cm?

A

6.3 weeks

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48
Q

Using Naegele’s rule, what would be the estimated due date for a woman with a LMP of September 10th ?

A

June 17th

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49
Q

Ultrasound in the first trimester is mostly performed to demonstrate:

A

EDD
GA
likelihood of continuing to term

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50
Q

What prevents more than one sperm from entering an ovum?

A

zona pellucida

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51
Q

At what age have the rudimentary forms of all embryonic organs and structures developed?

A

almost 11 weeks menstrual/GA

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52
Q

The portion of the endometrium that surrounds the blastocyst is:

A

decidua capsularies

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53
Q

average mean diameter of the gestational sac used to determine GA

A

mean sac diameter

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54
Q

Calculation to find a patient’s EDD
take LMP
add 1 year
subtract 3 months
add 7 days

A

Naegele’s Rule

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55
Q

changes in the endometrium to allow implantation of a blastocyst

A

decidualization

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56
Q

due date, calculated by adding 280 days to the first day of the last menstrual period. Also called estimated date of confinement

A

estimated date of delivery ( also called estimated date of confinement)

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57
Q

measurement of longest axis of an embryo; determines gestational age

A

crown rump length

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58
Q

number of times a woman has been pregnant

A

gravidity

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59
Q

Summary of a woman’s pregnancy outcomes.

A

parity

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60
Q

product of fertilization including all forms from zygote to fetus

A

conceptus

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61
Q

first sonographic evidence of an intrauterine pregnancy, the fluid-filled blastocyst

A

gestational sac

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62
Q

solid cluster on undifferentiated cells formed by repeated cleavage of the single cell that resulted from the fusion of two gametes

A

morula

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63
Q

duration of pregnancy counted from fertilization expressed in hours or days, also called embryonic age or postovulatory age

A

conceptual age

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64
Q

bud-like outward growths from the trophoblast, some of which will give rise to the fetal portion of the placenta

A

chorionic villi

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65
Q

membrane enclosing the amniotic cavity and embryo or fetus

A

amnion

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66
Q

haploid cell that when merged with a gamete from the opposite sex creates a diploid zygote

A

gamete

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67
Q

female gamete, aka egg or ovum

A

oocyte

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68
Q

membrane around the chorionic cavity, made up of trophoblast cells and extraembryonic mesoderm

A

chorion

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69
Q

subcuteaneous fluid in the posterior region of the neck of embryos and fetuses up to 14 weeks GA.

A

nuchal translucency

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70
Q

early gestation consisting of a thin outer layer of cells (trophoblast), a fluid-filled cavity, and an inner cell mass (embryoblast)

A

blastocyst

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71
Q

penetration of an oocyte by a sperm to form a diploid zygote

A

fertilization

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72
Q

single cell resulting from the fusion of two gametes

A

zygote

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73
Q

The term for having an abnormal number of chromosomes:

A

aneuploidy

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74
Q

The term for an abnormally slow heartrate is:

A

bradycardia

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75
Q

The empty gestational sac seen in an anembryonic pregnancy is:

A

blighted ovum

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76
Q

A deficiency of red blood cells is:

A

anemia

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77
Q

The spontaneous failure and expulsion of an early pregnancy is:

A

abortiona

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78
Q

A spontaneous abortion in which some products of conception remain in the uterus is:

A

incomplete abortion

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79
Q

An early failed pregnancy that remains in the uterus is termed:

A

missed abortion

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80
Q

A crescent shaped sonolucent collection of blood between the gestational sac and the uterine wall is:

A

subchorionic hemorrhage

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81
Q

The term for an abnormally rapid heart rate:

A

tachycardia

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82
Q

Having three copies of each chromosome is termed:

A

triploidy

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83
Q

A gestational sac in which the embryo fails to develop is described as:

A

blighted ovum

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84
Q

Heterotopic pregnancy

A

concomitant intrauterine pregnancy and ectopic pregnancy

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85
Q

Embryos with heart rates below ____ beats per minute generally have a poor prognosis.

