NZ IFR

Question 1

With regard to RNP, what is the definition of cross-track error and how does it relate to the navigation accuracy for the procedure?

Answer 1

Cross track error = the RNAV computed flight path and the aircraft position relative to the flight path.

Cross-track error should be limited to half the navigation accuracy of the procedure e.g. RNP1 max deviation 0.5NM

Question 2

Can a departure with a visual segment be conducted at night?

Answer 2

No, unless the visual segment is to be flown at night and is annotated on the respective chart

Question 3

What are the requirements for a pilot using a secondary or grass runway for take off for an IFR flight?

Answer 3

The runway has a promulgated IFR take off minimum.

Day only

Pilot maintains own terrain clearance until established on the departure procedure

can maintain an adequate climb gradient to ensure obstacle clearance

Question 4

When departing in an evaluated climb sector, unless otherwise specified, an aircraft on a departure must reach a height of _________ or higher above aerodrome level before commencing a turn.

Answer 4

400ft

Question 5

When departing in an evaluated climb sector, if an aircraft is required to cross through two or more sectors to intercept the departure, what climb gradients applies and when do they apply?

Answer 5

The higher climb gradient applies from take off

Question 6

You are departing in an evaluated climb sector and the aircraft is required to depart on a radial dividing two sectors one of which is standard 3.3%. The aircraft is required to climb at the higher climb gradient or the lower climb gradient?

Answer 6

The lower sector graident

Question 7

Calculate the ft per minute requirer to maintain a 4% gradient at 180kts

Answer 7

(GSx1.013 )x gradient= vs

(180x1.013) x 4= 728

Question 8

Vat cat B

Answer 8

91-120

Question 9

Vat Cat C

Answer 9

121-140

Question 10

Initial approach speed Cat B

Answer 10

120-180

Question 11

Initial approach speed Cat C

Answer 11

160-240

Question 12

Final approach speeds Cat B

Answer 12

85-130

Question 13

Final approach speed Cat C

Answer 13

115-160

Question 14

Max circling speed Cat B

Answer 14

135

Question 15

Max circling Cat C

Answer 15

180

Question 16

Max speed missed approach Cat B

Answer 16

150

Question 17

Max missed approach speed Cat C

Answer 17

240

Question 18

How can an aircraft with an approach speed of 90-110kts adjust procedural timing?

Answer 18

2 min may be increased to 2.5

3 min may he increased to 4 min

Question 19

Can outbound time or DME distances be shortened on an instrument approach?

Answer 19

Yes provided that the wind velocity at different altitudes has been confirmed by an immediately proceeding instrument approach and applicable descent rates can be maintained during final approach

Question 20

Tracking outbound on an approach which is both time and DME limited, when is the inbound turn started?

Answer 20

At the limit that is reached first e.g. DME or time

Question 21

What is the terrain clearance on a DME arc?

Answer 21

1000ft over terrain 2.5nm each side of the arc ENR 4.14.3e

Question 22

When can a pilot descend below DA, DH, MDA?

Answer 22

When using normal descent rates and manoeuvring, within the circling area, with appropriate visibility for the approach, visual reference with

Approach lighting
Threshold marking
Threshold lights
Runway end identifier lights
VASI
touchdown zone markings
Runway markings or lights

Question 23

What is the terrain clearance and required climb gradient on a missed approach?

Answer 23

98ft
2.5%
ENR 4.17.9

Question 24

What are the circling areas radius for
CAT A
CAT B
CAT C

Answer 24

CAT A 1.68
CAT B 2.66
CAT C 4.2

Question 25

When an aircraft is cleared for an instrument approach under radar, except where otherwise instructed the aircraft may descend to a minimum initial approach altitude of?
5

Answer 25

Altitude on the:
STAR
RNAV arrival
Route MSA
25nm MSA
TAA
VORSEC chart

Question 26

When an aircraft is not under radar control the minimum initial approach altitude will must be the higher of?
2

Answer 26

The minimum procedural commencement altitude shown on the instrument approach chart

MSA for the route sector (lower of MSA for the route

VORSEC chart steps

25nm MSA diagram

GNSS approved TAA altitude

Question 27

When can a pilot make a visual approach?

Answer 27

The pilot specifically states request visual approach

Can maintain visual reference with terrain

The reported ceiling is above the approved initial approach level for the aircraft so cleared or;

The pilot reports at the initial approach level or any time during the instrument approach procedure that condition permit a visual approach and a landing is likely

Question 28

Conditions required for ATC to broadcast conditions suitable for a visual approach?

Answer 28

16km vis

Ceiling is 1000ft above the minimum radar vectoring alt or the instrument MPCA

Question 29

What is a visual arrival?

Answer 29

Pilots continue tracking, minimum alt and dist requirements of the procedure except ATC may amend altitude requirements.

Question 30

To conduct a visual approach at night the pilot must?

Answer 30

Have in sight the RUNWAY LIGHTS all other lights insufficent

Question 31

What is a VVS?

Answer 31

Visual segment surface

To protect the visual component of an instrument flight from the point where obstacle clearance height is reached until landing.

Starts at 60m from the landing threshold 1.12degree slope. Ends where the the surface reaches MDA or DA

Question 32

In uncontrolled airspace, a pilot may carry out a visual approach provided:

Answer 32

Can maintain visual reference with terrain

Ceiling is not below the initial approach level

At night has runway lights in sight

Question 33

How is remote QNH calculated?

Answer 33

And 5ft for every one nm in excess of 5 nm from the QNH source

Question 34

Can an instrument approach that states “use local QNH only” be conducted using remote QNH

Answer 34

No

Question 35

A precision approach procedure cannot be used as alternate if at the time of arrival the forecast indicates conditions below?

Answer 35

600ft ceiling or 200ft above the DA/DH whichever is higher

3000m vis or 1000m more the the prescribed minima whichever is higher

Question 36

A non precision approach procedure cannot be used as alternate if at the time of arrival the forecast indicates conditions below?

Answer 36

800ft ceiling or 200ft above MDA whichever is higher

4000m vis or 1500m more then the prescribed minima whichever is higher

Question 37

Where dose a SID start?

Answer 37

16’ above the departure end of the runway

Question 38

What is the IFR take off minima?

Answer 38

Minima stated on the take minima in the operational data

Or

300’ ceiling, 1500 m vis

Question 39

What are the meteorological requirements for reduced Take off minima

Answer 39

Ceiling 0

800m visibility

Question 40

What are the requirements for a reduced minima take off?

Answer 40

Runway centreline marking or lights

Visibility confirmed by the pilot by observation of the centreline marking or lights.

Reduced take off is allowed under operational data

Obstacles are taken into account

Auto feather or coarse if propeller driven

Question 41

Outboud holding times below and above 14000’?

Answer 41

1min at and below 14000’

1.5min above 14000’