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OB 1 > Ob book review questions > Flashcards

Ob book review questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a computerized system that stores patient information for the complete patient record?
A. Radiology information system
B. Hospital information system
C. Picture arching and communication system
D. Modality worklist

A

B

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2
Q

How many live pregnancies has a patient had with the following obstetric coding?
G4 P3 A0 T3

A

4

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3
Q

Which of the following indicates a patient who had a twin pregnancy?
A. G3P3A0T4
B. G3P3A2T2
C. G1P0A0T0
D. G2P2A2T0

A

A

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4
Q

Which of the following defines an exam protocol?
A. Order in which images are obtained
B. Images required for a complete study
C. Sonographic examination
D. Obtaining a patient history

A

B

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5
Q

What is the landmark of an adequately filled bladder for a gynecologic examination?

A

Uterine Fundus

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6
Q

Triplex imaging uses which of the following image modes?
A. Panoramic, 2D, chroma
B. 2D, spectral Doppler
C. 3D, color, and spectral Doppler
D. 2D, spectral, and color Doppler

A

D

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7
Q

Select the transducer that would be the best selection to image a thin patient.
A. 7.5 MHz linear
B. 5.0 MHz curved linear
C. 2.5 MHz curved linear
D. 10 MHz sector

A

B

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8
Q

Select the current gold standard for sonographer certification in the United States.
A. AIUM
B. ARRT
C. CCI
D. ARDMS

A

D

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9
Q

Select the system which is concurrent with the urinary system.
A. Cardiac
B. Neural
C. Ocular
D. Reproductive

A

D

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10
Q

What fetal feature is involved in Carnegie embryo staging?

A

Morphology

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11
Q

In a patient with unilateral hematocolpos, what organ system would be imaged?

A

Renal

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12
Q

How long does the pre-embryonic stage last?

A

1-3 weeks

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13
Q

When do germ cells migrate from the yolk sac to the embryo?

A

Carnegie stage 17

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14
Q

Select the structure that becomes the embryonic kidneys.
A. Gonadal cords
B. Allantois
C. Mesonephros
D. Ectoderm

A

C

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15
Q

What is another term for the paramesonephric ducts?

A

Müllerian ducts

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16
Q

What structure is a transverse fold of the peritoneum?

A

Broad ligament

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17
Q

Which segment of the vagina does the Urogenital sinus form? The lower vagina is formed by the:

A

Lower

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18
Q

Select the precursor to the labia minora.
A. Mons pubis
B. Labioscrotal folds
C. Genital tubercle
D. Frenulum

A

C

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19
Q

Select the benefit of obtaining previous obstetric sonographic studies.
A. Decreases diagnostic errors
B. Reduces scan time
C. Ensures exam continuity
D. Allows growth trending

A

D

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20
Q

The main idea behind the ALARA principle is to reduce which of the following?
A. Operating costs
B. Equipment wear and tear
C. Patient fetal/maternal bonding time
D. Exposure to ultrasound energy

A

D

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21
Q

Select the normal chromosome number for a sperm.
A. 46XY or 46XX
B. 22X or 22Y
C. 23XO
D. 46XXY

A

B

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22
Q

Where does fertilization occur?

A

Fallopian tube

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23
Q

What hormone stimulates ovarian follicle maturation?

A

FSH

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24
Q

Select the hormone released by the corpus luteum.
A. Progesterone
B. HcG
C. Estrogen
D. Free beta-hcG

A

A

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25
Q

Name the single diploid cell that is the result of fertilization

A

Zygote

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26
Q

Identify the blastocyst layer that eventually develops into the embryo,

A

Embryoblast

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27
Q

What process allows for implantation of the conceptus into the endometrium?

A

Decidualization

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28
Q

What is the first structure visualized within the gestational sac?

A

Yolk sac

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29
Q

Name the structure that connects the fetal bladder to the Allantois.