A

less than 90

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86
Q

Multiple tiny cluster of grapelike echoes within the uterine cavity best describes:

A

gestational trophoblastic disease

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87
Q

The best sonographic correlation in the diagnosis of an ectopic pregnancy is the combination of no intrauterine pregnancy and _____

A

adnexal mass/ tubal ring sign

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88
Q

Which location of ectopic pregnancy would have an increased risk for massive hemorrhage?

A

interstitial/ the uterine part of the fallopian tube

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89
Q

The most common cause of vaginal bleeding in the first trimester is _____

A

subchorionic hemorrhage

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90
Q

The serum level beta chg. is _______ with gestational trophoblastic disease

A

elevated

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91
Q

most common pelvic mass seen in a first-trimester pregnancy

A

corpus luteal cyst

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92
Q

_____ may contain bowel and organs that may protrude into the base of the umbilical cord. Cannot be differentiated from normal physiological bowel migration until after 12 weeks

A

bowel gut herniation

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93
Q

Early onset intrauterine growth restriction is defined as a crown rump length ______

A

10% or less than average

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94
Q

Complete hydatidform mole usually results in:

A

large for dates uterus and vaginal bleeding

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95
Q

Hydatidform moles are caused by:

A

abnormal fertilization

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96
Q

Theca Lutein cysts are usually stimulated by excessive levels of hCG and are related to:

A

complete molar pregnancy

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97
Q

Ectopic pregnancy can be caused by:

A

PID
history of ectopic pregnancy
history of tubal surgery

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98
Q

signs of tubal rupture

A

hypotension
rebound tenderness
tachycardia

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99
Q

Beta-hCG levels should approximately double every ____ hours/

A

48

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100
Q

Ectopic pregnancy most often implant in:

A

fallopian tube

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101
Q

What beta-hCG levels are necessary to visualize an IUP with a transabdominal approach?

A

6500 mIU/mL

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102
Q

a fluid filled collection caused by bleeding from the decidualized endometrium

A

pseudosac

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103
Q

A ruptured tubal pregnancy usually appears as _____

A

complex mass-like area representing hemorrhage and free fluid

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104
Q

Which imaging method is considered the “gold standard” for diagnosing and locating an abdominal ectopic pregnancy?

A

MRI

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105
Q

A correctly filled bladder bladder allows for imaging of the _____ and lower placental edge.

A

cervix

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106
Q

A ______ transducer may provide optimal images well into the third trimester on a thin patient.

A

5 MHz

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107
Q

A fetus positioned with the cranium in the superior uterus, rump in the inferior uterus, and spine at the maternal right uterus is labeled:

A

breech with fetus lying on right side

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108
Q

A normal gestation lasts approximately:

A

280 days

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109
Q

A sonogram at 8 weeks of gestation demonstrates a cystic area within the posterior cranium. This appearance most likely represents what?

A

normal rhombencephalon

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110
Q

At what age have the rudimentary forms of all embryonic organs and structures developed?

A

almost 11 weeks menstrual/GA

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111
Q

The position that is the same as the cephalic presentation.

A

vertex

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112
Q

Endovaginal transducers aid the clinician in determining:

A

EDD
GA
likelihood of continuing to term

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113
Q

Identify the blastocyst layer that eventually develops into the embryonic portion of the placenta.

A

trophoblast

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114
Q

In early pregnancy, the gestational sac size grows at a rate of ___ mm/day.

A

1-2

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115
Q

In the breech fetus with the transverse spine and orientation marker to the right of the monitor, the fetus is lying _____.

A

on its right side

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116
Q

In the first trimester, herniated bowel will return within the abdominal cavity by the ____ week.

A

12th

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117
Q

Name the solid ball of developing cells that occurs after fertilization.

A

morula

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118
Q

The normal chromosome number for an ovum

A

22X or 22Y

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119
Q

The blastocyst typically enters the uterus ____ days after fertilization.

A

4-5

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120
Q

The crown-rump length measurement is considered most accurate through the ____ gestational week

A

12

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121
Q

The diameter of the normal yolk sac should never exceed ___ mm.

A

6

122
Q

The embryonic heart begins to beat at ___ days after conception.

