Ob final study guide Flashcards

1
Q

Obstetric sonography allows the clinician to assess the ______, ______, and _______ of the fetus.

A

development
growth
wellbeing

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2
Q

_______ should be performed only when there is a valid medical reason and using the lowest possible ultrasound energy exposure settings

A

Fetal sonography

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3
Q

The major biologic effects of ultrasound are believed to be _____ and ______ forces.

A

thermal
mechanical

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4
Q

produced and collapse of gas filled bubbles

A

cavitation

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5
Q

Sonographer can minimize thermal effects by:

A

not staying in one place too long

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6
Q

ALARA

A

as low as reasonably achievable

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7
Q

_____ is a higher ultrasound energy level and should be completed as quickly as possible to reduce thermal effects.

A

Doppler

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8
Q

_____ is defined as systematic reflection on an analysis of morality. A study of what is good and bad and of moral duty and obligiation.

A

ethics

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9
Q

A code of ethics for sonographers has been adopted by the:

A

Society of Diagnostic Medical Sonography

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10
Q

_____ concerns right and wrong conduct and good and bad character. The production of cherished values that related to how a person interacts and lives in peace.

A

Morality

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11
Q

_______ directs the sonographer to not cause harm.

A

nonmaleficience

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12
Q

_______ is providing complete information and assuring comprehension

A

informed consent

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13
Q

_______ by a patient or subject to a required or experimental procedure

A

voluntary consent

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14
Q

______ is the greater balance of clinical “goods” over “harm. Meaning the exam must be justified and the clinical importance outweighs the possible harm caused by the exam.

A

Beneficence

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15
Q

______ refers to a person’s capacity to formulate, express, and carry out value based preferences.

A

autonomy

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16
Q

_______ means truthfulness.

A

veracity

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17
Q

______ is the adherence to moral and ethical principles.

A

integrity

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18
Q

______ is the ethical principle that requires fair distribution of benefits and burdens.

A

justice

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19
Q

______ is the obligation of caregivers to protect clinical information about patients from unauthorized access.

A

confidentiality

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20
Q

Indications for first trimester sonography

A

confirm IUP
evaluate suspected ectopic
estimate gestational age
diagnose multiple pregnancies
confirm cardiac activity
as an adjunct to interventional ultrasound guided procedures

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21
Q

interventional ultrasound guided procedures

A

amniocentesis
chorionic villus sampling
embryo transfer
localization and removal of intrauterine devices

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22
Q

_______ is a midline cranial defect in which there is herniation of the brain and meninges

A

cephalocele

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23
Q

______ is a rare, lethal anomaly of cranial development. Primary abnormalities include: defect in occiput involving the foramen magnum, retroflexion of the spine, and open spinal defects

A

ineincephaly

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24
Q

______ is the dilation of the ventricular system without enlargement of the cranium.

A

ventriculomegaly

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25
Q

______ is a congenital defect caused by an extra chromosome, which causes a deficiency in the forebrain. It is a malformation of the prosencephalon to differentiate into cerebral hemispheres and lateral ventricles between four and eight week.

A

Holoprosencephaly

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26
Q

______ result in a cystic dilation of the fourth ventricle with dysgenesis or complete agenesis of the cerebellar vermis and frequently hydrocephalus

A

Dandy-Walker malformation

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27
Q

______ is when the neural tube fails to close after 6 weeks gestation.

A

spina bifida

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28
Q

The banana sign is associated with _____

A

spina bifida

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29
Q

The lemon sign is associated with _____

A

scalloping the frontal bones

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30
Q

Abnormal wall defects

A

bowel herniation
gastroschisis
omphalocele

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31
Q

appears sonographically as an echogenic mass at the base of the cord between 8 and 12 weeks

A

bowel herniation

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32
Q

Bowel protrusion outside of the abdominal wall. Congenital fissure that remains open past 12 weeks in the wall of the abdomen just to the right of the umbilical cord

A

gastrochisis

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33
Q

abdominal wall defect where the liver, bowel, and stomach are typically located in the umbilical cord. Cannot be differentiated from normal physiological bowel migration until after 12 weeks

