Chapter 39: 3D and 4D Imaging in Obstetrics and Gynecology Flashcards

1
Q

imaging technology involving the automatic or manual acquisition and display of a series of 2D images

A

3D ultrasound

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2
Q

collection of acquired 2D images

A

3D volume or volume data set

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3
Q

continuously updated display of volume information; also known as real-time 3D ultrasound and live 3D ultrasound

A

4D imaging

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4
Q

The acquisition plane of the multiplanar reconstruction (MPR) display, synonymous to the X plane

A

A plane

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5
Q

The place for the acquired data set, usually the A plane MPR

A

Acquisition plane

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6
Q

The MPR placed 90 degrees to the acquisition plane; synonymous to the Y plane; shows the volume acquisition angle

A

B plane

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7
Q

Coronal plane 90 degrees to the A plane and transmit beam; 2D imaging does not allow imaging on this reconstituted plane; synonymous to the Z plane

A

C plane

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8
Q

reduction of elimination of weak, soft-tissue echoes to highlight bony structure

A

maximum mode

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9
Q

method to remove echoes from fluid-filled structures rendering them black on the MPR

A

minimum mode

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10
Q

display algorithm for viewing more than one plane simultaneously, frequently, sagittal, transverse, and coronal planes that are 90 degrees to each other, also known as sectional planes or orthogonal planes

A

multiplanar reconstruction (MPR)

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11
Q

planes that are always at right angles ( 90 degrees to each other); typically sagittal, transverse, and coronal

A

orthogonal planes

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12
Q

The median cleft between the nose and upper lip

A

philtrym

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13
Q

the smallest unit of a 2D image; has a length and height

A

pixel

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14
Q

point where all three orthogonal planes intersect within the volume; depicts the same anatomic point in three orthogonal planes; also called the marker dot

A

reference dot

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15
Q

Area of data acquisition for the 3D/4D volume

A

Region of Interest

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16
Q

Relating to distance or position

A

spatial

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17
Q

technique used to acquire and display a volume data set of the fetal heart; the volume displays as a 4D cine sequence of the beating heart

A

spatiotemporal image correlation (STIC)

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18
Q

3D rendering mode that displays the surface of skin of the body without displaying the underlying anatomy

A

surface rendering

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19
Q

The distance the transducer moves during acquisition

A

sweep

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20
Q

relating to time

A

temporal

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21
Q

filter used to elimnate or add low-level echoes

A

threshold

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22
Q

display format in which the data are viewed as a series of parallel tomographic images similiar to the display method; traditionally used in computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging

A

tomographic ultrasound imaging

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23
Q

Determines whether the voxels will be more or less see-through

A

transparency

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24
Q

defines information contained within the volume rendering

A

volume of interest or render box

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25
Q

term used to describe both 3D and 4D imaging

A

volume ultrasoundsmallest u

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26
Q

nit of a 3D volume containing a volume of pixels. Consisting of a length, width, and depth

A

voxel

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27
Q

rotates the MPR or volume rendering horizontally, similar to the letter “x” flipping over top to bottom repeatedly

A

x-axis

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28
Q

Rotates the MPR or volume rendering vertically. Similar to the letter “y” spinning right to left in a circular pattern on its stem

A

Y-axis

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29
Q

Rocks or rotates the MPR or volume rendering clockwise or counterclockwise; rotates around a central point

A

z-axis

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30
Q

Clinical applications of 3D/4D in Gynecology

A

congenital uterine anomalies
IUD location
endometrial lesions
determining fibroid location and number
origin of adnexal masses
saline infused hysterosalpingography
infertility evaluation
evaluation of the pelvic floor

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31
Q

moves the image or volume horizontally around the reference dot

A

x-axis

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32
Q

moves the image or volume vertically around the reference dot

A

y-axis

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33
Q

rotates clockwise and counterclockwise

A

z-axis

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34
Q

Clinical applications of 3D/4D in Obstetrics

A

crown-rump volumes
first trimester structural anomalies
facial and ear malformations
nasal bone
CNS anomalies
cranial sutures
spine
extremities
fetal heart
chromosomal abnormalities and syndromes
fetal movement and behavior
placental and uterine vascularization