A

23

123
Q

The inability of some females to lay supine during weeks 20-term pregnancy because of a hypotensive state is known as:

A

aortocaval compression syndrome

124
Q

The interface between the decidua capsularis and echogenic vascular endometrium

A

double decidual sign

125
Q

The portion of the endometrium that surrounds the blastocyst is:

A

trophoblast

126
Q

The villi on the myometrial side of the conceptus are known as:

A

decidua basalis

127
Q

To calculate the mean sac diameter of a gestational sac, what is the formula?

A

length + width + height/3

128
Q

Ultrasound in the first trimester is mostly performed to demonstrate:

A

EDD
GA
likelihood to continue to term

129
Q

Using Naegele’s rule, what would be the estimated due date for a woman with a LMP of September 10th

A

June 17th

130
Q

Using a transvaginal approach, the first structure visualized within a gestational sac is what?

A

secondary yolk sac

131
Q

What is the area between the myometrium and the placenta?

A

retroplacental

132
Q

What is the formula to calculate gestational age in weeks?

A

MSD + 30/7

133
Q

What portion of the fallopian tube does fertilization generally occur in?

A

ampullary

134
Q

What prevents more than one sperm from entering an ovum?

A

zona pellucida

135
Q

What structure images after the secondary yolk sac?

A

embryo

136
Q

What would be the correct formula to calculate gestational age in days?

A

MSD + 30

137
Q

What would be the gestational age of an embryo with a CRL of 0.38 cm?

A

6.3 weeks

138
Q

When the fetus is vertex and the transverse spine is on the left side of the monitor, the fetus is lying ____.

A

head down lying on its right side

139
Q

Where does implantation of the embryo occur?

A

middle third of the posterior face of the uterus

140
Q

Which hormone triggers ovulation?

A

Luteinizing

141
Q

What contributes to the maternal portion of the placenta?

A

decidua basalis

142
Q

What laboratory test is used to indicate pregnancy when the values are elevated?

A

hCG pregnancy test

143
Q

What structure forms early in gestation and surrounds the embryo?

A

amnion

144
Q

______ of “footling” breech indicates the fetus has one foot or both feet down (towards the cervix), so it’s legs are poised to deliver first.

A

incomplete

145
Q

______ breech refers to when the buttocks present first (toward the cervix) and both hips and knees are flexed.

A

complete

146
Q

_____ refers to when the head is down towards the cervix.

A

vertex

147
Q

The procedure used to obtain a fetal blood sample.

A

PUBS

148
Q

What procedure can be done in the first six weeks of gestation?

A

coelocentesis

149
Q

A 26 year old, G2P1 patient presents to the department with complaints of pain and bleeding. She is considered high risk due to her uncontrolled hypertension and by previous sonographic examination she is 20 weeks pregnant. What is the most likely cause for the sonographic finding?

A

placental abruption

150
Q

What is the most common maternal disorder?

A

diabetes

151
Q

What is considered part of the double decidual sac sign?

A

decidua capsularis
decidua parietalis

152
Q

A 22 year old woman is seen for an obstetric woman is seen for an obstetric ultrasound at 12 weeks of gestation for increased uterine size and absent heart tones. The ultrasound shows a large heterogeneous mass within the uterus. No identifiable fetus or amniotic fluid can be detected. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

molar pregnancy

153
Q

A 32 year old woman is seen for ultrasound with positive pregnancy test and pelvic pain. She has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease and reveals an empty uterus and a moderate amount of cul-de-sac fluid. This is most suspicious for what?

A

ectopic pregnancy

154
Q

A 25 year old woman G2 P1, is seen at the emergency department at 10 weeks gestation with vaginal bleeding. Laboratory test results reveal a beta-hCG level of 257,000 IU/mL. An ultrasound examination is ordered to confirm what?

A

viable IUP

155
Q

A patient is seen with heavy bleeding 5 days after an uncomplicated delivery. Ultrasound reveals an enlarged postpartum uterus with echogenic mass. This suggests what?

A

retained products of conception

156
Q

An 18 year old is seen by her gynecologist with a 2 week history of spotting. She reports that she had a positive urine pregnancy test result after a missed period six weeks ago. Endovaginal ultrasound examination of the uterus reveals an embryo, without a heartbeat, with measurements consistent with a 7 week gestation. This would be consistent with what?