A

omphalocele

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34
Q

The fetal bladder is seen as __-__ weeks of gestation

A

10
12

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35
Q

________ is seen as a very large bladder because the obstruction does not allow the bladder to empty properly

A

obstructive uropathy

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36
Q

_______ is fluid filled structure of the with septations that typically surrounds the neck but may extend upward to the head or laterally to the body. it is one of the most common abnormalities seen sonographically in the first trimester

A

cystic hygroma

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37
Q

Cystic hygroma is associated with chromosomal abnormalities and most common are:

A

trisomy 13, 18, 21

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38
Q

In fetuses detected with cystic hygroma in the second and third trimesters, _______ is the most common karyotype abnormality

A

Turners syndrome

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39
Q

The ______ cyst is the most common ovarian/pelvic mass seen in the first trimester of pregnancy

A

corpus luteum

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40
Q

A gestational sac without an embryo may present:

A

a normal early IUP
abnormal IUP
pseudogestational sac in a patient with an ectopic pregnancy

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41
Q

________ , is a gestational sac in which the embryo fails to develop or stops developing at an early stage

A

anembryonic pregnancy

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42
Q

anembryonic pregnancy is also known as:

A

blighted ovum

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43
Q

__________ is when trophoblastic tissue overtakes the pregnancy and propagates throughout the uterine cavity.

A

gestational trophoblastic disease

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44
Q

Sonographic findings of Gestational Trophoblastic Disease

A

snowstorm appearance caused by hydatidform mole
cluster of grapes
increased blood flow

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45
Q

Embryonic bradycardia

A

<90 BPM

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46
Q

Embryonic tachycardia

A

> 170 BPM

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47
Q

The amnion is best visualized transvaginally between the __ and __ week

A

5
7

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48
Q

Ectopic pregnancy is located outside the _______/_____ portion of the uterus.

A

central/fundal

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49
Q

One of the most emergent sonographic diagnoses

A

ectopic pregnancy

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50
Q

Approximately __% of maternal deaths are related to ectopic pregnancy.

A

10

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51
Q

Ectopic pregnancy occurs in the _______ in 95% of cases.

A

fallopian tubes

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52
Q

________ is simultaneous intrauterine and extrauterine pregnancy.

A

heterotopic pregnancy

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53
Q

_______ is in the fallopian tube at the cornua of the uterus

A

Interstitial

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54
Q

______ is the most life threatening kind of pregnancy because this area contains the parauterine and myometrial vasculature increasing the risk of massive hemorrhage.

A

interstitial pregnancy

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55
Q

_______ is when the gestational sac is within the cervix

A

cervical pregnancy

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56
Q

_______ frequently presents on ultrasound as an _______ shaped uterus

A

hourglass

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57
Q

______ is when the pregnancy is within the ovary

A

ovarian pregnancy

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58
Q

The maximum thickness of the subcuteaneous lucency at the back of the neck in an embryo at 11-14 weeks

A

nuchal translucency

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59
Q

Markers for cardiac anomalies

A

increased nuchal translucency
tricuspid regurgitation
reversal of flow in the ductus venosus

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60
Q

The partial or complete absence of the cranium

A

acrania

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61
Q

the congenital absence of the brain and cranial vault

A

anencephaly

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62
Q

By 8 weeks 3 primary vesicles seen within fetal brain

A

prosencephalon
rhombencephalon
mesencephalon

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63
Q

Around 20 weeks of gestation, a sonogram may demonstrate a cystic area within the cranium which is the ______

A

normal rhombencephalon

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64
Q

By 9 weeks the _____ has formed and the echoigenic _____ tissue is seen in the lateral ventricles

A

midline falx
choroid plexus

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65
Q

Limb buds are recognizable during the __ week of gestation

A

6th g

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66
Q

Hands and feet decelop later in the first trimester and completely formed the the end of the __ wek

A

10th

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67
Q

At __ weeks calcifications of the clavicle begins, floowed by ossification of the mandible, palate, vertebral column, and neural arches

A

8

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68
Q

Frontal cranial bones begin to calcify at __ weeks followed by long bones

A

9

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69
Q

Palate fusion occurs late in the ____ trimester.