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35
Q

Artifacts caused by fetal movement

A

broken or bent bones in extremities
facial clefting due to cranial to caudal movement
facial widening due to right or left movement
thick or absent heart structures
abnormal spine alignment
failure of posterior final fusion due to vertical movement

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36
Q

term used to describe both 3D and 4D imaging

A

volume ultrasound

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37
Q

smallest unit of a 2D image

A

pixel

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38
Q

smallest unit of a 3D image

A

voxel

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39
Q

_______ volume acquisition techniques all use of the conventional 2D transducers

A

freehand

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40
Q

Motor contained within transducer housing provides an automated sweep; transducer remains stationary over area of interest; motor either performs a single sweep for 3D volume or continuously sweeps back and forth to acquire 4D volume

A

mechanical 3D/4D transducer

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41
Q

Volume contains a ____ or depth.

A

z-axis

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42
Q

______ = distance transducer covers during sweep

A

volume angle

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43
Q

A _____ acquisition speed results in more slices, higher quality volume, and higher resolution in reconstructed planes.

A

slower

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44
Q

planes that are always at right angles to each other

A

orthogonal planes

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45
Q

determines amount of information displayed in A and B planes

A

ROI box

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46
Q

The A plane has the _____ resolution

A

highest

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47
Q

The C plane has the ______ resolution

A

lowest

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48
Q

point where three orthogonal planes intersect

A

marker dot/reference dot

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49
Q

data displayed as series of parallel images; shows position of each parallel slice within volume data set

A

Multislice ultrasound imaging

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50
Q

different algorithms that are used to display 3D data set on screen

A

rendering modes

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51
Q

enhance boundaries and give perception of depth

A

shading and contouring algorithms

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52
Q

displays surface of face without displaying underlying anatomy

A

surface rendering mode

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53
Q

controls how smooth surface appears

A

surface smooth

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54
Q

adds texture to enhance details of the surface

A

surface texture

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55
Q

displays the structure as if it were illuminated by a light source

A

gradient light

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56
Q

rejects fewer low level echoes

A

low threshold

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57
Q

determines degree to which we see through voxel

A

transparency control

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58
Q

allows removal of unwanted structures

A

electronic eraser or scalpel

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59
Q

undoes and changes done to an image

A

restore or initialize button

60
Q

reduces or eliminates weaker echoes of soft-tissue structures; prominently displays strong echoes of bony skeleton

A

maximum, skeletal, or x-ray mode

61
Q

Two techniques to evaluate hypoechoic structures

A

minimum mode and inversion mode

62
Q

used to evaluate hypoechoic or fluid filled structures; display of any fluid filled structure as black on the MPR and volume

A

minimum mode

63
Q

displays hypoechoic structures, solid structures, or creates digital casts of objects; grayscale portions removed; all cystic areas within entire volume imaged together as echogenic areas

A

inversion mode

64
Q

used in conjunction with power or color Doppler

A

glass body or transparency mode

65
Q

tissue becomes transparent showing vascular structures within the volume, increasing visualization of relationship of blood vessels to surrounding anatomy

A

glass body or transparency mode

66
Q

3D imaging is also called:1

A

static 3D imaging

67
Q

In ______, the ultrasound transducer makes a single sweep through area of interest and obtains and stores volume.

A

3D imaging

68
Q

4D imaging is also called:

A

live or real-time imaging

69
Q

In _____, transducer elements sweep back and forth, continuously acquiring volume data

A

4D imaging

70
Q

number of volumes acquired per second

A

volume rate

71
Q

What is the greatest advantage of 3D imaging?