A

missed abortion

157
Q

A 40 year old woman is seen for an obstetric ultrasound with bleeding and excessive nausea and vomiting. Clinical examination reveal a uterus consistent with a 14 week gestation that is inconsistent with her predicted 10 week gestation with last menstrual period. An ultrasound is performed and reveals a viable fetus with a crown rump length consistent with a 9.5 week gestation. A normal placenta is identified with an adjacent large echogenic mass that contains small cystic lesions. What should be suspected?

A

partial hydatidform mole

158
Q

A 22 year old pregnant woman is seen in the ultrasound department with heavy bleeding and cramping. She is 8 weeks pregnant by last menstrual period, which was confirmed with a 6 week ultrasound after an episode of spotting. The ultrasound reveals an empty uterus. This would be most consistent with what?

A

spontaneous abortion

159
Q

A patient is seen with pain and spotting at 7 weeks gestation. Ultrasound confirms a viable intrauterine pregnancy consistent with the patients last menstrual period. A mild to moderate amount of cul-de-sac fluid is identified, and an adnexal ring sign is imaged in the left adnexal region. What diagnosis would accurately describe the sonographic finding described?

A

heterotopic pregnancy

160
Q

A crescent shaped sonolucent collection of blood between the gestational sac and the uterine wall is ______.

A

subchorionic hemorrhage

161
Q

A deficiency of red blood cells is:

A

anemia

162
Q

A gestational sac in which the embryo fails to develop is described as:

A

blighted ovum

163
Q

A heterotopic pregnancy is what?

A

intrauterine and extrauterine pregnancies concomitant

164
Q

a fluid collection caused by bleeding from the decidualized endometrium

A

pseudosac

165
Q

A ruptured tubal pregnancy presents as a:

A

complex mass-like hemorrhage and free fluid

166
Q

A spontaneous abortion in which some of the products of conception remain in the uterus is:

A

incomplete abortion

167
Q

An early failed pregnancy that remains in the uterus

A

missed abortion

168
Q

Beta-hCG levels should approximately develop every ___ hours/

A

48

169
Q

Complete hydatidform mole usually results in:

A

larger for dates uterus and vaginal bleeding

170
Q

Early onset intrauterine growth restriction is defined as crown rump length at least _____ standard deviations below the mean for the expected gestation age.

A

Ectopic pregnancy can be caused by:

171
Q

Ectopic pregnancy most often implanted in the:

A

ampullary portion of the fallopian tube

172
Q

Embryos with heart rates below ____ beats per minute at 6.2 weeks generally have a poor prognosis

A

90

173
Q

Having three copies of each chromosome is termed _____

A

triploidy

174
Q

Hydatidform moles are caused by:

A

abnormal fertilization

175
Q

Multiple tiny clusters of grapelike echoes within the uterine cavity best describes what?

A

gestational trophoblastic disease

176
Q

Healthy characteristics of a yolk sac

A

round

177
Q

Signs of tubal rupture

A

abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding

178
Q

The best sonographic correlation in the diagnosis of an ectopic pregnancy is the combination no intrauterine pregnancy and what?

A

adnexal mass/ free fluid

179
Q

The empty gestational sac seen is anembryonic pregnancy is:

A

blighted ovum

180
Q

The most common cause of vaginal bleeding in the first trimester

A

subchorionic hemorrhage

181
Q

The serum level of beta-hCG is ______ with gestational trophoblastic disease.

A

increased

182
Q

The spontaneous failure and expulsion of an early pregnancy is:

A

miscarriage

183
Q

The term for an abnormally rapid heart rate is ____

A

tachycardia

184
Q

The term for an abnormally slow heart rate is:

A

bradycardia

185
Q

The term for having an abnormal level of chromosomes is:

A

aneuploidy

186
Q

Theca Lutein Cysts are usually stimulated by excessive levels of hCG and are related to:

A

complete molar pregnancy

187
Q

Which location of ectopic pregnancy would have an increased risk of massive hemorrhage?

A

interstitial

188
Q

What is the most common pelvic mass seen in a first-trimester pregnancy?

A

corpus luteal cyst

189
Q

Define a circumvallate placenta

A

form of extrachorial placenta, with a raised placental margin in an annular shape.
amnion and chorion edges rolled up around edges of placenta

190
Q

Identify the placental type where the chorionic villi attach but do not invade the myometrium

A

placenta accreta

191
Q

Scars within the uterus, secondary to previous gynecologic surgery, are called?