A

first

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70
Q

____ and ____ are noted brightly echogenic structures by the 9th week

A

maxilla
mandible

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71
Q

Abdominal wall is developed by __ weeks of gestation

A

6

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72
Q

Midgut descends into the fetal abdomen at about __ weeks

A

11

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73
Q

Embryonic hear beat starts beating at approximately __ days

A

23

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74
Q

Normal heart rate 5 weeks

A

92-109 BPM

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75
Q

Normal heart rate 6 weeks

A

112-136 BPM

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76
Q

Normal heart rate 7 weeks

A

112-140 bpm

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77
Q

normal heart rate 8 weeks

A

126-160 BPM

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78
Q

Normal heart rate 9 weeks

A

126-150 BPM

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79
Q

Normal heart rate 10 weeks

A

126-150 BPM

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80
Q

Normal heart rate 11 weeks

A

120-150 BPM

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81
Q

Normal heart rate 12 weeks

A

125-160 BPM

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82
Q

Dizygotic twin pregnancies account for __% of all twins

A

70

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83
Q

Dizygotic twins are defined as _____ and _____

A

dichorionic
diamniotic

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84
Q

______ twin arise from two separately fertilized ova.

A

dizygotic

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85
Q

_____ and _____ twins appear as two separated gestational sacs

A

dichorionic
diamniotic

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86
Q

_________ twins appear to be contained within a single gestational/chorionic sac; two amnions; two yolk sacs, and two embryos are identified.

A

Monochorionic-diamniotic

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87
Q

___________ twin gestation is one gestational sac, one yolk sac and one amniotic membrane and two embryos within a single amniotic cavity.

A

monoamniotic-monochorionic

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88
Q

multiple pregnancies with chorionic sac

A

monochorionic

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89
Q

Most common presentation for complications in the first trimester is ______

A

bleeding or spotting

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90
Q

Most common reason for bleeding in the 1st trimester

A

subchorionic hemorrhage

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91
Q

Secondary yolk sac is formed at ___ days when the primary yolk sac is pinched off by the extra embryonic coelom

A

23

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92
Q

The embryonic phase is week __ through week __

A

4
10

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93
Q

During the _____ phase all the major internal and external structures begin to develop

A

embryonic

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94
Q

______ is the most accurate measrement for determining gestational age.

A

crown rump length

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95
Q

The crown length measurement is considered the most accurate through the __ week.

A

12

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96
Q

In early pregnancy, the gestational sac size grows at a rate of __ mm/day

A

1

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97
Q

An embryo with cardiac activity should be identified transvaginally when the gestational sac measures __-__ mm

A

16-20

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98
Q

Mean sac diameter formula

A

length + width + height/3

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99
Q

Initial heart beat occurs between __ - __ weeks

A

5.5
6

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100
Q

Ectopic pregnancies demonstrate a ____ hCG than intrauterine pregnancies

A

lower

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101
Q

The serum leve3l of beta hCG is dramatically elevated with ______

A

gestational trophoblastic disease

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102
Q

hCG is normal 7 week pregnancy doubles every ___ days

A

3.5

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103
Q

A normal gestational sac can be consistently demonstrated with transabdominal scanning when the beta hCG level is ____ mIU/ml

A

1800

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104
Q

AT __-__ weeks hCG levels plateau and subsequently decline while gestation continues

A

9
10

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105
Q

In ______ hCG levels are increased and they plateau much later and fall much more slowly

A

trisomy 21

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106
Q

Intrauterine pregnancy can be visualized sonographically during the __ week

A

fifth

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107
Q

______ is on the myometrium or burrowowing side of conception

A

decidua basalis

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108
Q

the interface between the decidua capsularis and the echogenic, highly vascular endometrium

A

double decidual sac sign

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109
Q

_____ is the earliest intragestational sac anatomy seen

A

yolk sac

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110
Q

_____ is usually seen from 5 weeks gestation

A

yolk sac

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111
Q

Visualization of the _____ predicts a viable pregnancy

A

yolk sac

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112
Q

The diameter of a normal yolk sac should never exceed __mm

A

6

113
Q

Implantation of the blastocyst into the uterus decidua is completed within __ days after fertilization

A

12

114
Q

The ______ that separates the amniotic cavity and the chorionic cavity is routinely seen after 5.5 weeks