A

visualization of the coronal plane of the uterus

72
Q

two separate uterine cornua; external fundal indentation of greater than or equal to 1 cm

A

bicornuate uterus

73
Q

septum dividing cavity with less than 1 cm notch in fundal contour

A

septate uterus

74
Q

normal external uterine contour; concave fundal indentation of the endometrial cavity of less than 1 cm

A

arcuate uterus

75
Q

result of weakened pelvic musculature or tears in connective tissue that supports pelvic organs

A

pelvic floor injury

76
Q

symptoms of pelvic floor injury

A

urinary incontinence
overactive bladder syndrome
fetal incontinence
pelvic organ prolapse

77
Q

Helps distinguish benign and malignant findings

A

3D volue with power Doppler

78
Q

allows for 3D reconstruction of tumor’s vascular network

A

power Doppler angiography

79
Q

pivot location

A

reference dot

80
Q

method to manipulate the 3D volume and produce an image of coronal plane with correct orientation

A

Z-technique

81
Q

thin, hypoechoic space at posterior embryonic neck

A

nuchal translucency

82
Q

The nuchal transluceny appears between the _____ and _____

A

upper spine
occiput

83
Q

appears at posterior noeck; thickest at cervical region; lymphatic malformation; extends posterior length of embryo

A

cystic hygroma

84
Q

Most favorable time for surface rendering of fetal face

A

between 23 and 30 weeks

85
Q

mode that helps evaluate bony structures

A

maximum intensity projection

86
Q

brings out skin line

A

surface rendering mode

87
Q

provides method to evaluate fetal heart

A

spatiotemporal image correlation (STIC)

88
Q

The z-technique is also referred to as the :

A

spin technique

89
Q

occurs using multiple subvolumes to create final volume

A

stitching artifact

90
Q

adjustable before or after acquisition; removes data between line graphic and transducer

A

cut plane

91
Q

remove structures overlying area of interest

A

electronic scalpel

92
Q

________ is the acquisition and storage of a series of 2D images

A

volume ultrasound

93
Q

The ____ determines the amount of data acquired in the x- and y- axes, whereas the ______ determines the amount of data in the z-axis

A

ROI
volume angle

94
Q

The most common view for the 3D image is the ______

A

MPR format

95
Q

The _____ is a coronal image of anatomy unavailable with conventional 2D imaging

A

C plane

96
Q

the serial display of the acquired 2D images within the data set

A

tomographic ultrasound

97
Q

Displays the surface of a structure such as in the case of the fetal face or limbs

A

surface rendering

98
Q

______ changes how well we can see through the voxel, whereas the ____ removed surrounding structures allowing for increased visualization of the desired anatomy.

A

Transparency
scalpel

99
Q

_______ allows for imaging of the bony skeleton of the fetus

A

Maximum, skeletal, or x-ray mode

100
Q

_____ and _____ modes help in the evaluation of hypoechoic structures

A

minimum
inversion

101
Q

_____ used in conjuction with color Doppler modes, highlights vascular anatomy by increasing the transparency of the overlying tissue

A

Glass bodya

102
Q

_____ is the addition of time to the data acquisition, resulting in real-time display.

A

4D imaging

103
Q

The _____ technique provides a systematic method to aid in the orientation of anatomy shown on the MPR and volume rendering

A

z

104
Q

Artifacts unique to 3D imaging are caused by:

A

acquisition and system processing
fetal movement
shadowing
editing errors

105
Q

3D/4D imaging uses reconstruction abilities similar to:

A

computed tomography

106
Q

Pixel is defined as:

A

picture element

107
Q

2D transducers require _____ acquisition to produce 3D images.

A

freehand

108
Q

The ability to “see-through” the voxel depends on the:

A

transparency setting

109
Q

Evaluation of hypoechoic structures is enhanced with the adjustment of the:

A

minimum and inversion modes

110
Q

Anomalies of the fetal heart are best detected using _____ technology.