A

synechaie

192
Q

The acquired maternal problem which results in a placenta thickness of less than 2 cm

A

preeclampsia

193
Q

What is the suspected cause of amniotic sheets?

A

synechaie

194
Q

What is the delivery of the cord before the fetus?

A

umbilical cord prolapse

195
Q

What is the area between the myometrium and the placenta?

A

retroplacental

196
Q

What can result in the mimicking of a placenta previa?

A

low lying placenta

197
Q

The multiple fibrous strands of amnion that develop in utero and may entangle fetal parts to cause amputations or malformations of the fetus that are described as:

A

amniotic band syndrome

198
Q

Which maternal disease can result in early placental maturation?

A

diabetes

199
Q

The crossing of the internal os by the umbilical cord

A

vasa previa

200
Q

The sonographic characteristic of excessive Wharton’s jelly.

A

Small mass adjacent to the abdomen Irregular protrusion from the cord Cystic dilation up to 6 cm, usually located close to the fetus Variably echogenic, soft tissue mass with three vessels visible

201
Q

Which form of placenta previa lies within two centimeters of the internal os?

A

low lying placenta

202
Q

A 35 year old woman, G4 P3, is seen for an obstetric ultrasound with bleeding and no pain at 34 weeks gestation. Endovaginal ultrasound reveals the placenta across the lower uterine segment and extending along the anterior and posterior uterine wall. This would be consistent with what?

A

Placenta previa

203
Q

A 36 year old woman, G5P4, is seen for an obstetric ultrasound at 31 weeks gestation for late prenatal care. Patient history includes two prior cesarean sections and otherwise uneventful pregnancies. The sonographer notes an anterior placenta with partia previa. The sonographer should also look for what abnormal findings?

A

placental attachment

204
Q

Mucous tissue surrounding the umbilical cord

A

Wharton’s jelly

205
Q

The placenta is responsible for what?

A

nutritive, respiratory, and excretory functions

206
Q

The umbilical cord originates from fusion of the yolk sac stalk and the omphalomesenteric duct at approximately:

A

week 7

207
Q

The normal at term umbilical cord length is approximately:

A

52-61 cm

208
Q

The normal term placenta weighs between:

A

480-600 g

209
Q

A normal placental thickness at 24 weeks gestation is less than:

A

4 cm

210
Q

Placental calcifications may be caused by:

A

maternal smoking
parity
season of the year

211
Q

A jelly-like placenta is associated with:

A

IUGR

212
Q

A placenta is considered low lying if the inferior margin is:

A

with 2 cm of the internal os

213
Q

The most infiltrative form of placenta accreta is:

A

percreta

214
Q

Premature separation of all or part of the placenta from the myometrium is:

A

abruption

215
Q

Cord prolapse is defined as:

A

presentation of the umbilical cord in advance of the fetal part during labor and delivery

216
Q

Velamentous cord insertion

A

a fetus’s umbilical cord abnormally inserts on the edge of the placenta along the chorioamniotic membranes. The fetal blood vessels also travel unprotected from the placenta until they come together and reach the protection of the umbilical cord.

217
Q

The use of _______ should make the visualization of the umbilical cord insertion into the placenta easily identifiable.

A

color Doppler

218
Q

An accessory placental lobe is also known as a _____.

A

battledore placenta

219
Q

Visualization of multiple ______ are highly suggestive of placenta accreta.

A

lacunae

220
Q

The most common reason for emergency postpartum hysterectomy is a ______

A

morbidly adherent placenta

221
Q

The umbilical vessel abnormality seen with conjoined twins is _____ vessels.

A

supernumerary

222
Q

Compressed umbilical cords place the fetus at risk for:;

A

fetal hypoxia
circulatory compromise

223
Q

A(n) _____ bladder can cause a false positive appearance of placenta previa.

A

overdistended

224
Q

What is the disadvantage to chorionic villus sampling?

A

false-positive result

225
Q

What is the preferred gestational age for a genetic amniocentesis?

A

14-20 weeks

226
Q

The procedure used to obtain a fetal blood sample.

A

PUBS

227
Q

What procedure can be done in the first six weeks of gestation?