A

amniotic membrane

115
Q

Cranial neural folds and closure of the neuropore are completed by __ weeks, forming a cranial vault

A

7

115
Q

describes all possible pregnancy outcomes

A

parity

116
Q

the number of pregnancies including the present one

A

gravidity

117
Q

First trimester is until ______

A

13 weeks 6 days

118
Q

Second trimester is _____

A

14 weeks to 26 weeks 6 days

119
Q

Third trimester is ______

A

27 weeks until term

120
Q

Pregnancy duration

A

280 days
40 weeks

121
Q

Naegules rule to estimate due date

A

EDD = LNMP - 3 months + 7 days
LNMP = EDD - 3 months + 7 days

122
Q

_____ is the first dayt of pregnancy

A

conception

123
Q

dates the pregnancy with the first day of the last menstrual period as the beginning of gestation

A

gestational age or menstrual age

124
Q

Gestational age would add __ weeks onto the conceptual age

A

2

125
Q

12 days after conception during the implantation process

A

zygote

126
Q

After 10 weeks the embryo is called a ____

A

fetus

127
Q

Trophoblastic cells secrete ____

A

hCG

128
Q

a glycogen rich mucosa that nourishes the early pregnancy

A

decidua

129
Q

____ causes the endometrium to convert to ______

A

decidua

130
Q

Blastocyst typically eneter the uterus –_– days after fertilization

A

4
5

131
Q

Implantation into the uterine decidua is completeed within ___ days after fertilization

A

12

132
Q

______ is the first stie of formation of red blood cells that will nourish the embryo

A

primary yolk sac

133
Q

Two most common clinical techniques for obtaining living fetal cells or fetal cell products from the pregnant uterus for prenatal diagnosis

A

amniocentesis
chorionic villus sampling

134
Q

sampling of fluid within the amniotic sac

A

amniocentesis

135
Q

2 types of amniocentesis

A

genetic
lung maturity

136
Q

Risk increases for chromonsomal abnormalities after the age of ___

A

35

137
Q

Indications for amniocentesis

A

increased AFP
abnormally high MSAFP
abnormally low MSAFP

138
Q

a prenatal test where a sample of chorionic villi is removed from the placenta for testing.

A

chronic villus sampling

139
Q

Samples of the _______ tissue is used for genetic diagnosis in chorionic villus sampling

A

trophoblastic

140
Q

Advantages of chorionic villus sampling

A

earlier genetic testing (9-12 weeks gestation
accuracy

141
Q

disadvantages of chorionic villus sampling

A

induced fetal anomalies such as limb defects
cells may not represent karyotype
fetal loss
false positive results

142
Q

percutanteous umbilical blood sampling is also known as _____

A

cordocentesis

143
Q
A
144
Q

the sampling of blood through the umbilical cord

A

PUBS

145
Q

_____ carries a higher procedure related risk than either amniocentesis or CVS.

A

PUBS

146
Q

a technique involving insertion of a needle through the vagina into the extra-amniotic cavity as early as 6 weeks for investigaion of early fetal physiology and pathophysiology

A

coelocentesis

147
Q

disadvantages of coelecentesis

A

coelomich cells difficult to culture
nucal lucency and tab accuracy
procedure safety

148
Q

the sampling of fluid from the posterior cul-de-sac to differentiate types of effusions such as clear fluid versus blood or pus

A

culdocentesis

149
Q

an endovaginal procedure where a catheter is inserted and contrast is injected to evaluate endometrial polyps, Asherman Syndrome, and tubal patency

A

hysterosonosalpingography

150
Q

fucntioning layer of the endometrium in the gravid woman

A

decidua

151
Q

the area between the myometrium and the placenta

A

retroplacental

152
Q

the mucous tissue surrounding the umbilical cord

A

Wharton jelly

153
Q

The _____ connects tot he fetus and the placenta, and it serves as a lifeline of the fetus

A

umbilical cord

154
Q

The umbilical cord is made up of 3 vessels, 2 _____ and 1 ____

A

arteries
vein

155
Q

The arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the ____ to the _____

A

fetus
placenta

156
Q

The vein brings dexygenated blood back from the ____ to the _____

A

placenta
fetus

157
Q

The umbilical cord originates from the fusion of the ______ and ______ at approximately 7 weeks gestation.