A

Urachus

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30
Q

Select the gestational age when all the rudimentary forms of organs and structures are in place.
A. Carnegie stage 20
B. 11 weeks
C. 5 weeks
D. Carnegie stage 11

A

B

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31
Q

Which of the following are projections from the blastocyst that eventually becomes the placenta?
A. Chorionic villi
B. Chorion laeve
C. Embryonic ectoderm
D. Decidua basalis

A

A

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32
Q

Choose the qualitative pregnancy test.
A. Amniotic fluid
B. Serum
C. Urine
D. Beta-hCG

A

C

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33
Q

Which of the following is the failure of a pregnancy to develop?
A. Anembryonic
B. Blighted ovum
C. Inevitable abortion
D. Abortion

A

A

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34
Q

Which term describes an abnormally slow heart rate?

A

Bradycardia

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35
Q

Select the term describing an abnormal triploidy chromosomal number, fetus, and placenta

A

Partial hydatidform mole

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36
Q

Sonographic appearance of an inevitable abortion

A

Empty low lying gestational sac and an open cervix

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37
Q

During the sonographic examination on a first trimester pregnancy, a crescent shaped complex fluid collection images between the gestational sac and uterus. What is the most likely differential?

A

Subchorionic hemorrhage

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38
Q

How does a second trimester hydatid form mole image during the sonographic examination?

A

Large soft tissue mass of low to moderate amplitude echoes filling the uterine cavity and containing fluid filled space

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39
Q

Which of the following central nervous system malformations identifiable in the first trimester?
A. Omphacele
B. Cystic hygroma
C. Spina Bifida
D. Ectopia cordis

A

C

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40
Q

Define hematocolpos.

A

accumulation of menstrual blood in the vagina resulting from a lower vaginal obstruction or imperforate hymen.

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41
Q

Which of the following corrects Mullerian duct malformation?
a. metroplasty
b. apoptosis
c. Bc12 gene suppresion
d. paramesonephric removal

A

d

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42
Q

Which of the following results in one vagina, two cervices, and two uterine horns?
a. bicornuate uterus
b. arcuate uterus
c. uterus bicornis bicollis
d. uterus didelphys

A

c

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43
Q

Which of the following is a Class III mullerian duct anomaly?
a. noncommunicating unicornuate uterus
b. uterine hypoplasia
c. uterus didelphys
d. arcuate uterus

A

c

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44
Q

Select the sonographic appearance in a patient with hydrocolpos?
a. hematocolpos or hematometrocolpos
b. pear-shaped mass without vaginal echoes adjacent and posterior to the bladder
c. enlarged vagina
d. anechoic small mass in anterolateral vagina

A

b

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45
Q

During pregnancy, which malformation results in eccentric implantation of the gestational sac?

A

bicornuate uterus

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46
Q

Which term describes forward tiliting of the uterus?

A

anteverted

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47
Q

The term for describing the absence of menstruation

A

amenorrhea

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48
Q

Which structure secretes estrogen?
a. Graafian follicle
b. Theca externa
c. Theca interna
d. Corpus luteum

A

c

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49
Q

The hormone that thickens the endometrium

A

progesterone

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50
Q

Which structure makes up most of the uterine broad ligament?

A

mesometrium

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51
Q

Define negative feedback

A

a system of glands and cells that produce hormones released directly into the circulatory system

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52
Q

Which of the following is the muscular inner layer of the uterus?
a. endometrium
b. mesometrium
c. perimetrium
d. myometrium

A

d

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53
Q

The term describing the top portion of the uterus

A

fundus

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54
Q

The “control center” of the endocrine system

A

hypothalamus

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55
Q

What is secreted from the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland?

A

Antidiuretic hormone

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56
Q

Which endocrine gland promotes follicular growth and development?

A

anterior pituitary gland

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57
Q

What hormone is secreted by the hypothalamus that results in release of FSH

A

GnRH

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58
Q

What hormone stops with an increase in progesterone and a negative feedback loop?

A

LH

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59
Q

What is the physiological response to rising estrogen levels?