A

vaginal coelocentesis

228
Q

What procedure allows for sampling of the amniotic fluid?

A

amniocentesis

229
Q

Early sampling of exocoelmic cavity fluid via placenta free areas

A

coelocentesis

230
Q

A common clinical technique for retrieving living fetal cells/ cell products to the pregnant uterus is:

A

PUBS

231
Q

An ultrasound procedure that obtains fetal blood via a needle inserted into the maternal abdomen

A

PUBS

232
Q

Amniocentesis testing is recommended at:

A

14-20 weeks

233
Q

Fetal blood sampling occurs at the:

A

venous cord insertion site

234
Q

Vaginal coelcentesis can provide a sample of extra amniotic fluid as early as:

A

6 weeks

235
Q

Culdocentesis is performed to:

A

acquire fluid posterior to the lower uterus

236
Q

Disadvantages of CVS

A

false-positive result

237
Q

Cordocentesis is also known as _____

A

PUBS

238
Q

The optimal timing for a CVS is between the _____ weeks after the last menstrual period

A

10-13

239
Q

Studies suggest that ______ is the safest and most accurate of the three procedures, transcervical CVS, transabdominal CVS, and amniocentesis

A

amniocentesis

240
Q

Fetal blood sampling occurs at the _____ cord insertion

A

venous

241
Q

Removal of a small amount of fluid surrounding the fetus via the maternal abdomen, for testing, is called ______

A

amniocentesis

242
Q

What causes the anemia with sickle cell disease?

A

reduced production of hemoglobin

243
Q

Which maternal bacterial infection raises the risk of fetal hydrops?

A

parvovirus b19

244
Q

When does Rh isoimmunization occur?

A

When there is transfer of blood from a Rh positive fetus to a Rh negative mother

245
Q

Immune fetal hydrops includes what fetal findings?

A

enlarged spleen, heart, or liver, and fluid surrounding the heart or lungs, ascites, excess amniotic fluid

246
Q

Which placental problem coexists with maternal preeclampsia?

A

placental abruption

247
Q

What indicates the onset of eclampsia?

A

seizures

248
Q

What is the most common maternal disorder?

A

diabetes

249
Q

An Rh-negative mother and a Rh-positive fetus can result in whaT?

A

Rh isoimmunization

250
Q

PROM, toxemia, IUGR, sickle cell disease, and diabetes mellitus result in a _____ indicating vascular resistance.

A

high S/D ratio

251
Q

A maternal infection occurring before conception.

A

may adversely affect a fetus

252
Q

Maternal infection is passed to the fetus are usually via the:

A

genital tract and circulatory systems

253
Q

A rare viral infection that is linked to stillbirth, low infant birth weight, congenital heart anomalies, and microphthalmia is:

A

EBV

254
Q

A bacterial infection that is seen during pregnancy and known to cause fetal prematurity, prolonged rupture of fetal membranes, sepsis, and IUGR.

A

Gonorrhea

255
Q

A maternal infectious disease that promotes placental insufficiency, causing IUGR, low birth weight, abortion, and stillbirth is:

A

malaria

256
Q

The fetal barrier that usually protects fetuses from toxoplasmosis is most effective:

A

during early pregnancy

257
Q

Fetal malformations occurring in the first trimester which consist of cataracts, cardiac defects, and deafness are caused by:

A

3 day measles

258
Q

A glucose tolerance test is usually performed:

A

between 24 and 28 weeks

259
Q

Isoimmunized pregnancies can result in:

A

erythroblastosis fetalis, hepatosplenomegaly, immune hydrops fetalis

260
Q

Maternal disease that is least likely to affect a fetus’s heart

A

thalassemia

261
Q

The C in TORCH stands for:

A

cytomegalovirus

262
Q

Maternal hypertension ______ uteroplacental blood flow

A

decreases

263
Q

_____ of pregnancy is a third trimester disease characterized by maternal edema, hypertension, proteinuria, and central nervous system irritability

A

Toxemia (preeclampsia

264
Q

Maternal malaria promotes placental _____ causing IUGR, low birth weight, abortion, and stillbirth

A

insufficiency

265
Q

Fetal _____, a diagnostic test, helps detect heart abnormalities in patients exposed to CMV and rubella.