A

yolk sac stalk
omphalomesenteric duct

158
Q

umbilical cord abnormalities include:

A

cord insertion
knots
nuchal cord
single umbilical artery
prolapse/vasa previa

159
Q

The placenta is composed of a _____ portion and a _____ portion.

A

maternal
fetal

160
Q

The maternal portion of the placenta arises from the ______

A

endometrium

161
Q

The fetal portion of the placenta arises from a section of the ______

A

chorionic sac

162
Q

The _____ is the link between the mother and the fetus

A

placenta

163
Q

Normal cord insertion into the placenta is approximately in the ______ portion

A

central

164
Q
A
165
Q

cord insertions near the margin

A

battledore placenta

166
Q

Cord insertion below the edge of the placenta

A

velamentous insertion

167
Q

Placental thickness greater than __ cm prior to 24 weeks gestation is considred abnormal

A

4

168
Q

Placental thickness ____ with gestational age

A

increases

169
Q

The placenta is responsible for the ____, ____, and ____ functions of the fetus

A

nutritive
respiratory
excretory

170
Q

Placental grading is used to describe the appearance of the placenta based on the amount of ______

A

placental calcifications

171
Q

Calcifications are rarely seen before ___ weeks gestation

A

37

172
Q

Placental thinning of <2cm can be seen in:

A

maternal hypertension
preeclampsia
placental infarctions
intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)

172
Q

Thick placentas of greater than __ cm may be nonspecific and are usually associated with a normal outcome

A

4

172
Q

Easrly maturation of the placenta is associated with _____

A

hypertension

172
Q

the presence of mone or more accessory lobes

A

succenturiate

173
Q

ring-shaped placenta that attaches circumferentially to the myometrium

A

annular placenta

174
Q

a placented with a thickened rolled chorio amniotic membrane

A

circumvallate placenta

175
Q

abnormal placenta locations

A

placenta previa
low lying placenta

176
Q

Placenta is in the lower part of the uterus coving the internal os

A

placenta previa

176
Q

A9n) _______ can mimic placenta previa

A

overfull bladder

177
Q

Placental attachment disorders

A

placental accreta
placenta increta
placenta percreta

177
Q

Risk factors for placenta previa

A

advanced maternal age
previous c section
multiple gestations
previous elective abortions
smoking
cocaine use
multiparity

178
Q

chorionic villi adhere directly to but do not invade the myometrium

A

placental accreta

179
Q

Most common location of placental accreta

A

lower uterine segment

180
Q

chorionic villi invade the myometrium

A

placenta increta

181
Q

chorionic villi invade through the myometriumchorionic villi invade through the myometrium into the uterine serosa and potentially into the surrounding tissue

A

placenta percreta

182
Q

benign vascular malformation of the placenta arising from the primitive chorionic mesenchyme

A

chorioangioma

183
Q

very rare and are usually benign but can also be highly malignant

A

teratoma

184
Q

the premature separation of all or part of the placenta from the myometrium

A

placental abruption

185
Q

Placental abruption is classified as:

A

marginal separation
partial separation
complete separation

186
Q

the designation given to several disorders arising from either normal or abnormal fertilization of an ovum, resulting in neoplastic changes in the tropholblastic elements of a developing blastocyst

A

gestational trophoblastic disease

187
Q

characterized by chorionic villi that are markedly hydropic and swollen, and proliferation of the trophoblast cell resulting in excessive production of beta-human chorionic gonadotropin levels

A

complete or partial hydatidform mole

188
Q

Similar to invasive moles and are capable of metastaziing. 50% arise after a molar pregnancy

A

choriocarcinoma

189
Q

rare placental vascular anomaly characterizzed by mesenchymal stem villous hyperplasia

A

placental mesenchymal disease (PMD)

190
Q

umbilical jcor dabnormalities

A

vessel number
persistent right umbilical vein
umbilical vein varix
body stalk
limb body wall complexs
abnormal insertion site
umbilical cord cyst
abnormal cord posotion