A

production of cervical mucus

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60
Q

Which of the following is present in the postmenopausal woman?
a. estrogen
b. estradiol
c. estrone
d. estriol

A

c

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61
Q

What is the function of progesterone?

A

Blocks development of new follicles

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62
Q

Which phase of the ovarian cycle begins with the first day of menstrual bleeding?

A

follicular phase

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63
Q

What produces human chorionic gonadotropin early in pregnancy?

A

cells surrounding the zygote

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64
Q

Identify the potential space located between the uterus and urinary bladder/

A

anterior cul-de-sac

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65
Q

What tissues replaces the corpus luteum?

A

corpora albicantia

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66
Q

Define linea terminalis

A

line drawn from the pubic crest to the arcuate line dividing the true and false pelvis

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67
Q

Ipsilateraly anatomy

A

on the same side of the body

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68
Q

Select the organ found in the true pelvis.
a. ileum
b. sigmoid colon
c. ovaries
d. right kidney

A

c

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69
Q

Select the muscle located in the false pelvis.
a. iliacus
b. psoas minor
c. levator ani
d. obturator internus

A

a

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70
Q

Which variant has the uterus displaced to the right?

A

dextoposition

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71
Q

Select the technical parameter, which increases image detail during the endovaginal exam.

A

decrease depth

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72
Q

Select the result of using a high-power output level during a transabdominal pelvic exam.

A

high-power output level

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73
Q

Inferior portion of the uterus

A

cervix

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74
Q

Which ligament attaches the cervix to the sacrum?

A

cardinal ligaments

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75
Q

Which organ is entirely inside the peritoneal sac?
a. fallopian tubes
b. ovary
c. sigmoid
d. uterus

A

b

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76
Q

Which ligament anchors the posterior surface of the ovary?

A

mesovarium

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77
Q

Which term describes the abnormal connection between veins and arteries?

A

arteriovenous malformation

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78
Q

This Doppler measurement uses the peak systolic velocity minus peak diastole divided by the mean.

A

pulsatility index

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79
Q

When does the secretory phase occur?

A

15 to 28 days

80
Q

Which vessel couse in the uterine periphery?

A

arcuate vessels

81
Q

Where should the sonographer obtain the uterine vein Doppler?

A

adjacent to the uterine artery

82
Q

Normal ovarian follicular phase spectral Doppler flow velocity

A

0.92 +/- 0.08

83
Q

Abnormal ovarian artery spectral Doppler finding

A

high diastolic flow

84
Q

Which of the following is a qualitiative Doppler method?
a. Color Doppler
b. Systolic/Diastolic ratio
c. Resistance index
d. pulsatility index

A

a

85
Q

Definition of high-resistance arterial flow

A

High A/B ratio

86
Q

Suboptimal angle of incidence to obtain a spectral tracing

A

90 degrees

87
Q

What color indicatres flow away from the transducer/

A

blue

88
Q

Where do the arcuate arteries originate?

A

uterine artery

89
Q

Normal measurement for the uterine artery in the nongravid patient

A

<5 mm

90
Q

Which of the following describes color Doppler flow found surrounding the corpus luteal cyst.
a. 0.88 +/- 0.05 cm/sec
b. 0.44 +/- 0.08 cm/sec
c. increased peripheral vascularty
d. low-resistance flow

A

c

91
Q

What is the result of ovarian vein variscosities?

A

pelvic congestion

92
Q

the term describing the loss of primordial germ cells in the embryonic gonads.

A

gonadal dysgenesis

93
Q

Where does a Rokitansky nodule develop?

A

at the thickened dermoid cyst wall

94
Q

What is the cause for a T shaped uterus?

A

DES

95
Q

Identify the method that reduces image motion.

A

decrease frame rate

96
Q

What is the approximate size of an ovary in an 8 year old?

A

1.2 to 2.1 cm ^3 (+/- 0.05)

97
Q

Sonographic findings for a hemorrhagic ovarian cyst.