A

STIC

111
Q

All of the following are clinical applications for 3D/4D gynecologic ultrasound except:
a. congenital uterine anomalies
b. fetal lip characteristics
c. IUD location
d. infertility evaluation

A

C

112
Q

Select the view required to display diagnostic fetal heart images utilizing STIC technology.
a. Coronal AP heart
b. Decubitus heart displaying LVOT
c. Apical four chamber
d. PA four chamber

A

c

113
Q

Uterine volume imaging displays all except:
a. Essure device
b. IUD arm position’
c. bicornuate IUP
d. urinary incontinence

A

d

114
Q

What is not a common clinical application for a 3D/4D obstetric imaging?
a. nasal bone interrogation
b. STIC
c. adnexal assessment
d. extremity evaluation

A

c

115
Q

Limitations of 3D/4D imaging are all except:
a. poor 2D acquisition reveals subpar 3D imaging
b. surface-rendering ability
c. fetal movement
d. low amniotic fluid

A

b

116
Q

A reference dot is:

A

the point where three orthogonal planes intersect within the volume of

117
Q

In 3D imaging, a filter used to eliminate low-level echoes is called:

A

threshold

118
Q

The 3D mode that views hypoechoic structures and displays them as a solid structure or creates a digital case of the object is:

A

inversion mode

119
Q

The rendering mode, glass body, or transparency is used with:

A

color Doppler

120
Q

Planes that are positioned 90 degrees to each other in 3D imaging are called:

A

orthogonal planes

121
Q

The rendering mode useful for evaluating the spine, extremities, and cranial sutures is:

A

skeletal mode

122
Q

The smallest unit of a 3D data set:

A

voxel

123
Q

Distortion of anatomy can be caused by:

A

movement of anatomy

124
Q

The central dot seen in the MPR views shows the intersection of the planes and the _____ location.

A

pivot

125
Q

The term used to describe both 3D and 4D imaging is ______ imaging.

A

volume

126
Q

____ ultrasound provides anatomical views that are difficult or even impossible to obtain with 2D ultrasound.

A

3D

127
Q

When a sagittal uterus is imaged with 3D, the B-plane displays a ______ uterus and the C-plane image displays a _____ uterus.

A

sagittal
coronal

128
Q

The _____ box determines the amount of information displayed in the A and B planes, whereas the determination of the amount of information in the C-plane is through the size of the _____ angle.

A

ROI
volume

129
Q

_______ transducers obtain conventional 2D images as well as 3D images.

A

Mechanical 3D/4D

130
Q

A real-time volume acquisition of the fetal heart is performed with _______ correlation

A

spatiotemporal

131
Q

The ____ plane, adjustable before or after the acquisition, removes data between the line graphic and the transducer, allowing for editing of the volume.

A

cut

132
Q

3D rendering mode that displays the surface or skin of the body without displaying the underlying anatomy is ______

A

surface rendering

133
Q

A ______ image of anatomy cannot be obtained with conventional 2D imaging.

A

coronal

134
Q

Planes that are always at right angles to each other; typically sagittal, transverse, and coronal are known as ______ planes.

A

orthogonal

135
Q

Conventional 2D imaging does not display a ______ view.

A

coronal

136
Q

Tomographic ultrasound imaging is also known as ______ imaging.

A

multislice

137
Q

Pelvic floor imaging that includes both grayscale and volume images requires the use of a ______.

A

3D endovaginal transducer

138
Q

3D is referred to as static imaging whereas 4D is called _____ or _____ imaging

A

live
real time

139
Q

The internal _____ in 3D/4D transducers provide spatial information, allowing for precise volume reconstruction.

A

sensors

140
Q

Acquisition _____, a user-controlled parameters, changes the quality of the resulting data set

A

speed

141
Q

Evaluation of bony structures is best with _____, _____, or ______ mode, whereas surface rendering mode brings out the _____ line.

A

maximum
skeletal
x-ray
surface

142
Q

_______, used in conjunction with color Doppler modes, highlights vascular anatomy by increasing the transparency of the overlying tissue.

A

glass body or transparency mode

143
Q

_______ volume acquisition techniques allow the use of conventional 2D transducers. In this method, examiners manually sweep or move the transducer through the area of interest.

A

Freehand

144
Q

Regarding 4D ultrasound, the _____ the volume rate, the closer to real time the images appear.

A

higher

145
Q
A