A

echocardiogram

266
Q

Cesarean section delivery is indicated in the event of _____ virus in the maternal genital tract.

A

gestational herpes

267
Q

Congenital malformation seen with diabetes are related to high blood sugar levels resulting in disruption of embryonic ______

A

organogenesis

268
Q

Rh isoimmunization refers to the development of maternal _____ to the surface antigens on fetal red blood cells.

A

antigens

269
Q

Rigid irregularity shaped blood cells that occur mostly in African Americans in the United States is a cause of:

A

sickle cell anemia

270
Q

Ingestion of raw meat, contaminated water, and contact with feline feces is advised against for obstetrical patient owing to the risk of acquiring ______

A

toxoplasmosis

271
Q

Mosquito-borne single-stranded RNA virus related to the dengue virus is:

A

Zika

272
Q

Parasitic infection transmitted to humans from undercooked meat or contact with cat feces is:

A

toxoplasmosis

273
Q

Contagious viral disease that is a milder form of measles lasting 3 or 4 days is:

A

german measles

274
Q

Any of a group of herpes viruses that enlarge epithelial cells and can cause birth defects, can affect humans with impaired immunologic systems is:

A

cytomegalovirus

275
Q

A condition is which women without previously diagnosed diabetes exhibit high blood glucose levels during pregnancy is known as ______ diabetes.

A

gestational

276
Q

The development of immunities to Rh-positive blood antigens from a fetus by an Rh negative woman is called:

A

isoimmunization

277
Q

Inherited form of anemia caused by faulty synthesis of hemoglobin is:

A

thalassemia

278
Q

Estimated fetal weight <10th percentile for the gestational age is known as:

A

IUGR

279
Q

Of the patients diagnosed with preeclampsia, 2%-12% are affected by the _____ syndrome.

A

HELLP

280
Q

Hyperthyroidism produces thyroxine that causes a significant increase of _____ birth weight infants.

A

low

281
Q

The software program used to measure volumes

A

VOCAL

282
Q

What is the smallest unit of a 3D volume?

A

voxel

283
Q

What term describes the display of parallel images?

A

tomographic ultrasound imaging

284
Q

Portion of the menstrual cycle characterized by an increase in circulating progesterone and during which endometrial tissue is the thickest and prepared for embryo implanatation

A

luteal phase

285
Q

Infertility is the failure to produce a pregnancy with unprotected intercourse after:

A

12 months

286
Q

Fertilization of one egg by one sperm creates a:

A

zygote

287
Q

What is the fluid filled cavity that develops within primary follicles and is sonographically visible?

A

antrum

288
Q

When determining the antral follicle count for an infertility patient, only follicles between ____ are tallied.

A

2-10 mm

289
Q

Clinical treatments and laboratory procedures used to establish a pregnancies is known as:

A

assisted reproductive technologies

290
Q

Process that promotes the development of multiple follicles in the ovary using clomiphene citrate, letrozole, or injectable gonadotropins

A

ovulation induction

291
Q

An ART option rarely used, where the sperm and ova are placed directly in the ampullary portion of the fallopian tube for in vivo fertilization is _______

A
292
Q

Process whereby ova and sperm come into contact outside the body and fuse to form a zygote from extracted ova and sperm in a laboratory setting is _____

A

in vitro fertilization

293
Q

3D/4D imaging using reconstruction abilities similar to:

A

CT

294
Q

Pixel is defined as:

A

picture element

295
Q

Anomalies of the fetal heart are best detected using _____ technology

A

STIC

296
Q

Limitations of 3D/4D imaging

A

poor 2D acquisition reveals subpar 3D imaging, fetal movement, low amniotic fluid

297
Q

The 3D mode that views hypoechoic structures and displays them as solid structures or creates a digital cast of the object is:

A

inversion mode

298
Q

The rendering mode, glass body, or transparency mode is used with:

A

color Doppler

299
Q

The rendering mode useful for evaluating the spine, extremities, and cranial sutures is:

A

skeletal mode

300
Q

During amniocentesis of twins, a(n) ______ injection into the first sac/twin A after sampling ensures the second sac was entered to twin B

A

1-2 mL of indigo carmine dye