A

thick-walled or septated cyst, homogeneous internal low-level echoes

98
Q

Select the best method to determine whether an ovary is normal in size in the pediatric patient.
a. average two orthogonal measurements
b. use the L x W x H
c. calculate a volume
d. use the surface-rendering mode in a 3D volume

A

c

99
Q

What is the most common benign lesion of the vagina in the pediatric patient?

A

Gartner’s duct cyst

100
Q

Sonographic appearance of hydrocolpos in the pediatric patient?

A

cystic, pear-shaped mass in the midline

101
Q

What is the most common pelvic finding in the pediatric population?

A

ovarian cyst

102
Q

Separation of the myometrium at a scar location

A

uterine dehiscence

103
Q

infrequent ovulation,

A

oligoanovulation

104
Q

Genetically abnormal pregnancy that develops into a grape-like mass within the uterus

A

hydatidform mole

105
Q

Fluid filled mass located in the anterolateral wall of the vagina

A

Gartner’s duct cyst

106
Q

Focal area of increased echogenicity within the endometrium

A

endometrial polyps

107
Q

Nonphysiological cyst

A

peritoneal inclusion

108
Q

Congenital condition associated with polycystic ovaries

A

lipatrophic diabetes

109
Q

Sonographic appearance of a serous cystadenoma

A

multiloculated, septated cyst with papillary projections

110
Q

A 30 year old woman presents to the emergency department for a pelvic examination with a history of Cushing syndrome, scant to no menses. During the sonographic examination, a unilateral echogenic mass images on her right ovary. What is the most likely differential for these findings?

A

Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor

111
Q

A 45 year old woman presents to the emergency department with an acute onset of pain with bloating and a palpable mass. During the sonographic examination, a large, multiseptate tumor with regular wall thickness images. The tumor appears fixed within large amounts of abdominal fluid. What is the most likely differential for these findings?

A

mucinous cystadenoma

112
Q

Least common benign ovarian tumor

A

Brenner tumor

113
Q

Identify the sonographic appearance of the myometrium in the patient with uterine dehhiscence.

A

1.5 mm lower uterine segment

114
Q

Hypoechogfenic myometrial masses with a whorled internal architecture describe:

A

leiomyoma

115
Q

A patient presents complaining of right lower quadrant pain, nausea, and fever. Sonographic imaging demonstrates a complex mass with dirty shadowing, fluid in the right pericolic gutter, and a noncompressible bulls-eye structure without a blind end. What is the most likely cause for this finding?

A

appendiceal abscess

116
Q

A 30 year old patient presents with complaints of right lower pain, nausea, and vomiting. Her clinician palpated a large, tender ovary on the right side. Pregnancy test is pending. The sonographic examination revealed a large, complex mass on the ovary. What step should the sonographer take to aid in diagnosis?

A

check for flow with Doppler

117
Q

A 32 year old presents to the emergency department with a history of infertility, lack of periods, and the development of hirsutism. The sonographic examination revealed bilateral large ovaries with mulitple, small peripheral cysts. What is the most likely cause for this finding?

A

PCOS

118
Q

Most common gynecological malignancy occurring in developed countries.

A

endometrial carcinoma

119
Q

Risk factor associated with endometrial cancer

A

obesity

120
Q

Tamoxifen therapy for breast cancer increases the risk of ____.

A

endometrial carcinoma

121
Q

Staging of endometrial carcinoma includes which of the following?
a. involvment of the vagina
b. extension into the breast lymph nodes
c. ethnicity
d. the depth of the myometrial invasion

A

d

122
Q

What is the differential for sonographic findings of hematometra or hydrometra in a 60 year old female patient.

A

endometrial carcinoma

123
Q

A rapid increase in a uterine mass in a postmenopausal woman raisese suspicion for:

A

leiomyosarcoma carcinoma

124
Q

Breakthrough bleeding is a symptom of _____ cancer.