191
Q

right umbilical (portal) vein rather than the left side remains open

A

persistent right umbilical vein

192
Q

focal dilation of the umbilical vein

A

umbilical vein varix

193
Q

complete absence of the umbilical cord

A

body stalk

194
Q

very short cord

A

limb body wall complex

195
Q

cord insertion within 1 cm of the margin

A

Marginal (battledore) placenta

196
Q

umbilical vessels separate and course between the amnion and chorion

A

velamentous cord insertion

197
Q

some of the velamentous fetal vessels run in the lower uterine segment unprotected by Wharton jelly. They run over or near the region of the insneral os

A

vasa previa

198
Q

echolucent area within the umbilical cord with the yolk sac defined as a separate structure

A

umbilical cord cyst

199
Q

cord is wrapped around the neck of the fetusq

A

nuchal cord

200
Q

Cord devliers before the fetus

A

prolapse cord

201
Q

Umbilical cysts are defined as _____ or _____

A

true cysts
pseudocysts

202
Q

_____ have no increased risk of choromosomal anomalies. They are usually located near the cord insertion of the fetal abdomen

A

true cyst

203
Q

_____ have epithelia lining and represent localized edema of the Wharton jelly or aneurysm of an umbilical bein or artery; show positive association to structural and chromosomal defects

A

pseduocysts

204
Q

Umbilical cord cyst may compress blood vessels and impair umbilical circulation causeing ______ of the fetus.

A

intrauterine demis

205
Q

Conditions associated with mechanical vascular obstruction or compression of the umbilical cord vessels

A

long umbilical cord
narrow cord with diminished Wharton jelly
stricture
nucal body cords
true knots of the umbilical cord
umbilical prolapse
abnormal umbilical cord insertion

206
Q

A long umbilical cord measures greater than

A

55 cm

207
Q

Abnormal umbilical cord insertions

A

velamentous cord insertion
vasa previa
succenturiate lobe

208
Q

Maternal infections associated with TORCH

A

toxoplasmosis, syphilis, hydrocephalus, varicella-zoster, hydrencephaly, parvovirus B19, rubella, cytomegalovirus, herpes

209
Q

TORCH

A

toxoplasmosis
other
rubella
cytomegalovirus
herpes

210
Q

_______ is the most common maternal disorder

A

diabetes mellitus

210
Q

insulin dependent, juvenile onset diabetes

A

type I

211
Q

Non-insulin dependent, adult onset diabetes

A

Type II

212
Q

Diabetes diagnosed for the first time during pregnancy

A

gestational

213
Q

Congenital anomalies in infants of diabetic mothers

A

skeletal anomalies
central nervous system anomalies
cardiac anomalies
renal anomalies
gastrointestinal anomalies

214
Q

The glucose tolerance test is performed between weeks __ and ___

A

24
28

214
Q

The development of maternal antibodies to the surface antigens of the fetal red blood cells

A

Rh Isoimmunization

215
Q

Rh isoimmunization is associated with ______

A

thick placenta

216
Q

a condition characterized by rapid destruction of the fetal red blood cells

A

erythroblastosis fetalis

217
Q

When a Rh-negative mother carries a Rh positive fetus it can result in fluid overload known as _____

A

immune fetal hydrops

218
Q

________ prevents Rhisoimmunization

A

RhoGAM injection

219
Q

inherited disorder, affects the hemoglobin molecule in the blood

A

sickle cell disease

220
Q

caused by premature red blood cell death

A

anemia

221
Q

signs of sickle cell disease

A

fetal death
short femurs
IUGR
increased umbilical and uterine artery S/D ratio

222
Q

high blood pressure during pregnancy and usually resolves upon partuition

A

pregnancy induced hypertension

223
Q

Complications of hypertension during pregnancy

A

toxemia (preeclampsia)
hypertension
proteinuria edema

224
Q

consists of all the complications of preeclampia and seizures or coma

A

eclampsia

225
Q

Hypertension during pregnancy may also occur with the development of ______

A

toxemia

226
Q

the term used to describe both 3D and 4D imaging

A

volume ultrasound

227
Q

the automatic or manual acquisition and display of a series of 2D ultrasound

A

3D ultrasound

228
Q

the continuously updated display of volume information, also known as real time of live 3D ultrasound