A

endometrial

125
Q

DES not only results in uterine malformations but also increases the risk of _____ cancer.

A

cervical

126
Q

Karyotype seen with a complete mole

A

46XX

127
Q

The lack of chorionic villi is characteristic of a(n):

A

choriocarcinoma

128
Q

Ovarian cyst which occurs in the first trimester of pregnancy

A

corpus lutein

129
Q

______ is used to treat trophoblastic disease.

A

methotrexate

130
Q

Sonographic finding of cervical cancer

A

multiple cystic areas within a solid mass

131
Q

What is a tumor marker for carcinomas of embryonic origin?

A

AFP

132
Q

Identify the malignant ovarian tumor arising from undifferentiated germ cells.

A

Dysgerminoma

133
Q

What describes the triad of pleural effusion, ascites, and an ovarian mass?

A

Meigs syndrome

134
Q

Risk factor for developing ovarian cancer

A

nullipariry

135
Q

Which neoplasm is associated with heredity site-specific ovarian cancer?

A

epithelial ovarian cancer

136
Q

Most common malignant ovarian cancer

A

mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

137
Q

A 16 year old presents to the emergency department because of a positive urine pregnancy test. She indicates she is not sexually active but has missed periods and has noticed an increase in abdominal girth. During the sonographic examination, a 20 cm solid mass with cystic areas images outside the uterus. What is the most likely cause for these findings?

A

endodermal sinus tumor

138
Q

How does ovarian cancer spread outside the pelvis?

A

lymphatic spread

139
Q

painful intercourse

A

dyspareunia

140
Q

The presence of endometrial glands within the myometrium

A

adenomyosis

141
Q

infection of the peritoneum

A

peritonitis

142
Q

The foul smelling vaginal discharge seen with PID

A

odorous lochia

143
Q

the inability to identify the ovary and tube due to infection or adhesions

A

tubo-ovarian complex

144
Q

Etiology for endometriosis

A

retrograde menstruation

145
Q

diffuse imflammation of the upper genital tract

A

PID

146
Q

How does the fallopian tube image with chronic pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

hydrosalpinx

147
Q

Sonographic finding of adenomyosis

A

heterogeneous myometrium

148
Q

During sonographic examination, a complex tubular structure images to the right of the uterus. What is the most likely differential for this finding?

A

pyosalpinx

149
Q

A 35 year old patient presents to the emergency department with reports of pain with defecation and intercourse, infertility, and painful periods. This image demonstrates a complex mass on the right ovary. Select the most likely differential for this finding.

A

endometrioma

150
Q

A 40 year old woman is G3P3A0 presents with complaints of dysmenorrhea. Upon clinical examination, she complained of a tender uterus. Select the differential for the patient symptoms and imaging findings.

A

adenomyosis

151
Q

What is the product of conception called that is 2 days after fertilization?

A

cleavage stage embryo

152
Q

Which portion of the menstrual cycle does the progesterone levels increase resulting in endometrial thickening?

A

secretory phase

153
Q

What occurs in the ovarian follicular phase as FSH levels increase?

A

ovarian follicle maturation

154
Q

What type of fertilization occurs outside the body?

A

in vitro fertilization

155
Q

Most common female cause of infertility

A

tubal pathology

156
Q

tubal cause for infertility

A

adhesions

157
Q

What formula calculates the mean follicular diameter?

A

L + H + W /3

158
Q

The benefit of obtaining previous obstetric sonographic studies

A

allows growth trending

159
Q

Normal chromosome number for a sperm

A

22X or 22Y

160
Q

Where does fertilization occur?

A

fallopian tube

161
Q

What hormone stimulates ovarian follicle maturation?

A

FSH

162
Q

Hormone released by the corpus luteum

A

progesterone

163
Q

Name the single diploid cell that is the result of fertilization

A

zygote

164
Q

Identify the blastocyst layer that eventually develops into the embryo

A

embryoblast

165
Q

What process allows for implantation of the conceptus into the endometrium?

A

decidualization

166
Q

What is the first structure visualized within the gestational sac?

A

yolk sac

167
Q

Name the structure that connects the fetal bladder to the allantois

A

urachus

168
Q

Gestational age when all the rudimentary forms of organs and structures are in place

A

11 weeks

169
Q

Projections from the blastocyst that eventually becomes the placenta

A

chorionic villi

170
Q

Qualitative pregnancy test

A

urine

171
Q

Failure of a pregnancy to develop

A

anembryonic

172
Q

abnormally slow heart rate

A

bradycardia

173
Q

abnormaly triploidy chromosomal number, fetus, and placenta

A

partial hydatadidform mole

174
Q

sonographic appearance of an inevitable abortion

A

empty low-lying gestational sac and an open cervic

175
Q

During the sonographic examination on a first-trimester pregnancy, a crescent shaped complex fluid collection images between the gestational sac and uterus. What is the most likely differential?

A

subchorionic hemorrhage

176
Q

How does a second trimester hydatidform mole image during the sonographic examination?

A

large soft tissue mass of low- to moderate-amplitude echoes filling the uterine cavity and containing fluid-filled spaces

177
Q

Which of the following central nervous system malformations is identifiable in the first trimester?
a. ectopia cordis
b. cystic hygroma
c. omphalocele
d. spina bifida

A

d

178
Q

Select the risk factor for an ectopic implantation of a pregnancy.
a. young maternal age
b. PID
c. ovarian atrophy
d. prior cervical surgery

A

b

179
Q

Beta-hCG levels plateau at ____ weeks.

A

9-11

180
Q

Describe the discriminatory cutoff for beta-hCG

A

the level when an embryo visualizes on ultrasound

181
Q

Most common location for an ectopic pregnacny

A

fallopian tube

182
Q

Which of the following types of ectopic pregnancy has myometrium surrounding the pregnancy?
a. cornual
b. abdominal
c. intramural
d. interstitial

A

d

183
Q

Which of the following types of ectopic pregnancy has an implantation site within the myometrium?
a. abdominal
b. heterotopic
c. interstitial
d. intramural

A

df

184
Q

Definitive sonographic finding with an ectopic pregnancy

A

embryonic cardiac activity outside the uterus

185
Q

Identify the sonographic finding representing the decidual reaction surrounding the normal IUP?

A

double decidual sign

186
Q

What type of pregnancy is indicated by movement of an hourglass-shaped gestational sac with pressure from the endovaginal transducer?

A

pending miscarriage

187
Q

A 24 year old, G3P1A1, presents to the emergency department with left lower quadrant pain. Her beta-hCG is 2000, and she is 8 weeks by LMP. The sonographer images a fluid collection within the endometrial canal. The left ovary demonstrates increased color Doppler flow in a ring-like pattern. What is the most likely differential for this patient history and sonographic findings?

A

ectopic pregnancy

188
Q

Maternal side of the placenta

A

decidua basalis

189
Q

What impact can maternal disease have on placenta?

A

change in size

190
Q

A patient presents for routine second-trimester examination. What approach would you start to evaluate anterior placenta?

A

transperineal

191
Q

Placental change seen with gestational diabetes

A

delayed placental maturation

192
Q

Fetal cause for a placenta greater than 5 cm

A

hydrops

193
Q

definition for placenta increta

A

myometrium partially invaded by the chorionic villi

194
Q

Which of the following is a differential for an interuterine septation?
a. synechia
b. succenturiate lobe
c. placental lakes
d. septal cyst

A

a

195
Q

Placental type that has the most villi infiltration into the myomentrium

A

percreta

196
Q

A 30 year old, G3P1A1, patient presents to the emergency department with reports of pain and bleeding after a motor vehicle accident. She is considered high risk because of her heavy smoking, and sonographic examination demonstrates she is 25 weeks. What is the most likely cause for the sonographic finding?

A

placental abruption

197
Q
A

OB 1 (16 decks)

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