A

4D ultrasound

229
Q

smallest unit of a 2D image

A

pixel

230
Q

smallest unit of a 3D image

A

voxel

231
Q

the tool used to measure the volume of an object such as an ovarian cyst

A

VOCAL

232
Q

the technique used to acquire and display a volume data set of the fetal heart

A

STIC

233
Q

the display of multiple planes at 90 degrees to each other

A

orthogonal

234
Q

where the orthogonal planes interset on a 3D image

A

reference dot

235
Q

display of parallel images similiar to CT and MRI

A

tomographic imaging

236
Q

Render modes in 3D/4D ultrasound

A

surface rendering
threshold
eraser or scalpel
maximum, skeletal, or xray, inversion/minimum mode, glass body or transparency, VOCAL

237
Q

removes unwanted structures

A

eraser or scalpel

238
Q

displays boney structures

A

maximum, skeletal, or X-ray mode

239
Q

demonstrates fluid filled structures

A

inversion/minimum modes

240
Q

used in conjunction with with power Doppler

A

glass body or transparency

241
Q

VOCAL

A

virtual organ computer aided analysis

242
Q

determines how smooth a surface appears

A

surface smooth

243
Q

adds texture to enhance details

A

surface texture

244
Q

displays the structure as if its illuminated by light

A

gradient light

245
Q

_____ is considered static

A

3D ultrasound

246
Q

The ultrasound transducer makes a single sweep through the area of interest and the obtained volume is stored and viewed

A

3D ultrasound

247
Q

live or real time 3D

A

4D ultrasound

248
Q

the transducer sweeps back and forth continuously acquiring volume data

A

4D ultrasound

249
Q

allows the fetus to move freely in the amniotic cavity
maintains intrauterine temperature
protects developing fetus from injury

A

amniotic fluid

250
Q

Amniotic fluid abnormalities may be an indirect sign of an underlying anomaly such as:

A

neural tube defect
gastrointestinal disorder

251
Q

The ______ forms early in life is filled with amniotic fluid

A

amniotic cavity

252
Q

Amniotic fluid is produced by:

A

umbilical cord
the membranes
the lungs
skin
kidneys

253
Q

The amount of amniotic fluid is regulated by:

A

fluid exchange within the lungs
production of fluid
removal of fluid by swallowing
membranes and cord

254
Q

Fetal production or urine and the ability to swallow begins between __ and __ weeks gestation

A

8
11

255
Q

Normal AFI correlates with an AFI of __-__ cm/

A

10
20

256
Q

Low values of AFI

A

5-10 cm

257
Q

Increased amniotic fluid

A

20-24 cm

258
Q

decreased amniotic fluid

A

oligohydramnios

259
Q

_______ is associated with infantile polycystic kidney disease, renal agenesis, dysplastic kidneys, chromosomal abnormalities

A

oligohydramnios

260
Q

increased amniotic fluid

A

polyhydramnios

261
Q

<5 cm with largest pocket measuring 2cm or less

A

oligohydramnios

262
Q

> 24 cm with the largest vertical pocket measuring 8 cm or more

A

polyhydramnios

263
Q

AFV greater than 2000 mL

A

polyhydramnios

264
Q

_______ is associated with cystic hygroma, coarction of the aorta, and anencephaly

A

polyhydramnios

265
Q

the cause of various fetal malformations involving limbs, the craniofacial region and the trunk

A

amniotic band syndrome

266
Q

consist of multiple fibrous strands of amnion that develop in utero that may entangle in fetal parts to cause malformations and amputations

A

amniotic band syndrome

267
Q

non-floating bands crossing through the amniotic cavity

A

amniotic sheets

268
Q

Amniotic sheets are _____ than amniotic bands

A

thicker

269
Q

the disparity between amounts of serous fluid being produced and absorbed. It leads to accumulation of fluid or edema within the fetus that can be represented by: pleural effusion, ascites, cardiac effusion, skin edema, anasarca

A

hydrops

270
Q

other fetal findings identified with _____ include: enlarged umbilical cord, polyhydramnios, and placental edema and enlarged liver and spleen

A

hydrops